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ANS 1 - BIG Review

Total questions: 271

Worksheet time: 3hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What federation is the North Johnston FFA Chapter part of?

a)

East Central

b)

Johnston

c)

Wake

d)

Tar River

2.

Which region is the North Johnston FFA Chapter part of?

a)

Johnston

b)

East Central

c)

Wake

d)

Little River

3.

When was FFA established?

a)

1928

b)

1939

c)

1969

d)

1965

4.

When did the NFA and FFA merge?

a)

1928

b)

1965

c)

1969

d)

1935

5.

When were females admitted into the FFA?

a)

1928

b)

1969

c)

1672

d)

1909

6.

When was the National FFA Alumni Association founded?

a)

1971

b)

1989

c)

1950

d)

1928

7.

"The FFA makes a positive difference in the lives of students by developing their potential for premier leadership, personal growth, and career success through agricultural education" is the FFA

a)

Mission Statement

b)

Motto

c)

Creed

d)

Code of Ethics

8.

What is the third line of the FFA Motto?

a)

Learning to Do

b)

Doing to Learn

c)

Earning to Live

d)

Living to Serve

9.

What are the official FFA colors?

a)

National Blue and Corn Gold

b)

National Blue and Corn Yellow

c)

Red and Black

d)

Carolina Blue and Corn Gold

10.

Which part of the FFA emblem symbolizes freedom and the national scope of the FFA?

a)

Eagle

b)

Plow

c)

Rising Sun

d)

Owl

11.

What does the plow symbolize on the FFA emblem?

a)

Freedom and national scope of the FFA

b)

Progress

c)

Leadership and Learning

d)

Labor and tillage of the soil

12.

Which part of the FFA emblem symbolizes opportunity and progress in agriculture?

a)

Rising sun

b)

Plow

c)

Eagle

d)

Cross section of corn

13.

Which officer sits beside the rising sun?

a)

President

b)

Vice President

c)

Sentinel

d)

Student Advisor

14.

Which officer sits beside the plow and calls the roll of officers, coordinates committee work, and assumes presidential duties in the absence of the president?

a)

Vice President

b)

Sentinel

c)

Secretary

d)

Historian

15.

Which officer keeps accurate minutes of the meetings?

a)

Secretary

b)

President

c)

Treasurer

d)

Reporter

16.

Which officer keeps financial records?

a)

Treasurer

b)

Secretary

c)

Historian

d)

Parliamentarian

17.

The three parts of an organized prepared speech are:

a)

hypothesis, experiment, and conclusions.

b)

introduction, body, and conclusion.

c)

outline, table of contents, and summary.

d)

thesis, references, and quotes.

18.

The longest part of a speech is the:

a)

body.

b)

hypothesis.

c)

outline.

d)

summary.

19.

The part of a speech that is presented first to the audience is the:

a)

hypothesis.

b)

introduction.

c)

summary.

d)

table of contents.

20.

The part of a speech used to catch the attention of the speaker’s audience is the:

a)

body.

b)

introduction.

c)

outline.

d)

summary.

21.

The part of a speech that contains the major information that is presented by the speaker is the:

a)

bibliography.

b)

body.

c)

conclusion.

d)

introduction.

22.

Andrew is presenting an informative speech to the Cattlemen's Association about color genetics. The purpose of his speech is to

a)

give knowledge or information to the audience.

b)

convince people to believe or do something.

c)

introduce someone.

d)

give a pep talk.

23.

What is the difference between prepared and extemporaneous speeches?

a)

Prepared speeches are written and memorized, while extemporaneous speeches are given with little to no preparation

b)

Extemporaneous speeches are written and memorized, while prepared speeches are given with little to no preparation

c)

Prepared speeches are long, and extemporaneous speeches are short

d)

Prepared speeches are given to inform a group of people, while an extemporaneous speech is meant to encourage or influence the audience.

24.

Kelly is giving a persuasive speech about getting involved in FFA. She is at ease in front of the audience, has good posture, and is using gestures that are appropriate and not distracting. Kelly is an example of good

a)

Power of Expression

b)

Preparation

c)

Voice

d)

Stage Presence

25.

When a group uses Robert’s Rules of Order to conduct formal, organized business meetings with well-defined rules, it is using:

a)

consensus.

b)

dictator-like principles.

c)

fighting.

d)

parliamentary procedure.

26.

"The group assembled as voting delegates in a business meeting" is describing a/an

a)

assembly

b)

committee

c)

small group

d)

senate

27.

Dylan is asked to take the duties of the "chair". What will he be responsible for?

a)

Presiding over the meeting

b)

Taking minutes of the meeting

c)

Reporting to the public

d)

Handling materials and comfort of the room

28.

Linda needs a majority vote for her motion to pass. There are 30 members in the voting body. How many people need to vote "yes" for her motion to pass?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

16

d)

12

29.

Camden made the motion to stop discussion, which requires a two-thirds vote since it takes away the right to discuss. If there are 30 people in the voting body, how many people have to vote "yes" for the motion to pass?

a)

20

b)

15

c)

16

d)

30

30.

Diego is acting as chair of the business meeting. He wants everyone to sit. What should he do?

a)

Rap the gavel once.

b)

Say "sit".

c)

Rap the gavel three times.

d)

Make a series of taps.

31.

After the chair says "FFA members, why are we here?" in the FFA opening ceremony, they rap the gavel three times. Why do they rap the gavel three times?

a)

To tell the assembly to sit.

b)

To tell the assembly to stand.

c)

To tell the assembly to speak.

d)

To tell the assembly to be quiet.

32.

Allysa wants to bring a new idea before the group in her business meeting. What should she do?

a)

Make an amendment

b)

Make a main motion

c)

Move to adjourn

d)

Send a message to the president

33.

What should a member say in order to make a main motion?

a)

I move to/that...

b)

I motion to...

c)

I think we should...

d)

I believe...

34.

The motion was made to have an FFA cookout next Friday. You realize during the meeting that the cookout should be Thursday instead of Friday. What can you do?

a)

Make an amendment

b)

Make another motion

c)

Nothing, the motion has already been made

d)

Wait until the motion is voted on and then cancel it

35.

Which is the highest ranking, most important motion?

a)

Main Motion

b)

Amendment

c)

Reconsider

d)

Adjourn

36.

Which motion should be made to close the meeting?

a)

Adjourn

b)

Main Motion

c)

Amendment

d)

Previous Question

37.

Which career creates rations for animals based on their individual needs?

a)

Zoologist

b)

Life Support Engineer

c)

Cooperative Extension Agent

d)

Nutritionist

38.

Which career designs and creates enclosures for animals in captivity that support their natural habitat?

a)

Zoologist

b)

Veterinarian

c)

Animal Waste Technician

d)

Life Support Engineer

39.

Claire states that she wants to be a Veterinary Technician. Her role would be to:

a)

Treat and diagnose animals

b)

Assist in treating and diagnosing animals

c)

Study animal behavior

d)

Design and engineer enclosures for animals

40.

Jason finds an orphaned deer in his backyard. He knows he needs the help of a professional who can care for wildlife and return them back to the wild. Who should he contact?

a)

A veterinarian

b)

A veterinary technician

c)

A wildlife rehabilitator

d)

An animal behaviorist

41.

Andrew is passionate about the animal industry, but is also interested in providing economic guidance to those in the industry. Which career area should he explore?

a)

Managers & Financial Specialists

b)

Medical Specialists

c)

Social Services

d)

Animal Production Specialists

42.

The career that informs veterinary professionals about new and improved pharmaceutical products is:

a)

Product Marketing Specialist

b)

Pharmaceutical Sales Representative

c)

Animal Trainer

d)

Financial Analyst

43.

Amber works as an NC State University employee and develops educational programs to assist people in agriculture. What career does she have?

a)

Cooperative Extension Agent

b)

Agriculture Teacher

c)

Business Manager

d)

Conservation Officer

44.

What is the role of a Conservation Officer?

a)

To educate the public about wildlife crimes, and assist in wildlife management research

b)

To use technical skills to produce animals and animal-related products

c)

To study the way animals behave

d)

To inform veterinary professionals about new and improved pharmaceutical products

45.

Sam uses technical skills to produce animals and animal-related products in the swine industry. What career area is he employed in?

a)

Medical Specialists

b)

Social Services

c)

Animal Production Specialists

d)

Scientists, Engineers, & Related Specialists

46.

A technical certificate or associate's degree may be required for:

a)

Entry level careers

b)

Advanced level careers

c)

Professional careers

d)

Service careers

47.

What part of a foundational SAE would include a risk assessment of a swine facility?

a)

personal finance management and planning

b)

career exploration and planning

c)

agricultural literacy

d)

workplace safety

48.

An example of a foundational, agricultural literacy Supervised Agricultural Experience activity is:

a)

creating a list of 10 common workplace accidents and ways to avoid them.

b)

providing a list of agricultural tools used in a career to include common safety concerns.

c)

preparing a 3-minute presentation articulating the effects of personal responsibility from a past situation.

d)

developing a 15-minute presentation with visuals to challenge a current agricultural policy.

49.

An Immersion SAE project's main purpose is to allow students to:

a)

earn money.

b)

start a business.

c)

gain work experience.

d)

obtain FFA degrees and awards.

50.

What type of Supervised Agricultural Experience is Matt involved in if he is planning, implementing, operating, and assuming financial risks in raising goats?

a)

Research

b)

Experimental

c)

Entrepreneurship

d)

School-based Enterprise

51.

Which type of Immersion Supervised Agricultural Experience would have a summary presentation on the research and findings of the project?

a)

Placement

b)

Experimental

c)

Entrepreneurship

d)

School-based Enterprise

52.

Which type of immersion Supervised Agricultural Experience might require financial and operational reports that are presented to a board of directors?

a)

Placement

b)

Experimental

c)

Entrepreneurship

d)

School-based Enterprise

53.

Which type of Immersion Supervised Agricultural Experience might require a committee report from where engaged stakeholders met?

a)

Placement

b)

Experimental

c)

Service Learning

d)

School-based Enterprise

54.

An example of a Service-Learning Immersion Supervised Agricultural Experience is:

a)

marketing for a free summer riding program through the local YMCA.

b)

working at the school barn that trains show horses.

c)

teaching riding lessons as a part-time job.

d)

working at a feed and tack supplier.

55.

What is the difference between a Veterinarian and a Veterinary Technician?

a)

A Veterinarian diagnoses and a Veterinary Technician assists.

b)

A Veterinary Technician diagnoses and a Veterinarian assists.

c)

A Veterinary Technician works with small animals while a Veterinarian works with large animals

d)

There is no difference.

56.

Which career does Mrs. Mangum, Mr. Johnson, and Mrs. Wheeler have?

a)

Cooperative Extension Agent

b)

Agriculture Teacher

c)

Business Manager

d)

Agriculture Production

57.

Which sector of the food animal industry is the most economically significant in the US?

a)

Beef

b)

Swine

c)

Poultry

d)

Dairy

58.

Select the food animal industries in which North Carolina is a top producer. (Choose all that apply)

a)

Hogs

b)

Beef

c)

Layers

d)

Broilers

e)

Turkeys

59.

Who consumes the most beef in the world?

a)

Austrailia

b)

Europe

c)

North Carolina

d)

United States

60.

Which is true of the dairy industry?

a)

Dairy is produced in all 50 states.

b)

Dairy is largely corporate owned.

c)

Dairy operations are common in Johnston County.

d)

North Carolina is a top producer of dairy.

61.

Since 1990, the number of hog farms has decreased by:

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

62.

A chicken that is raised for meat production is called a:

a)

Broiler

b)

Layer

c)

Turkey

d)

Hen

63.

A chicken raised for egg production is a:

a)

Broiler

b)

Layer

c)

Hen

d)

Turkey

64.

What fraction of the households in the United States own at least one pet?

a)

1/4 (25%)

b)

2/3 (67%)

c)

1/2 (50%)

d)

All (100%)

65.

Which is true about the economic value of the companion animal industry in the US?

a)

It impacts the economy by over $200 billion annually.

b)

It is not economically significant in the US.

c)

It impacts the economy by less than $100 million annually.

d)

Most households in the US do not spend money on their pets.

66.

Which of the following occurs when larger farms acquire land that formerly belonged to smaller ones?

a)

Consolidation

b)

Production

c)

Farm Size Decrease

d)

Urbanization

67.

Which of the following occurs when commercial and residential development converts agricultural land to alternative use?

a)

Consolidation

b)

Urbanization

c)

Farm Increase

d)

Preservation

68.

The size of operations and farms is increasing so that they can remain competitive and profitable. This is due to a concept called:

a)

Economies of Scale

b)

Consolidation

c)

Urbanization

d)

Development

69.

Which of the following statements about food animal production is true?

a)

The average age of primary operators is climbing.

b)

Farmland availability is limited.

c)

The number of farms is decreasing.

d)

All of these are true.

70.

Which of the following is true about consumer food animal product preferences?

a)

Increase in poultry and fish consumption

b)

Increase in certified organic product consumption

c)

Decrease in fluid milk consumption

d)

All of these are true.

71.

Which of the following is a companion animal trend related to pet diets?

a)

Choosing pet food that offers no supplements and is highly processed.

b)

Choosing pet food that is high in gluten.

c)

Choosing pet food for economic value over specialized ingredients.

d)

Choosing pet food for its added supplements and specialty ingredients.

72.

Common supplements for companion animals include:

(choose all that apply)

a)

CBD

b)

Vitamins

c)

Fish Oil

d)

Probiotics

e)

Fat supplements for weight gain

73.

Which of the following is a new technology in companion animal care that can help diagnose disease in pets early?

(choose all that apply)

a)

Autonomous litter box

b)

Subscription boxes

c)

PrettyLitter

d)

DNA/Genetics testing

74.

Breeding multiple breeds of animals for specific desirable characteristics in future generations is called:

a)

Crossbreeding

b)

Exotics

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Purebreeding

75.

Which of the following is an example of a crossbred dog?

a)

Chihuahua

b)

Labrador Retriever

c)

Labradoodle

d)

Cavalier King Charles Spaniel

76.

Which of the following regarding exotic pet ownership is true?

a)

Many exotics are illegal in the US.

b)

Exotic animals are always legal in the US.

c)

Exotic pets are encouraged because they aid in the conservation of endangered species.

d)

Exotic pets are only a danger to health of owners, and has no environmental impacts.

77.

The humane care and treatment of animals by providing adequate housing, sanitation, nutrition, water, and veterinary care is called:

a)

Animal Rights

b)

Animal Welfare

c)

Animal Protection

d)

Animal Management

78.

Most animal producers and researchers believe in:

a)

Animal Welfare

b)

Animal Cruelty

c)

Animal Rights

d)

Excess Antibiotic Use

79.

Decisions, laws, and regulations related to animal welfare should be made using:

a)

Emotions

b)

Propaganda

c)

Scientific Information

d)

Animal Rights

80.

Which animal protection law sets standards for minimum care and treatment of animals used for commercial sale, used for research, transported commercially, or exhibited to the public?

a)

The Animal Welfare Act

b)

Pet Protection Law

c)

Lemon Laws

d)

The Health Research Extension Act

81.

Which animal protection law sets standards for care of animals used for biomedical and behavioral research?

a)

The Animal WelfareAct

b)

The Health Research Extension Act

c)

Pet Purchase Protection Law

d)

Lemon Laws

82.

What is the difference in genetic engineering and transgenics in animal science?

a)

Genetic engineering alters already existing genes, and transgenics inserts new genes

b)

Genetic engineering inserts new genes, and transgenics alters already existing genes

c)

There is no difference between genetic engineering and transgenics

d)

Transgenics is cloning, and genetic engineering is lab-grown meat

83.

Hormones are the reason that poultry are growing larger and faster.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The use of antibiotics in low doses to improve health and performance is called:

a)

Subtherapeutic Antibiotic Use

b)

Therapeutic Antibiotic Use

c)

Hormone Use

d)

Animal Rights

85.

Steers or heifers that are fed out to be processed for meat:

a)
feeder cattle
b)

replacement heifer

c)

market swine

d)

broiler

86.

Heifers that will be bred at sexual maturity and will be used in a breeding program

a)
replacement heifers
b)

feeder cattle

c)

broiler

d)

layer

87.

Record that identifies members of the maternal and paternal lines

a)
pedigree
b)

fleshing

c)

broiler

d)

market records

88.

Categorize udder qualities below

Categorize the following

Well Attached

Balanced

Equally placed teats

Held above the hocks

Loosely attached

Held below the hocks

Heavier in the back quarters

Teats pointing inward

Good Udder
Poor Udder
89.

Chickens raised for meat production

a)
broilers
b)

layers

c)

replacement heifers

d)

market swine

90.

Categorize characteristics of layers

Categorize the following

Little to no pigmentation on the beak

Yellow pigmentation on the beak

Large body capacity

Small body capacity

Soft, flexible abdomen

Tight abdomen

Wide pubic bones

Tight pubic bones

Good Layer
Poor Layer
91.

Reorder the parts of livestock reasons.

a)

Introduction

b)

Top Pair

c)

Middle Pair

d)

Bottom Pair

e)

Summary

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
92.

What are we selecting for in each type of cattle use?

Categorize the following

Large, muscular carcass

Moderate fat

High average daily g

Muscular and masculine

Low birth weights

High fertility rates

Youthful and feminine

Genetically predisposed for maternal traits

Good breeding soundness (scrotal circumference)

Feeder Cattle
Bulls
Replacement Heifers
Cows
93.

When selecting companion animals, one should be sure that they are up to date on which of the following health protocols?

a)

Vaccinations

b)

Deworming

c)

Flea/Tick/Heartwom Prevention

d)

All of these.

94.

Label the external body parts of cattle on the bull.

95.

Identify the external parts of a pig using the picture of a boar.

96.

Identify the external body parts of a chicken using the picture of a rooster.

97.

Identify the external body parts of a dog.

98.

Match the INTACT MALE terms to their species

a)

Cattle

1.

Bull

b)

Swine

2.

Boar

c)

Poultry

3.

Rooster

d)

Turkey

4.

Tom

e)

Sheep

5.

Ram

99.

Match the CASTRATED/IMMATURE male terms to their species.

a)

Cattle

1.

Steer

b)

Swine

2.

Barrow

c)

Poultry

3.

Capon

d)

Sheep

4.

Wether

100.

Match the IMMATURE FEMALE terms to their species.

a)

Cattle

1.

Heifer

b)

Swine

2.

Gilt

c)

Poultry

3.

Pullet

d)

Sheep

4.

Ewe Lamb

101.

Match the MATURE FEMALE terms to their species.

a)

Cattle

1.

Cow

b)

Swine

2.

Sow

c)

Poultry

3.

Hen

d)

Sheep

4.

Ewe

102.

Match the NEWBORN terms to their species.

a)

Cattle

1.

Calf

b)

Swine

2.

Piglet

c)

Poultry

3.

Chick

d)

Sheep

4.

Lamb

e)

Turkey

5.

Poult

103.

Make a notes page and a reasons page using the paper provided. Use the pictures of the Market Swine class below to take notes, place, and create a set of reasons for the class.

103.

What is your placing for the class of market swine?

(a)  

104.

Rank the replacement heifer class.

105.



(a)  

106.



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107.



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108.



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109.



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116.



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117.



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118.



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119.



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120.



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121.

Which of the following birds is the most common cross used in commercial broiler production?

a)

Cornish x White Plymouth Rock

b)

Cornish x Rhode Island Red

c)

Jersey Giant

d)

Kosher King x White Plymouth Rock

122.



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123.



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124.



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126.



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134.



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135.



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136.



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139.



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148.



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151.



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152.



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153.



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154.



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155.



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156.

The removal of testicles is called:

a)
Castration
b)

Spaying

c)

Incubation

d)

Colostrum

157.

The first milk produced after a mammal gives birth that contains antibodies needed for the offspring’s immunity is called:

a)
Colostrum
b)

Lactation

c)

Copulation

d)

Infundibulum

158.
  • The union of the sperm and egg cells is called:

a)
Fertilization
b)

Ovulation

c)

Castration

d)

Gestation

159.

The length of time during which the female is pregnant is called:

a)
Gestation
b)

Parturition

c)

Lactation

d)

Colostrum

160.
  • The period of time that milk is secreted by the mammary glands is called:

a)
Lactation
b)

Parturition

c)

Gestation

d)

Incubation

161.

The release of the egg cell from the ovary is called:

a)
Ovulation
b)

Lactation

c)

Gestation

d)

Parturition

162.

The act of giving birth is called:

a)
Parturition
b)

Gestation

c)

Colostrum

d)

Lactation

163.
  •  The age at which animals reach sexual maturity and are able to reproduce is called:

a)
Puberty
b)

Parturition

c)

Gestation

d)

Whelping

164.
  • The removal of female reproductive organs is called:

a)
Spaying
b)

Neutering

c)

Castration

d)

Ovulation

165.

The site of egg (ovum) production (oogenesis) is the:

a)
Ovaries
b)

Oviduct

c)

Fallopian Tubes

d)

Vulva

166.
  • The site of estrogen and progesterone hormone production is the:

a)
Ovaries
b)

Oviducts

c)

Testicles

d)

Uterus

167.

How many ovaries does the female reproductive system have?

a)
2
b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

168.

What is another name for the fallopian tubes?

a)
oviducts
b)

ovary

c)

vulva

d)

vagina

169.
  • The tube connecting each infundibulum to the uterus is called:

a)

oviduct

b)

ovary

c)

uterus

d)

cervix

170.
  • The site of fertilization of the egg (ovum) is the:

a)

oviduct

b)

ovary

c)

uterus

d)

vagina

171.
  • A y-shaped structure consisting of the body and two horns is called:

a)
uterus
b)

vagina

c)

oviduct

d)

vulva

172.
  • The site of fertilized egg implantation and fetal development until birth is the:

a)
uterus
b)

vagina

c)

vulva

d)

oviduct

173.
  • Muscular opening between the uterus and the vagina that creates a barrier between the womb and the external opening of the animal:

a)
cervix
b)

oviduct

c)

ovary

d)

vulva

174.
  • The part of the female reproductive system that expands during parturition, allowing the fetus to pass through, and receives the penis during copulation is the:

a)
vagina
b)

vulva

c)

uterus

d)

oviduct

175.

The externally visible opening to the female reproductive system is the:

a)
vulva
b)

vagina

c)

oviduct

d)

uterus

176.

External anatomy which holds the testicles and epididymis is the:

a)
scrotum
b)

sheath

c)

vas deferens

d)

cowper's gland

177.

Site of sperm production (spermatogenesis) that also produces testosterone is/are the:

a)
testicles
b)

scrotum

c)

sheath

d)

seminal vesicles

178.

Long, coiled tubes connected to each testicle where sperm cells are stored and allowed to mature until ejaculation or reabsorption by the body is the:

a)
Epididymis
b)

Vas Deferens

c)

Testicles

d)

Seminal Vesicles

179.

The tube which connect the epididymis to the urethra is the:

a)
Vas Deferens
b)

Epididymis

c)

Testicles

d)

Cowper's Gland

180.
  • The tube that carries urine from the bladder for excretion and semen to the end of the penis is the:

a)
Urethra
b)

Vas Deferens

c)

Epididymis

d)

Prostate

181.

The glands that produce seminal fluids are the:

a)
Seminal Vesicles
b)

Prostate Glands

c)

Cowper's Gland

d)

Testicles

182.
  • Gland located near the urethra that produces a fluid which mixes with the seminal fluids, and acts as a filter for all fluid flowing through the urethra 

a)
Prostate Gland
b)

Prostate Glands

c)

Cowper's Gland

d)

Epididymis

183.

Gland that produces fluid which moves down the urethra ahead of the seminal fluid, and cleans and neutralizes the urethra to make it safe and sterile for sperm

a)
Cowper's Gland
b)

Prostate Gland

c)

Seminal Vesicles

d)

Vas Deferens

184.
  • The organ retracts the penis when it is not in use is the:

a)
Retractor Muscle
b)

Vas Deferens

c)

Epididymis

d)

Sheath

185.
  • The external tissue which protects the penis is called the:

a)
Sheath
b)

Scrotum

c)

Retractor Muscle

d)

Testicle

186.
  • The organ of mammals that delivers semen containing sperm to the vagina of the female is the:

a)
Penis
b)

Testicles

c)

Papilla

d)

Scrotum

187.

How often do chickens lay eggs?

a)

Every other day

b)

Everyday

c)

Every 3 days

d)

Once a week

188.

Even commercial eggs could grow a chick if given the right environmental conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

The process by which avian embryos develop within the egg under favorable environmental conditions is called:

a)
Incubation
b)

Gestation

c)

Parturition

d)

Development

190.

How many days is the incubation period of a chicken?

a)

21

b)

28

c)

32

d)

16

191.

How many functioning ovaries do avians have?

a)
1
b)

2

c)

none

192.

Match the oviduct section to its function:

a)

Infundibulum

1.

Site of fertilization

b)

Magnum

2.

Applies egg white (albumen)

c)

Isthmus

3.

Applies shell membrane

d)

Uterus

4.

Forms shell

e)

Cloaca

5.

Site where egg passes through to be laid

193.

What is the main difference between mammal and avian testicles?

a)

Mammal testicles are inside the body cavity; avian testicles are outside the body cavity

b)

Avian testicles are inside the body cavity; mammal testicles are outside the body cavity

c)

Mammal testicles produce testosterone and avian testicles do not.

d)

Avians have one testicle while mammals have two.

194.

Male avian sex organ that deposits semen into the female avian during copulation is called the:

a)
papilla
b)

testicles

c)

cloaca

d)

penis

195.

Organize the following into "true" or "false" regarding avian digestion.

Categorize the following

Use the gizzard to grind food

Use teeth to grind food

Food stored in the crop

Food digested in the stomach

Gastric juices added in the proventriculus

Waste & aggs pass through the cloaca

The vent is only an exit for the digestive system

Esophagus moves food from the mouth to the stomach

True
False
196.

Identify the part of the ruminant stomach that is responsible for fermenting roughages using microbes.

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

197.

Identify the part of the ruminant stomach that is responsible for catching large particles and sending them back up to the rumen for further breakdown.

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

198.

Identify the part of the ruminant stomach that is responsible for squeezing water from digested feed.

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

199.

Identify the part of the ruminant stomach that is considered the "true stomach" and adds gastric acid to undigested feed that remains.

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

200.

Match the functions of the monogastric digestive system to the name.

a)

Esophagus

1.

Moves food from the mouth to the stomach

b)

Stomach

2.

Breaks down food using gastric acid

c)

Small Intestine

3.

Absorbs nutrients from digested feed

d)

Large Intestine

4.

Absorbs water from waste

e)

Rectum

5.

Exit for feces

201.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that ferments roughages using microbes.

a)

cecum

b)

rumen

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

202.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that that uses gastric acid to break down proteins and concentrates.

a)

cecum

b)

stomach

c)

rumen

d)

small intestine

203.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that moves food from the mouth to the stomach.

a)

esophagus

b)

large intestine

c)

rectum

d)

small intestine

204.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that absorbs nutrients from digested protein and concentrates.

a)

stomach

b)

esophagus

c)

small intestine

d)

large intestine

205.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that absorbs water from waste.

a)

stomach

b)

rumen

c)

small intestine

d)

large intestine

206.

Identify the part of hindgut fermenter system that is the exit for feces.

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

anus

207.

What is the main difference between the monogastric system and the hindgut fermenter system?

a)

The monogastric can digest large amounts of roughages and the hindgut fermenter cannot.

b)

The hindgut fermenter has an enlarged cecum that digests large amounts of roughages using microbes

c)

The monogastric has a four-compartment stomach

d)

The hindgut fermenter uses rumination to chew previously swallowed food for further mechanical breakdown.

208.

Reorder the avian digestive system organs.

a)

Crop

b)

Proventriculus

c)

Gizzard

d)

Small Intestine

e)

Large Intestine

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
209.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

All food breakdown happens in the stomach.

Has a 4 compartment stomach

Ruminates (chews the cud)

Cows

Has an enlarged cecum

Stores undigested feed in the crop

Does not have teeth

Grinds food in the gizzard

Humans

Pigs

Goats

Horses

Rabbits

Chickens

Turkeys

Monogastric
Ruminant
Hindgut Fermenter
Avian
210.

What is the main difference between the hindgut fermenter and the ruminant system?

a)

The hindgut fermenter digests roughages in the cecum and the ruminant digests roughages in the rumen.

b)

The hindgut fermenter digests roughages in the rumen and the ruminant digests roughages in the cecum.

c)

The hindgut fermenter cannot digest large amounts of roughages but the ruminant can

d)

The hindgut fermenter has a 4 compartment stomach and the ruminant only has 1.

211.

Which part of the avian system stores undigested feed and softens it with saliva?

a)
crop
b)

proventriculus

c)

gizzard

d)

cloaca

212.

Which part of the avian digestive system is considered the "true stomach"?

a)
proventriculus
b)

crop

c)

gizzard

d)

vent

213.

Which part of the avian digestive system grinds feed with gravel and grit?

a)
gizzard
b)

crop

c)

proventriculus

d)

small intestine

214.

Which part of the avian digestive system joins with the reproductive system right before the waste exits?

a)

cloaca

b)

large intestine

c)

small intestine

d)

crop

215.
  • The process of breaking feed down into simple substances that can be absorbed by the body

a)
digestion
b)

nutrition

c)

ration

d)

bolus

216.
  • Which animals have stomachs that are divided into multiple chambers that can digest large amounts of roughages compared to other digestive systems? (Examples: cattle, sheep, goats)

a)
Ruminants
b)

Non-Ruminants

c)

Monogastrics

d)

Avian

217.
  • Animals with a single compartment stomach and cannot breakdown large amounts of roughages are called:

a)
Monogastrics
b)

Ruminants

218.
  • Animals that ferment large amounts of roughages in their enlarged cecum are called:

a)
Hind-Gut Fermenters
b)

Monogastrics

c)

Avians

d)

Ruminants

219.
  • The process of simple molecules passing through cell membranes of the lining in the small intestine into the blood is called nutrient________:

a)
Absorption
b)

Digestion

c)

Nutrition

d)

Rumination

220.
  • The building blocks of protein that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, and they are essential for growth and maintenance of cells are called

a)
Amino Acids
b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Minerals

d)

Vitmains

221.
  • A small mass of feed once swallowed in animals is called a:

a)
Bolus
b)

Nutrient

c)

Ration

d)

Diet

222.
  • Partially digested feed that is acidic, semifluid, gray, and pulpy that is produced in the stomach and sent to the small intestine is called:

a)
Chyme
b)

Enzymes

c)

Bile

d)

Fats

223.
  • Organic catalyst substances that speed up the digestive process are called:

a)
Enzymes
b)

Chyme

c)

Saliva

d)

Bile

224.
  • Liquid that contains water, mucus, hydrochloric acid, and digestive enzymes that are secreted by glands is called:

a)
Gastric Juice
b)

Enzymes

c)

Bile

d)

Saliva

225.
  • Single-celled organisms that are found in the rumen and reticulum and aid in digestion are called:

a)
Microbes
b)

Viruses

c)

Bugs

d)

Secretions

226.
  • The process of moving material down the esophagus in wave-like contractions is called:

a)
Peristalsis
b)

Bolus

c)

Nutrition

d)

Absorption

227.
  • The process of grasping feed with lips, tongue, and/or teeth is

a)
Prehension
b)

Peristalsis

c)

Digestion

d)

Nutrition

228.
  • The process of forcing feed back up the esophagus to be chewed further to increase digestibility of roughages, which occurs only in ruminant animals and is also known as “chewing the cud” is called:

a)
Rumination
b)

Digestion

c)

Vomit

d)

Fermentation

229.
  • The small finger-like projections in the intestinal wall that increase the surface area and aid in digestive absorption are:

a)
Villi
b)

Bolus

c)

Microbes

d)

Bacteria

230.

A single feed component in a form and at a level that will help support the life of an animal is a:

a)
Nutrient
b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Mineral

231.

Match the following to their correct definition

a)

Animals that eat a plant-based diet

1.

Herbivore

b)

Animals that eat an animal-based diet

2.

Carnivore

c)
  • Animals that eat items of plant and animal origin in their diet

3.

Omnivore

232.

Feed ingredients with crude fiber levels over 18% are called:

a)
roughages
b)

concentrates

c)

amino acids

d)

bases

233.
  • Feed ingredients with crude fiber levels under 18% are called:

a)
concentrates
b)

roughages

c)

minerals

d)

fats

234.
  • Match the following nutrients to their definition

a)
  • Provide 2–2.25 times the energy value of carbohydrates and carry fat-soluble vitamins

1.

Fats & Oils

b)
  • Primary source of energy, made up of sugars, starches, cellulose, and gums

2.

Carbohydrates

c)
  • Trace organic compounds, all contain carbon; help regulate body functions

3.

Vitamins

d)
  • Inorganic materials (contain no carbon) needed in small amounts; Provide material for growth of bones, teeth, and body tissue

4.

Minerals

e)

Supply material to build body tissues such as muscles, skin, and hair; made of amino acids

5.

Protein

235.

Match the following rations to their functions

a)
  • Basic nutrient requirements are met to keep vital body processes functioning; needed before all other body processes can be addressed

1.

Maintenance Ration

b)
  • Needed for increasing the size of bones, muscles, organs, and connective tissue; diets high in protein and energy

2.

Growth Ration

c)
  • Used to address production of milk, eggs, wool, etc.

3.

Production Ration

d)
  • Used to address stages of gestation, parturition, and lactation; Contain the largest amount of protein, minerals, and vitamins of any ration.

4.

Reproduction Ration

e)
  • Rations need increased amounts of fats and carbohydrates to supply the extra energy needed to perform (police dogs, ranch horses, etc.)

5.

Work Ration

236.

Behavior exhibited with little to no environmental influence; usually involve basic life functions, such as finding food or caring for offspring

a)
instinctive
b)

Learned

c)

Imprinting

d)

Positive Reinforcement

237.

Behavior exhibited by associating a certain response with a certain stimulus

(a)  

238.

Behavior that refers to animals attaching to or adopting another animal or object as a companion or parent; how animal gains its sense of species identification

a)
imprinting
b)

instinctive

c)

learned

d)

fear

239.

Identify the behavior:

a)
normal
b)

aggression

c)

scared

240.

Identify the behavior:

a)
scared
b)

normal

c)

aggressive

241.

Identify the behavior:

a)
aggressive
b)

normal

c)

scared

242.

Identify the behavior:

a)
scared
b)

normal

c)

aggressive

243.

Identify the behavior:

a)
aggressive
b)

normal

c)

scared

244.

Identify the behavior:

a)
normal
b)

scared

c)

aggressive

245.

Invisible area around an animal that is maintained from a human/stimulus.


a)
flight zone
b)

point of balance

c)

instinct

d)

learned behavior

246.

Imaginary point, usually at the animal's shoulder 


a)
point of balance
b)

flight zone

c)

instinct

d)

learned behavior

247.

Label the direction an animal will move using their flight zone and point of balance.

248.
  • Behavior that may have several different causes and will present as a stiff stance, baring teeth, head lowered to the ground, staring, and tail raised is identified as:

a)
aggressive
b)

calm

c)

playful

d)

submissive

249.

Behavior that causes an animal to display a stiff stance, shake or tremor from nervousness, avoid direct eye contact, lay its ears flat or back on the head, and lower its body or tail to the ground (submission) should be identified as:

a)
scared
b)

aggressive

c)

normal

d)

playful

250.

Behavior that causes the animal to be relaxed, alert, standing, sitting, or lying, with a comfortable appearance, ears up and forward should be identified as:

a)
normal
b)

scared

c)

aggressive

d)

submissive

251.

Behavior modification that increases a behavior

a)
reinforcement
b)

punishment

252.

Behavior modification that decreases a behavior

a)
punishment
b)

reinforcement

253.

What is the main objective of proper animal handling?

a)

To move animals with minimum stress to both the animals and handler

b)

To move animals as quickly as possible

c)

To maximize productivity regardless of stress

d)

To minimize costs

254.

Which piece of equipment is specifically used to restrain cattle by closing between the head and shoulders?

a)

Headgate

b)

Sorting panels

c)

Net

d)

Trimming stand

255.

A squeeze chute is connected to a ___ to help restrain cattle.

a)
headgate
b)

palpation stall

c)

halter

d)

scale

256.

What is the primary purpose of a palpation cage in animal handling?

a)

To allow handlers safe access for procedures like pregnancy checks and castrations

b)

To weigh large animals

c)

To calm animals during transport

d)

To separate swine from cattle

257.

Which tool is used to weigh large animals such as cattle?

a)

Cattle scales

b)

Sorting panels

c)

Trimming stand

d)

Cat bag

258.

What is the primary purpose of sorting panels on a farm?

a)

To move and separate pigs

b)

To weigh cattle

c)

To restrain sheep

d)

To trim animal nails

259.

What is the primary use of a halter in livestock management?

a)

To lead, tie, and restrain livestock

b)

To feed livestock

c)

To provide shelter for livestock

d)

To groom livestock

260.

Which of the following statements about lead ropes are correct?

a)

They are attached to halters.

b)

They should never be wrapped around the hand.

c)

They are used to feed animals.

d)

They are only used for dogs.

261.

Which animal is most commonly walked using a leash as shown in the images?

a)

Dog

b)

Horse

c)

Cow

d)

Sheep

262.

What is the main function of a muzzle when handling animals?

a)

To prevent biting

b)

To help animals eat

c)

To keep animals warm

d)

To identify animals

263.

A catch pole is used to catch and restrain (a)   .

264.



(a)  

265.



(a)  

266.



(a)  

267.



(a)  

268.



(a)  

269.



(a)  

270.



(a)  

271.



(a)