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GED 12 – Living in IT Era Examination (Multiple Choice)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is netiquette defined as?

a)

A set of rules for acceptable online behavior

b)

Moral principles guiding internet use

c)

Technologies protecting networks from attacks

d)

Knowledge maximizing personal safety online

2.

Which action violates proper internet etiquette per the document?

a)

Using proper quotes for sources

b)

Writing in all capital letters

c)

Keeping personal information private

d)

Being patient with internet newbies

3.

What distinguishes the Golden Rule from the other 5 core netiquette rules?

a)

It requires sharing knowledge, unlike rules about time or flames

b)

It applies only to one-to-one chats, not public forums

c)

It prioritizes bandwidth over human respect in interactions

d)

It emphasizes offline-online behavioral equivalence, while others focus on cyberspace specifics

4.

Which security component is most directly countered by complex passwords?

a)

Confidentiality, as it blocks unauthorized access to accounts

b)

Integrity, preventing data modification by outsiders

c)

Availability, ensuring steady information flow

d)

Bandwidth, respecting others' online resources

5.

What distinguishes pharming from phishing in redirection tactics?

a)

Pharming uses only emails, phishing targets Wi-Fi networks

b)

Both require paying ransom, pharming spoofs sites identically

c)

Pharming redirects legitimate URLs to fake sites automatically, phishing tricks via fake links

d)

Pharming spreads via worms, phishing via Trojans exclusively

6.

What common motive links romance scams, job scams, and investment scams?

a)

Technical theft like SIM swaps or card data copying

b)

Public exposure through forums or social media posts

c)

Emotional manipulation to extract money via fabricated urgent stories

d)

Immediate demands for personal information without trust-building

7.

How does Data Privacy Act scope differ from Cybercrime Prevention Act focus?

a)

DPA regulates personal data processing across sectors, Cybercrime penalizes specific IT crimes

b)

DPA targets only government, Cybercrime handles international extradition

c)

Both enforce via NPC, DPA excludes banks entirely

d)

DPA covers child pornography, Cybercrime focuses on plagiarism

8.

Judge the most critical first response if victimized by an online scam according to guidelines?

a)

Change all passwords and update software

b)

Spread the word to family and friends

c)

Check for https on all future sites

d)

Immediately report to local authorities before any rash decisions

9.

Which malware type poses greatest irreversible damage risk?

a)

Spyware collecting data secretly

b)

Trojan logging keystrokes temporarily

c)

Virus disabling security temporarily

d)

Ransomware encryption locking files permanently without backups

10.

Evaluate why "do not pay ransom" ranks highest ransomware advice?

a)

No guarantee of access recovery, funds criminals further

b)

Always recoverable via technicians

c)

Backups eliminate all infection risks

d)

Law enforcement fines scammers automatically

11.

Judge the most severe penalty category under RA 10175?

a)

Cybersex: minimum Php 200,000200{,}000 fine

b)

Online libel: 6-12 years prison mayor

c)

Child pornography: 12-20 years reclusion temporal

d)

Computer forgery: maximum Php 200,000200{,}000 fine

12.

Judge why Trojan horses pose greater stealth risk than obvious viruses?

a)

Require email attachments exclusively

b)

Always demand visible ransom payments

c)

Disguised as legitimate software for automatic undetected installation

d)

Spread only via network worms

13.

What is an online service defined as?

a)

Any information and services provided over the Internet

b)

Only paid subscriptions for data access

c)

Text-based interfaces from 1979 only

d)

Government portals exclusively

14.

When were online services first introduced?

a)

1979 through CompuServe and The Source

b)

1986 with Philippine BBS

c)

1993 PHNet project

d)

1994 global internet connection

15.

What explains how online services evolved from 1979 to modern free access?

a)

Only BBS systems remained text-based

b)

Internet popularity made services prevalent, often free

c)

PHNet limited to universities exclusively

d)

E-commerce replaced all communication services

16.

Why does order tracking benefit courier customers specifically?

a)

Allows membership changes for gyms

b)

Offers feedback forms for service improvement

c)

Provides delivery timelines

d)

Manages SSS loan contributions

17.

What does CRM software primarily enable for online businesses?

a)

Connect universities nationwide like original PHNet project

b)

Provide telecommunications services like Globe/Smart/Dito

c)

Improve customer relationships through feedback

d)

Manage membership packages for gyms and clubs online

18.

Why was PHNet project significant in Philippine online service history?

a)

Foundational step connecting universities for nationwide internet access

b)

First BBS system established in Philippines 1986

c)

Commercial ISP launches occurred 1994-1995 period

d)

Global internet formal connection March 29, 1994

19.

Why is eGovPH called a "superapp" in the Philippine context?

a)

Leading marketplace competing with Shopee/Lazada directly

b)

Mobile broadband service from major telecom providers

c)

Online web market portal for grocery/food shopping

d)

Single platform accessing multiple government services

20.

Which pair best categorizes government vs. commercial online services by function?

a)

eGovPH superapp vs. Globe/Smart telecom broadband

b)

PhilHealth contributions vs. Carousell used goods trading

c)

MYEG PHSSS payments vs. Shopee/Lazada shopping marketplaces

d)

BIR taxes vs. freelancing home-based tutoring services

21.

How does CRM software relate differently to feedback forms vs. bookings systems?

a)

CRM analyzes purchasing patterns/marketing, feedback identifies problems, bookings manages diaries

b)

All three generate Digital National ID via eGovPH equally

c)

CRM tracks Shopee deliveries, feedback manages gym memberships

d)

Bookings analyzes TIN requirements, feedback handles Lazada shopping

22.

What differentiates business growth benefit from customer engagement in online services?

a)

Both track courier deliveries with real-time updates equally

b)

Growth manages PhilHealth payments, engagement generates BIR tax forms

c)

Growth reaches more customers competitively, engagement provides menu/contact details

d)

Growth increases government service access only

23.

How does freelance work relate structurally to online home-based businesses?

a)

Freelancing manages SSS contributions, home businesses track Lazada orders

b)

Both provide TIEZA travel tax services exclusively

c)

Both leverage internet accessibility for global customer reach (tutoring/e-loading)

d)

Home businesses connect universities like PHNet 1993 project

24.

How does feedback forms function differ from CRM software analytically?

a)

Both manage gym membership packages and schedule changes equally

b)

Feedback tracks Shopee deliveries, CRM generates SSS reference numbers

c)

Forms provide TIEZA travel tax, CRM handles TIN document assistance

d)

Feedback identifies specific problems reactively, CRM predicts patterns proactively for marketing

25.

What is the Internet of Things (IoT) defined as?

a)

Physical objects with sensors/software interacting via networks with little human intervention

b)

Only smartphones and streaming media players

c)

Wired networks excluding Wi-Fi and Bluetooth

d)

Devices without cloud computing connectivity

26.

What are the two primary categories of connected IoT devices?

a)

Digital-first and physical-first

b)

Pure digital and pure device only

c)

M2M communications exclusively

d)

Cloud computing and edge devices

27.

To monitor farm soil moisture and automatically irrigate crops remotely, which IoT technology combination should be applied?

a)

RFID tags on livestock + 5G cellular for urban traffic + cloud analytics for retail inventory

b)

Sensors detecting moisture + actuators opening valves + LoRaWAN connectivity for remote areas

c)

Bluetooth speakers + Wi-Fi thermostats + NFC payments for healthcare monitoring

d)

Zigbee edge devices + Ethernet gateways for manufacturing machine performance

28.

A hospital needs to track vital signs and medication adherence for remote patients—which IoT application fits best?

a)

Smart traffic systems rerouting ambulances via real-time maps

b)

Wearable sensors collecting heart rate/blood pressure data analyzed in cloud platforms

c)

Retail foot traffic sensors optimizing patient room layouts

d)

Industrial robotics monitoring factory equipment failures

29.

For a retailer optimizing store layouts based on shopper behavior, apply which IoT deployment?

a)

Vehicle performance monitoring for delivery route efficiency

b)

Soil moisture sensors for warehouse climate control

c)

Drone surveillance for outdoor parking optimization

d)

Foot traffic sensors analyzing customer interactions for product placement

30.

During COVID-19 tracking, epidemiologists used connected thermometers—how did this apply IoT principles?

a)

Real-time fever data collection shared via networks for disease spread analysis

b)

Smart speaker shopping lists for medication inventory

c)

Tollbooth transponders tracking patient vehicle movements

31.

Converting a physical-first keychain into trackable IoT device—which addition enables connectivity?

a)

Built-in 5G antenna for cellular data transmission

b)

Post-manufacture microchip/sensor enabling location tracking

c)

Cloud computing platform for data storage only

d)

Machine learning algorithms for predictive analytics

32.

How does digital-first connectivity differ structurally from physical-first IoT devices?

a)

Digital-first built-in connectivity, physical-first post-added chips

b)

Digital-first uses only Wi-Fi/Bluetooth, physical-first limited to RFID/NFC exclusively

c)

Both require cloud gateways equally, digital-first excludes sensors/actuators

d)

Physical-first designed for M2M only, digital-first lacks edge device processing

33.

Which triad best categorizes IoT enabling technologies by function?

a)

RFID (identification) + M2M (communication) + edge devices (local storage) only

b)

Big data (analytics) + encryption (security) + LoRaWAN (remote sensing) exclusively

c)

I²FPRO (protocols) + 5G (speed) + NFC (payments) for digital-first devices

d)

Sensors/actuators (detect/act) + connectivity (Wi-Fi/Bluetooth) + cloud (data processing)

34.

What distinguishes lockscreen ransomware from encryption ransomware in IoT attack vectors?

a)

Lockscreen spreads via Wi-Fi only, encryption requires Bluetooth pairing

b)

Both recoverable via RFID tags, lockscreen targets medical devices exclusively

c)

Lockscreen blocks UI access, encryption scrambles file data

d)

Encryption monitors via sensors, lockscreen uses cloud analytics for spread

35.

Why does basic fish tank breach reveal specific IoT gateway vulnerability patterns?

a)

Unprotected device provides network entry to corporate systems via weak edge connectivity

b)

Fish tank used RFID for payment processing, bypassed cloud encryption entirely

c)

Breach exploited 5G cellular backhaul, not local gateway vulnerabilities

d)

Corporate networks isolated fish tank via Bluetooth, preventing IoT infiltration

36.

What security concern pattern connects pacemakers, baby monitors, and surveillance cameras?

a)

All use identical RFID encryption, pacemakers excluded from network connectivity

b)

Vulnerable IoT endpoints enable hacker access to sensitive personal/corporate data streams

c)

Baby monitors deploy cloud analytics, cameras limited to edge device processing

d)

Surveillance uses M2M communication, pacemakers require human intervention only

37.

Information Technology influences culture by changing how people communicate, work, and access what?

a)

Digital storytelling groups

b)

Information

c)

Transportation networks

d)

Physical resources

38.

Digital technologies help preserve cultural heritage by creating what type of collections?

a)

Oral storytelling groups

b)

Digital archives

c)

Community libraries

d)

Manual records

39.

A community adopts digital archives to preserve folk music but notices younger generations engaging more with memes and online art. What cultural shift can be inferred?

a)

Digital preservation is replacing traditional music

b)

Hybrid cultural expressions are emerging

c)

Local culture is becoming completely lost

d)

Digital content is preventing cultural learning

40.

If online platforms promote personal branding and visibility over group-based identity, what cultural trend is likely to develop?

a)

Collectivism increases in rural areas

b)

Traditional storytelling becomes more valued

c)

Individualism becomes more dominant

d)

Physical community engagement replaces digital communication

41.

A region with limited internet access experiences reduced digital cultural participation. What underlying issue explains this outcome?

a)

Digital divide

b)

Cultural replication

c)

Cultural empowerment

d)

Technological redundancy

42.

Technology reshapes decisions in agriculture through real-time data, replacing seasonal observation and local knowledge. What cultural impact does this represent?

a)

Increased reliance on oral tradition

b)

Revival of indigenous knowledge

c)

Elimination of environmental hazards

d)

Decline of experiential farming customs

43.

If digital tools connect farmers to regional and international markets, what cultural pattern is being formed?

a)

Greater isolation from outside knowledge

b)

Expansion of socio-economic networks beyond local communities

c)

Increased dependence on traditional barter systems

d)

Return to seasonal crop decision-making

44.

A local heritage group uploads indigenous stories to a global streaming site. What is the best evaluation of this strategy?

a)

It increases worldwide access but risks cultural misinterpretation

b)

It guarantees accurate representation of oral history

c)

It reduces the need for cultural education

d)

It creates instant cultural homogenization

45.

Farmers replace communal pest monitoring with digital sensor alerts. Which assessment fits this change?

a)

Shared labor becomes essential for crop survival

b)

Sensor data always replaces human skill

c)

Manual scouting is more objective than digital data

d)

Technology improves response time but weakens collective observation rituals

46.

A community uses agricultural apps but no longer consults elders for seasonal knowledge. What evaluation is supported by the document?

a)

Elder knowledge always replaces AI calculations

b)

Technology improves respect for ancestry

c)

Digital decision-making can degrade generational cultural transmission

d)

Local expertise is irrelevant to farming tradition

47.

A country invests in digital heritage archives instead of community dance gatherings. Which evaluation is justified?

a)

Digital storage always increases cultural participation

b)

Archives secure information but weaken embodied cultural practice

c)

Community involvement doesn’t affect cultural survival

d)

Dance practices can be perfectly replaced by recordings

48.

Multiple farming communities share drone footage rather than local storytelling about land conditions. What evaluation fits?

a)

Shared digital evidence improves transparency

b)

Storytelling is more scientific than drones

c)

Drones reinforce folklore accuracy

d)

Technology prevents cultural erosion

49.

Families spend more time at dinner on their phones than talking to each other. What social consequence does this behavior suggest?

a)

Enhanced emotional intimacy

b)

Reduced interpersonal engagement

c)

Improved conflict management

d)

Increased family traditions

50.

Teenagers compare themselves to curated online images of “perfect lives.” Which psychological process best explains this outcome?

a)

Objective self-evaluation

b)

Improved emotional resilience

c)

Increased real-world connection

d)

Social comparison leading to low self-esteem

51.

If a person spends 24 hours a week on a device, what evaluation best describes this behavior?

a)

It may contribute to anxiety and distracted daily life

b)

It guarantees academic improvement

c)

It increases emotional intelligence

d)

It strengthens long-term family communication

52.

A school encourages constant messaging among students. What evaluation is supported by the document?

a)

Digital connection guarantees healthy friendships

b)

Unlimited messaging eliminates loneliness

c)

Texting increases empathy more than conversation

d)

“Always-on culture” reduces meaningful interpersonal growth

53.

Influencers post curated “perfect lifestyles.” What critique is most justified?

a)

Influencers accurately represent average life

b)

Social media encourages unrealistic comparison

c)

Online visuals always improve confidence

d)

Digital presentation increases authentic identity

54.

Teens with addiction-like symptoms use phones nearly five hours daily. What evaluation fits this description?

a)

Daily phone use eliminates addiction risks

b)

High engagement correlates with addiction behavior

c)

Five hours online improves emotional maturity

d)

Screen time cannot influence attention span

55.

Friends meet physically but spend time scrolling separately. What critique best fits?

a)

Physical presence does not guarantee genuine interaction

b)

Scrolling increases emotional bonding

c)

Digital habits support improved group communication

d)

Online attention enhances social connection

56.

A household implements weekly “no-internet nights.” What evaluation fits this practice?

a)

Unplugging leads to long-term isolation

b)

Technology needs no regulation in families

c)

Digital breaks decrease real-world awareness

d)

Intermittent disconnection supports healthier social habits

57.

People seek validation through likes and followers. What evaluation aligns with the reading?

a)

Social validation encourages emotional security

b)

Likes accurately measure personal worth

c)

Reliance on digital approval harms self-esteem

d)

Online feedback eliminates identity issues

58.

Teenagers check phones during conversations with parents. Based on the document, what is the best assessment?

a)

Divided attention weakens emotional connection in relationships

b)

Device use increases communication skills

c)

Multitasking enhances empathy

d)

Phone presence guarantees attentiveness

59.

A university suggests counseling for extreme social media use. What judgment aligns with the reading?

a)

Counseling reinforces addiction behaviors

b)

Limiting screen time leads to poorer mental health

c)

Technology addiction cannot be treated behaviorally

d)

Professional support may help reduce depression linked to screen time

60.

A community discusses setting public “phone-free zones.” What evaluation aligns with the document?

a)

Promoting mindful device use supports social well-being

b)

Restricted phone areas damage mental health

c)

Phone bans increase compulsive use

d)

Public regulation of devices destroys community identity