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Unit 4: Cell Communication & Division

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The type of feedback loop that reduces the initial stimulus back to its set point:

a)

Negative feedback loop

b)

Positive feedback loop

c)

Both negative and positive feedback loops do this

2.

When glucose levels are at very high levels in the bloodstream, the pancreas will release a hormone to alert cells and the liver to uptake the excess glucose. The hormone is:

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

c)

epinephrine

d)

cortisol

3.

When the bloodstream has very low levels of glucose, the pancreas will release a hormone to alert liver cells to break down stored glycogen (polymer) into glucose (monomer). The hormone responsible for this is:

a)

epinephrine

b)

estrogen

c)

insulin

d)

glucagon

4.

The type of feedback loop that amplifies responses further away from the set point:

a)

Negative feedback loop

b)

Positive feedback loop

c)

Both positive and negative feedback loops do this

5.

Child birth and fruit ripening are examples of which feedback loop?

a)

Either negative or positive feedback loops

b)

Negative feedback loop

c)

Positive feedback loop

6.

Plant cells contain small channels that allow direct movement of smaller, water soluble molecules (such as ions, signaling molecules, and some proteins) between adjacent cells. These channels help maintain communication and coordination across tissues by enabling cytoplasmic continuity. What are these plant cell structures called?

a)

Neurotransmitters

b)

Plasmodesmata

c)

Glycoproteins

d)

Gap junctions

7.

In the immune system, T-cells bind directly to antigen-presenting cells (APCs) when a receptor on the T-cell surface recognizes and attaches to a complementary molecule on the APC. Both of these surface molecules are membrane glycoproteins. Which statement best explains the role of these glycoproteins in this interaction?

a)

They act as enzymes that break down foreign antigens before T-cell activation can occur.

b)

They function as cell-surface markers that enable specific binding between cells, leading to targeted immune activation.

c)

They serve primarily as transport proteins that move antigens across the plasma membrane.

d)

They create channels that allow cytoplasmic contents to flow directly between the T-cell and the APC.

8.

In animal tissues such as cardiac muscle, adjacent cells are connected by specialized protein channels that link their cytoplasm, allowing ions and small molecules to pass directly from one cell to another. This coordination enables the tissue to contract in a synchronized rhythm. What are these structures called?

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Desmosomes

c)

Plasmodesmata

d)

Tight junctions

9.

In long-distance signaling, endocrine cells release hormones that must travel throughout the body to reach target cells in distant organs. Through which pathway do these hormones primarily travel?

a)

synaptic cleft

b)

lymph nodes

c)

bloodstream

d)

interstitial fluid

10.

The first step in a signal transduction pathway is:

a)

Second messengers activate intracellular enzymes.

b)

Protein kinases begin phosphorylating target proteins.

c)

A ligand binds to a receptor protein on the target cell.

d)

Ion channels open to propagate an electrical signal.

11.

Receptor proteins on the surface of a cell can bind only certain signaling molecules (or ligands). Which property of these receptors is most responsible for ensuring that only specific ligands can attach?

a)

Their direct connection to second messenger pathways

b)

Their location within the plasma membrane

c)

Their ability to move freely throughout the cytoplasm

d)

Their unique combinations of charge distribution and three-dimensional shape

12.

Kinases are enzymes that play a key role in many signal transduction pathways. What is the main function of a kinase in these pathways?

a)

Transporting signaling molecules across the plasma membrane

b)

Removing phosphate groups from proteins to deactivate them

c)

Binding ligands on the cell surface to initiate signaling

d)

Adding phosphate groups to proteins to alter their activity

13.

Polar signaling molecules cannot generally cross the hydrophobic lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. How do these molecules typically initiate a cellular response?

a)

By binding to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm

b)

By binding to receptors embedded in the plasma membrane

c)

By passing through ion channels to enter the cytoplasm

d)

By being transported across the membrane via vesicles and binding nuclear proteins

14.

When a signaling molecule binds to its receptor on a target cell, the receptor often changes shape. What is the significance of this conformational change?

a)

It initiates the transduction of the signal inside the cell.

b)

It causes the receptor to be degraded by lysosomes.

c)

It prevents other signaling molecules from binding to neighboring cells.

d)

It allows the ligand to enter the cytoplasm directly.

15.

Calcium ions (Ca+) and Cyclic AMP (cAMP) are important molecules in many signal transduction pathways. They work in different ways within a pathway, but serve the same purpose. What is their primary role?

a)

They both degrade ligands that bind to the receptors.

b)

They both serve as secondary messengers to relay or amplify signals inside the cell.

c)

They both transport signaling molecules across the plasma membranes.

d)

They both act as a receptor for signaling molecules.

16.

What is the correct order of the cell cycle phases:

a)

G1 > S > G2 > M

b)

G1 > G2 > S > M

c)

S > M > G1 > G2

d)

G1 > M > G2 > S

17.

What major event occurs in S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Chromosomes condense and become visible under a microscope

b)

The cell grows and produces new organelles

c)

The nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle fibers form

d)

DNA is replicated, resulting in the duplication of chromosomes

18.

The images show different stages of the cell cycle. Arrange them in the correct chronological order from first to last.

a)

VI > I > IV > III > V > II

b)

III > VI > I > IV > II > V

c)

III > IV > I > VI > II > V

d)

VI > III > I > IV > II > V

19.

Which molecules are primarily responsible for regulating the progression of the cell cycle at checkpoints?

a)

DNA polymerases and ligases

b)

Ribosomes and tRNA

c)

Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)

d)

Microtubules and actin filaments

20.

How do cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) work together to regulate the cell cycle?

a)

Cyclins activate CDKs, which then phosphorylate target proteins to advance the cell cycle

b)

Cyclins break down DNA while CDKs form the mitotic spindle

c)

CDKs produce cyclins, which replicate the cell’s DNA

d)

Cyclins and CDKs both directly synthesize proteins for cell growth

21.

What happens to cyclin levels in a cell before it reaches a specific cell cycle checkpoint?

a)

Cyclin levels stay high throughout the entire cell cycle

b)

Cyclin levels are always zero

c)

Cyclin levels remain very low until they are needed to help the cell pass the checkpoint

d)

Cyclin levels randomly fluctuate without affecting the cell cycle

22.

What is the main purpose of the M phase (spindle) checkpoint in the cell cycle?

a)

To check that all chromosome centromeres are properly attached to spindle fibers before anaphase

b)

To verify that DNA has been fully replicated during S phase

c)

To ensure the cell has enough nutrients before DNA replication

d)

To trigger cell growth and organelle production

23.

What is the main purpose of the G1 checkpoint in the cell cycle?

a)

To verify that DNA has been fully replicated

b)

To trigger the breakdown of the nuclear envelope

c)

To ensure all chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers before anaphase

d)

To check if the cell has enough nutrients, growth signals, and undamaged DNA before entering S phase

24.

What is the main purpose of the G2 checkpoint in the cell cycle?

a)

To check that the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibers

b)

To ensure that all DNA has been accurately replicated before mitosis

c)

To verify that the cell has enough nutrients to grow

d)

To trigger the breakdown of the nuclear envelope

25.

Why do cancer cells often survive when normal cells would undergo apoptosis?

a)

They have extra nutrients to support growth

b)

They replicate DNA more slowly than normal cells

c)

They are unable to divide

d)

They ignore signals that normally trigger programmed cell death

26.

Which of the following correctly lists the three main components of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group, sugar, nitrogenous base

b)

Ribosome, amino acid, phosphate group

c)

Protein, lipid, carbohydrate

d)

DNA, RNA, protein

27.

In DNA, base pairs always consist of one purine and one pyrimidine. Which of the following correctly matches this rule?

a)

Adenine (purine) pairs with Cytosine (pyrimidine), and Guanine (purine) pairs with Thymine (pyrimidine)

b)

Adenine (purine) pairs with Guanine (purine), and Cytosine (pyrimidine) pairs with Thymine (pyrimidine)

c)

Adenine (purine) pairs with Thymine (pyrimidine), and Guanine (purine) pairs with Cytosine (pyrimidine)

d)

Adenine (pyrimidine) pairs with Thymine (purine), and Guanine (pyrimidine) pairs with Cytosine (purine)

28.

A DNA molecule is found to contain 30% adenine (A). What are the approximate percentages of the other bases?

a)

Thymine (T) 20%, Cytosine (C) 30%, Guanine (G) 20%

b)

Thymine (T) 30%, Cytosine (C) 20%, Guanine (G) 20%

c)

Thymine (T) 30%, Cytosine (C) 25%, Guanine (G) 15%

d)

Thymine (T) 30%, Cytosine (C) 30%, Guanine (G) 10%

29.

During DNA replication, how are the leading and lagging strands synthesized?

a)

Both strands are synthesized continuously in the 3′ → 5′ direction

b)

The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5′ → 3′ direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments in the 5′ → 3′ direction

c)

The leading strand is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments in the 3′ → 5′ direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized continuously in the 3′ → 5′ direction

30.

What is the main role of DNA polymerase during DNA replication?

a)

To unwind the DNA double helix

b)

To add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand

c)

To join DNA fragments together

d)

To synthesize RNA primers

31.

What is the main role of DNA ligase during DNA replication?

a)

To add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand

b)

To join multiple fragments on the lagging strand and the fragment on the leading strand through a covalent bond

c)

To unwind the DNA double helix

d)

To synthesize RNA primers

32.

What is the main role of DNA helicase during DNA replication?

a)

To add nucleotides to the growing DNA strand

b)

To synthesize RNA primers

c)

To join fragments on the lagging strand

d)

To unwind the DNA double helix at the replication fork

33.

What is the main role of the enzyme topoisomerase during DNA replication?

a)

To relieve the tension and supercoiling caused by unwinding the DNA

b)

To add nucleotides to the growing DNA strand

c)

To join fragments on the lagging strand

d)

To unwind the DNA double helix at the replication fork

34.

DNA replication is described as semi-conservative. What does this mean?

a)

Each new DNA molecule contains two newly synthesized strands

b)

Each new DNA molecule contains one original (template) strand and one newly synthesized strand

c)

DNA is copied without separating the original strands

d)

The new DNA molecules are completely different from the original DNA

35.

The image shows a DNA replication fork with the two template strands labeled. Based on the direction of replication- Which template strand will make the leading strand? Hint: Look at the 5' to 3' directionality to determine this! Does the leading strand get made towards or away from the fork?

a)

Template Strand 1 → Will be used to make the leading strand towards the replication fork

b)

Template Strand 2 → Will be used to make the leading strand towards the replication fork

c)

Template Strand 2 → Will be used to make the leading strand away from the replication fork

d)

Template Strand 1 → Will be used to make the leading strand away from the replication fork

36.

Which statement correctly matches a stage of mitosis with what happens during that stage?

a)

Prophase – Chromosomes condense and the nuclear membrane breaks down

b)

Metaphase – Chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite sides of the cell

c)

Anaphase – Chromosomes line up across the center of the cell

d)

Telophase – Chromosomes first become visible as long, thin strands

37.

If a DNA sample contains 22.4% guanine (G), what are the correct percentages of all four bases in the sample?

a)

A = 22.4%,

T = 22.4%

G = 27.6%

C = 27.6%

b)

A = 27.6%

T = 27.6%

G = 22.4%

C = 22.4%

c)

A = 22.4%

T = 27.6%

G = 22.4%

C = 27.6%

d)

A = 38.8%

T = 38.8%

G = 11.2%

C = 11.2%

38.

Which mitosis phase has spindle fibers attaching to the centromeres of the 2 sister chromatids of a chromosome?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

39.

What is the main purpose of cytokinesis?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To divide the nucleus into two identical parts

c)

To separate the cytoplasm and form two distinct daughter cells

d)

To line up chromosomes in the center of the cell

40.

Which of the following best explains the role of Enzyme 1?

a)

Enzyme 1 is a DNA ligase that joins DNA fragments at a replication fork to form continuous strand

b)

Enzyme 1 is a DNA primase that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA primers on the lagging- strand of a replication fork

c)

Enzyme 1 is a DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA by using the leading strand and lagging strands of a replication fork as templates

d)

Enzyme 1 is a topoismerase that relieves the tension in the over would DNA in front of the replication fork.

41.

Examine the image. Which strands are the template strands?

a)

Strands 2 and 3

b)

Strands 1 and 3

c)

Strands 3 and 4

d)

Strands 1 and 4

42.

Examine the image. Which strand is the lagging strand?

a)

Lagging is Strand 3-

It is made discontinuously in the 5' to 3' direction

b)

Lagging strand is Strand 2-

It is made continuously in the 5' to 3' direction

c)

Lagging strand is Strand 3-

It is made continuously in the 3' to 5' direction

d)

Lagging strand is Strand 4-

It is made in the 3' to 5' direction