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Medical A & P First Semester Final Review

Total questions: 224

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure is the dorsal body cavity?

a)

7

b)

1

c)

b

d)

3

2.

Which structure is the pericardial cavity?

a)

d

b)

c

c)

1

d)

a

3.

Which structure is the cranial cavity?

a)

1

b)

b

c)

3

d)

c

4.

Which structure is the abdominal cavity?

a)

3

b)

c

c)

e

d)

1

5.

Which structure is the diaphragm?

a)

e

b)

b

c)

5

d)

3

6.

Which structure is the pelvic cavity?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

6

d)

c

7.

Which structure is the ventral body cavity?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

2

d)

1

8.

Which statement is false regarding the anatomical position?

a)

the palms face front

b)

the thumbs point away from body

c)

the head is turned to the left side

d)

the posture is standing erect

9.

Which term means that a structure is near the surface?

a)

superficial

b)

medial

c)

deep

d)

inferior

10.

The hands are ____ to the feet.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

superficial

d)

deep

11.

The elbow is __ to the fingers.

a)

distal

b)

proximal

12.

What is the term for the backside or "back" in the anatomical position?

a)

anterior

b)

ventral

c)

caudal

d)

posterior

13.
My shoulder blade is on the ________ side of the body
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
Deep
d)
Superficial
14.

away from the midline of the body

a)

distal

b)

posterior

c)

anterior

d)

lateral

15.

A patient needs to have an intravenous line (IV) placed for medication in the emergency department. 

The physician wants the line to be placed proximal to the elbow.

Where should the IV be placed?

In the ___.

a)

hand

b)

forearm

c)

upper arm

d)

femoral

16.

Match the following terms to the definition

a)

sagittal plane

1.

divides the body into R/L

b)

coronal plane

2.

divides into dorsal & ventral

c)

transverse plane

3.

divides into superior & inferior

d)

supine

4.

facing up while laying down

e)

prone

5.

facing down while laying down

17.
The ____________ is a muscular organ that pumps blood to the body through blood vessels. 
a)
vein 
b)
artery 
c)
heart
d)
kidney
18.
The ____________________ is the body system that transports oxygen, nutrients, and waste through the body.  
a)
respiratory system 
b)
digestive system
c)
circulatory system 
d)
immune system
19.
The ______________________ is the body system that breaks food down so that it can be used by the body.  
a)
circulatory system 
b)
digestive system 
c)
respiratory system 
d)
skeletal system
20.
What is your body's process of maintaining balanced conditions?
a)
photosyntheis
b)
homeostasis
c)
circulation
d)
regulation
21.
What is the main function of the respiratory system?
a)
regulate the body's functions by secreting hormones
b)
protect the inner organs of the body from harm
c)
coordinate the actions of the body
d)
exchange carbon dioxide & oxygen with the environment
22.
The following is an example of which two systems working together:
"The small intestine absorbs nutrients from our food and they are carried through the blood to the cells."
a)
Digestive and Circulatory
b)
Digestive and Respiratory
c)
Digestive and Skeletal
d)
Digestive and Nervous
23.
Fill in the blanks:
"The ________ system allows us to move around, but the _________ system controls our movement."
a)
Skeletal, Nervous
b)
Nervous, Skeletal
c)
Muscular, Skeletal
d)
Nervous, Muscular
24.

A process which has the ability to maintain the internal environment of the body regardless of changes inside or outside of the body.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

c)

Positive Feedback Loop

d)

Feedback Loop

25.

This is an example of __________.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

c)

Positive Feedback Loop

d)

Feedback Loop

26.

This is an example of __________.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

c)

Positive Feedback Loop

d)

Feedback Loop

27.

A process which increases (enhances) a response to an event in the body, which is not at a set-point.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

c)

Positive Feedback Loop

d)

Feedback Loop

28.

An organ such as the brain or glands in the endocrine system which receive information about changes in the body and then send signals to other organs to respond to the change.

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

d)

Stimulus

29.

A specialized cell in an organ which monitor the body for changes inside the body.

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

d)

Stimulus

30.

A specialized cell in an organ which respond to changes in the body's environment.

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

d)

Stimulus

31.

An event or change inside the body which signals a disturbance has happened and a response is required to maintain the health of the body.

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

d)

Stimulus

32.

Which of the following are examples of positive feedback loops (list in alphabetical order) ​ (a)   ​ (b)   ​

Choose from the below words
Blood Clotting
Body temperature
Childbirth
water levels in tissues
Glucose Regulation
33.

Which of the following are examples of Negative feedback loops (drag in alphabetical order) ​ ​ ​ (a)   ​ ​ ​ ​ (b)   ​ (c)   ​ ​

Choose from the below words
Blood Clotting
Delivery of a Baby
Body Temperature
Glucose Concentrations
Water levels in the body
34.
The anatomical position is:
a)
Standing with feet forward, arms at side, hands forward
b)
standing feet pointed outward, hands pointed inward
c)
impossible to perform unless
35.

The bodies starting position is called what?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Coronal

c)

Anatomical

d)

Biological

36.
Where can you find ribosomes? 
a)

on the smooth ER

b)

In the nucleus

c)

On the Rough ER only!

d)

On the Rough ER and in the cytoplasm

37.

The ____________ is a flexible structure that can self repair, and contain the organelles of a cell.

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Vacuole

38.

The ______________ converts energy from food into a form of energy cells can use: ATP.

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

All of the above

39.
A ribosome can be best described as...
a)
a protein factory
b)
a trash collector
c)
the powerhouse of the cell
d)
the brain of the cell
40.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

To control what comes in and out of the cell

b)

To break down food inside the cell

c)

to serve as a barrier

d)

to eat the cells food

41.

Which organelle produces the energy a cell needs to carry out its function

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

42.

Function: Makes proteins.

Found in: All cells

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Nucleus

c)

Rough ER

d)

Golgi apparatus

43.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
44.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
45.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

46.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
47.

During most of interphase, DNA is found in a relaxed form called

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

48.

During mitosis, DNA is found in the condensed form called a

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

49.

In prophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

50.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

51.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

52.

In telophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

53.
Chunks of three bases on the mRNA that code for a specific amino acids are called...
a)
Codons
b)
Snodocs
c)
Docons
d)
Nocods
54.
Other than mRNA, what is this image showing?
a)
tRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
DNA
d)
RNA polymerase
55.
What is one easy way to tell RNA from DNA?
a)
RNA has uracil, DNA doesn't
b)
DNA doesn't have thymine, RNA does
c)
RNA is double stranded, DNA isn't
d)
RNA is made of up amino acids, DNA isn't
56.
In translation..
a)
A polypeptide is created
b)
mRNA is created
c)
The nucleus implodes
d)
RNA polymerase does all the work
57.
What is the anticodon if the codon is "AAA"?
a)
UUU
b)
TTT
c)
AAA
d)
GGG
58.
What is the name for those letters in DNA and RNA (A, T, C, and G)?
a)
Amino acids
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Nitrogenous bases 
d)
Phosphate groups
59.
How many bases are in two codons?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
1
60.
What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Folding
d)
Coding
61.
Translation happens at the - 
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondria
62.
Which enzyme is responsible for making RNA?
a)
RNA makemorease
b)
RNA enzymase
c)
RNA polymerase
d)
RNA proliferase
63.
True or false:  RNA is double-stranded.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
It depends on the type
64.
Where does the RNA polymerase bind to and start on the DNA?
a)
Promoter
b)
Operator
c)
Lactose
d)
At the tripe uracil anticodon
65.

This fluid in the cell is where the organelles are found. It contains water and chemicals the cell needs.

a)

Blood

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Plasma

d)

Vacuole

66.
What is the function of the lysosome?
a)
site of digestive enzymes
b)
site of ATP (energy) production
c)
site of photosynthesis
d)
site of protein production
67.
What is the function of the Golgi body?
a)
to control the activities within the cell
b)
to package and ship cellular materials
c)
to store water and nutrients 
d)
to control the materials that pass into and out of the cell
68.
control the cell's activities; contains the cell's DNA
a)
mitochondria
b)
cell membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
golgi body
69.

Match the organelle with its correct function.

a)
1.

Stores and Protects DNA

b)
2.

Builds Proteins

c)
3.

Generates energy for the cell

d)
4.

Controls what enters and leaves the cell

e)
5.

Packages up proteins to be shipped out of the cell

70.

Identify the adipose CT:

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

What type of protein fibers are present in areolar CT?

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fibers

c)

Elastic Fibers

d)

All three

72.

What type of protein fibers are present in elastic CT?

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fibers

c)

Elastic Fibers

d)

All three

73.

What is the function of elastic CT?

a)

Provides supportive framework.

b)

Allows for stretching and recoiling.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Transport

74.

Which is hyaline cartilage?

a)
b)
c)
d)
75.

What is the function of blood CT?

a)

Provides supportive framework.

b)

Allows for stretching and recoiling.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Transport

76.
a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Dense irregular tissue

c)

Areolar tissue

d)

Fibrocartilage

77.
a)

Compact (bone)

b)

Elastic connective tissue

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Dense regular connective tissue

78.
a)

Blood cells

b)

Areolar connective tissue

c)

Reticule connective tissue

d)

Hyaline cartilage

79.
a)

Hyline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Elastic connective tissue

d)

Adipose tissue

80.

Name the type of epithelium

a)

simple cuboidal

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

stratified squamous

81.

Name the type of epithelium

a)

simple squamous

b)

stratified squamous

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple columnar

82.

What type of epithelial tissue is this and where might you find it?

a)

stratified cuboidal ; small intestine

b)

simple squamous ; lung

c)

pseudostratified columnar ; trachea

d)

transitional ; bladder

83.

Match the following

a)
1.

Squamous

b)
2.

Cuboidal

c)
3.

Columnar

84.

Match the following

a)
1.

Blood

b)
2.

Bone

c)
3.

Loose Connective

d)
4.

Dense Connective

e)
5.

Hyaline Cartilage

85.

The only fluid connective tissue

a)

Blood

b)

Adipose

c)

Loose connective

86.

What type of epithelium?

a)

Non-Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

b)

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

c)

Stratified columnar epithelium.

d)

Simple columnar epithelium.

87.

What type of epithelium?

a)

Relaxed transitional epithelium.

b)

Stratified columnar epithelium.

c)

Simple columnar epithelium.

d)

Distended transitional epithelium.

88.
a)

simple columnar

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

simple squamous

d)

stratified cuboidal

89.

Which type of connective tissue allows muscle to attach to bone?

a)

adipose

b)

cartilage

c)

ligament

d)

tendon

90.

Which connective tissue stores fat in the cells?

a)

adipose

b)

cartilage

c)

ligaments

d)

tendons

91.

Which of the following is NOT a main tissue type?

a)

muscle

b)

epithelial

c)

cuboidal

d)

connective

92.

Where would you NOT find epithelial tissue?

a)

skin

b)

glands

c)

heart

d)

lining of hollow organs

93.

How are epithelial tissue classified?

a)

by shape

b)

by size

c)

by number of layers

d)

by shape and number of layers.

94.

Basement membranes are found in:

a)

connective tissues

b)

Epithelial tissues

c)

nervous tissues

d)

Muscle Tissue

95.

Which of the following is not true for epithelial tissues?

a)

they have a basement membraine

b)

they provide protection

c)

they reproduce slowly

d)

they make up your glands.

96.

Which of the following is connective tissue?

a)

Bone

b)

cartilage

c)

blood

d)

all of these

97.

What do the connective tissues do? (their main job)

a)

protect

b)

connect tissues together

c)

provide movement

d)

provide impulses.

98.

What cell type is most likely to be present in dense regular CT?

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Adipocytes.

c)

Mesenchymal cells.

d)

Macrophages.

99.

What is the function of dense irregular CT?

a)

Binds skin and epithelia to deeper tissue.

b)

Attach bone to bone or bone to muscle.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Provides supportive framework.

100.

What is the cell type of hyaline cartilage?

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Lacunae.

101.

What is the cell type of bone CT?

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Lacunae.

102.

What are formed elements of blood CT?

a)

Dissolved protein fibers.

b)

Liquid nature of the ground substance.

c)

A method of transporting nutrients.

d)

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

103.

What is the function of blood CT?

a)

Provides supportive framework.

b)

Allows for stretching and recoiling.

c)

Withstands stress.

d)

Transport

104.

Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for voluntary muscle control?

a)

Cardiac muscle tissue

b)

Smooth muscle tissue

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Skeletal muscle tissue

105.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart?

a)

cardiac muscle tissue

b)

nervous tissue

c)

smooth muscle tissue

d)

skeletal muscle tissue

106.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels and digestive organs?

a)

Cardiac muscle tissue

b)

Skeletal muscle tissue

c)

Adipose tissue

d)

Smooth muscle tissue

107.

Which type of muscle tissue is striated and multinucleated?

a)

Skeletal muscle tissue

b)

Smooth muscle tissue

c)

Cardiac muscle tissue

d)

Adipose tissue

108.

Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for movement of bones?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Cardiac muscle tissue

c)

Smooth muscle tissue

d)

Skeletal muscle tissue

109.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs?

a)

Smooth muscle tissue

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Skeletal muscle tissue

d)

Cardiac muscle tissue

110.

What type of Muscle tissue is this?

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Skeletal

d)

Straight

111.

Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disks?

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Skeletal

d)

Straight

112.

Which type of muscle tissue has spindle shaped cells?

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Skeletal

113.

Which pattern is Cardiac Muscle organized?

a)

Spindle

b)

Branched

c)

Straight

114.

Which pattern is skeletal muscle organized?

a)

Spindle

b)

Branched

c)

Straight

115.

Which muscle tissue(s) are striated?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Skeletal

116.
Skeletal muscles are responsible for which of the following?
a)
Movement of the body
b)
Movement of the heart
c)
Movement of the ligaments 
d)
Movement of the extremities
117.
Which type(s) of muscle tissue have visible striations
a)
Only Cardiac Muscle
b)
Only Skeletal Muscle
c)
Only Smooth Muscle
d)
Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle
118.
Name the Tissue 
a)
Simple columnar
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Pseuodstratified ciliated columnar
d)
Transitional
119.
Name the tissue
a)
elastic cartilage
b)
hyaline cartilage
c)
blood
d)
adipose
120.
Name the tissue
a)
Simple Cuboidal
b)
Pseudostratified Columnar
c)
Simple squamous
d)
Simple Columnar
121.
Which name does not apply?
a)
areolar tissue
b)
connective tissue
c)
epithelial tissue
d)
loose tissue
122.

What type of connective tissue has a fluid-like ground substance?

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

blood

d)

ligaments

123.

What type of connective tissue has a hard ground substance of calcium and salts?

a)

Bone

b)

Adipose

c)

Blood

d)

Dense Regular CT

124.

Which type of muscle tissue is this

a)

Skeletal Muscle

b)

Smooth Muscle

c)

Cardiac Muscle

d)

Unable to judge

125.
a)

nervous

b)

muscle

c)

epithelial

d)

connective

126.
Which of the following is not one of the four tissue types? 
a)
Blood
b)
Connective
c)
Epithelial
d)
Nervous 
127.
What type of connective tissue are tendons and ligaments?
a)
Dense Connective Tissue
b)
Bone
c)
Loose Connective Tissue
d)
Cartilage
128.

Which cells produce the matrix of bone?

a)

Adipocytes

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Fibroblasts

129.
Which type of tissue helps in body movement?
a)
Epithelial
b)
Connective
c)
Muscle
d)
Neural
130.

Which type of tissue would line the intestines?

a)

epithelial

b)

neural

c)

muscle

d)

connective

131.

Which type of tissue is avascular (no blood vessels) and tightly packed?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Areolar

d)

Adipose

132.
Which is NOT a connective tissue?
a)
Blood
b)
Bone
c)
Muscle
d)
Fat
133.

B

a)

Axon

b)

Cell body

c)

Dendrites

d)

Schwann cell

134.

A

a)

Cell body

b)

Nucleus

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrite

e)

Schwann cell

135.

What structure is labeled B

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

136.

What structure is labeled E

a)

Synapse

b)

Cell Body

c)

Axon

d)

Dendrite

137.
What is the name of cells that support the cells that send information?
a)
Neurons
b)
Axons
c)
Dendrites
d)
Neuroglia
138.

What structure is labeled D

a)

Synapse

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

139.

What structure is labeled B

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

140.

What is the primary function of osseous tissue?

a)

Support and protect organs

b)

Produce hormones

c)

Store vitamins

d)

Regulate temperature

141.

Osseous tissue is also known as ______.

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Bone tissue

c)

Nerve tissue

d)

Skin tissue

142.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)

A) Support

b)

B) Point of attachment for Movement

c)

C) Hormone production

d)

D) Blood cell production

143.

How many bones does an adult human have?

a)

206

b)

270

c)

300

d)

250

144.

The skeletal system provides structure to the body.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

The skeletal system stores minerals such as calcium.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Femur

b)

Humerus

c)

Skull

d)

Tibia

147.

Fill in the blank: The _________ is a bone that connects the arm to the body.

a)

Femur

b)

Humerus

c)

Clavicle

d)

Tibia

148.

Leverage in the skeletal system is related to ______.

a)

Storage of lipids

b)

Force of motion

c)

Blood cell production

d)

Protection of organs

149.

What type of bones are classified by their shape and include the femur and humerus?

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Sutural bones

d)

Irregular bones

150.

Flat bones are found in the ______.

a)

Skull

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Humerus

151.

Which of the following is an example of an irregular bone?

a)

Femur

b)

Spinal vertebrae

c)

Tibia

d)

Radius

152.

The compact bone is primarily composed of which of the following?

a)

Osteons

b)

Trabeculae

c)

Cartilage

d)

Marrow

153.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

A

1.

Haversian canal

b)

B

2.

Osteocyte

c)

C

3.

Canaliculi

d)

D

4.

Osteon

154.

Mark the correct position of the diaphysis and main epiphysis

A
B
155.

#7​ in the diagram is: ​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Yellow marrow
Periosteum
spongy bone
medullary cavity
compact bone
156.
Question Image

match the following regions of spongy and compact bone.

a)

canaliculi

1.

B

b)

osteon

2.

A

c)

trabeculae

3.

C

d)

spongy bone

4.

D

e)

compact bone

5.

E

157.

Match the following

a)

largest bone in the rear leg of an animal

1.

femur

b)

The enlarged end of a long bone

2.

epiphysis

c)

Substance that is primarily collagen, which gives bone high tensile strength

3.

osteoid

d)

These are typically thinner than others and are usually curved

4.

flat

e)

This makes up the lower jaw

5.

mandible

158.
The shiny white substance at #8 is the 
a)
articular cartilage
b)
periosteum
c)
yellow marrow
d)
diaphysis
159.

What is the strongest bone in the body?

a)

Femur

b)

Clavicle

c)

Ulna

d)

Metacarpals

160.
Structure #7 is the 
a)
medullary cavity
b)
periosteum
c)
epiphysis
d)
diaphysis
161.
Structure #5 is the 
a)
medullary cavity
b)
periosteum
c)
epiphysis
d)
diaphysis
162.

Which letter contains yellow marrow

a)

G

b)

H

c)

C

d)

A

163.

How are lamellae arranged in an osteon?

a)

Haversian canals are rings of bone tissue that surround central lamellae.

b)

Lacunae are tiny channels that connect lamellae in separate rings of bone tissue.

c)

Lamellae are rings of bone tissue that surround a central Haversian canal.

d)

Lamellae are tiny channels that connect lacunae in separate rings of bone tissue.

164.

In the bone development, primary ossification happens at the

a)

joints

b)

bone collar

c)

shaft of the bone

d)

the two epiphyses

165.

In bone development, the secondary ossification takes place on the

a)

collar bone

b)

shaft of the bone

c)

epiphyses plates

d)

articular cartilage

166.

Bone form first as

a)

tendons

b)

ligaments

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

articular cartilage

167.

A process when a cartilage gradually changes into bone tissue is called

a)

osseus

b)

ossification

c)

resorption

d)

bone modification

168.

During endochondral ossification

a)

hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone

b)

hyaline cartilage turns into bone

c)

bone replaced by hyaline cartilage

d)

bone turns into hyaline cartilage

169.

Name this joint

a)

gliding

b)

saddle

c)

ball and socket

d)

condyloid

170.
Name this joint
a)
pivot
b)
saddle
c)
gliding
d)
hinge
171.
The skull is an example of what type of joint?
a)
Cartilaginous
b)
Synovial
c)
Fibrous
172.
Name this joint 
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
hinge
d)
ball and socket
173.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
174.
What are joints
a)
A place where one bone meets 
b)
A place where  two  bones meet 
c)
Bones don't meet 
d)
A place where three bones meet 
175.

Which is not a division of the skeletal system?

a)

Axial

b)

Central

c)

Appendicular

176.

What division of the skeleton would we find the Skull?

a)

Axial

b)

Appendicular

177.

What is this an image of?

a)

Pectoral Girdle

b)

Pelvic Girdle

c)

Femoral Girdle

d)

Shoulder Girdle

178.
A ball and socket joint is located 
a)
in the wrist
b)
in the ankle
c)
in the hip
d)
in the foot
179.
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
a)
maintain body shape
b)
help transmit impulses from place to place
c)
protect organs
d)
provide levers for movement
180.
attaches bone to bone
a)
tendon
b)
ligament 
c)
cartilage
d)
bone
181.
attaches muscle to bone 
a)
tendon
b)
ligament 
c)
cartilage
d)
bone
182.
What are the 2 types of bone tissue?
a)
spongy bone and compact bone
b)
marrow and blood vessels
c)
axial and appendicular
183.

Match the following common names of bones to their scientific names

a)

Kneecap

1.

Patella

b)

Thigh Bone

2.

Femur

c)

Collar Bone

3.

Clavicle

d)

Shoulder blade

4.

Scapula

184.

Which of the following describes the joints in the skull and ribs?

a)

movable

b)

hinge

c)

pivot

d)

immovable

185.

Which bone disease causes bones to become weak and brittle?

a)

artereosclerosis

b)

arthritis

c)

fracture

d)

osteoporosis

186.

Where are red blood cells produced?

a)

compact bone

b)

red bone marrow

c)

spongy bone

d)

yellow bone marrow

187.
Which mineral makes up our bones?
a)
Calcium
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Blood Cells
d)
Bone Marrow
188.

An example of a pivot joint can be found in the forearm.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

The carpals are your ankle bones.

a)

True

b)

False

190.
When a cell is at rest, the inside is more _____ and the outside is more ______. 
a)
negative; positive
b)
positive; negative 
191.

The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves:

a)

sodium & potassium ions INTO the cell

b)

sodium & potassium ions OUT of the cell

c)

sodium ions OUT of the cell & potassium ions INTO the cell

d)

sodium ions INTO the cell & potassium ions OUT of the cell

192.
What describes the phase of quick entry of sodium ions into an axon during an action potential? 
a)
passive transport
b)
depolarization
c)
ion transport
d)
repolarization 
193.
What generates a nerve impulse on the post-synaptic membrane? 
a)
Calcium binding with a receptor site
b)
Potassium leaking into the post-synaptic membrane 
c)
Neurotransmitter binding with receptor sites
d)
Neurotransmitter being removed from the synapse
194.
For a neuron with a resting membrane potential at -70mv, an increase in the movement of sodium ions into the neuron's cytoplasm would result in:
a)
the depolarization of the neuron.
b)
the repolarization of the neuron 
c)
the replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions.
d)
the replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions.
195.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
196.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "D" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Node of Ranvier
197.
What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps the impulses travel faster called?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrites
c)
Node of Ranvier
d)
Myelin Sheath
198.

The location of neurotransmitters

a)

axon terminals

b)

dendrites

c)

Schwann cells

d)

cell body

199.

Which of the following best describes a neuron?

a)

Specialized cells that protects the body from any foreign particles

b)

Specialized cell that transports oxygen throughout the cardiovascular system

c)

Specialized cell that functions to transmit electrical impulses within the nervous system

d)

Specialized cells that receive and read signals sent from the body

200.

What are the 3 stages in action potential? Select all that apply.

a)

Depolarization

b)

Repolarization

c)

Refractory period

d)

Resting potential

201.

Which type of neuron relays information from the (Afferent) body to the CNS?

a)

sensory neuron

b)

interneuron

c)

motor neuron

d)

myelinated neuron

202.

Which chemical enters the synapse in order to transfer an impulse to another neuron?

a)

hormone

b)

plasma

c)

neurotransmitter

d)

cerebrospinal fluid

203.

Where is the nucleus of a neuron located?

a)

dendrite

b)

synapse

c)

axon

d)

cell body

204.

What part of a neuron carries an impulse toward the cell body?

a)

axon

b)

neurotransmitter

c)

dendrite

d)

synaptic cleft

205.

A neuron that carries impulses from the brain and the spinal cord to a muscle or gland

a)

sensory neuron

b)

interneuron

c)

motor neuron

d)

myelinated neuron

206.

A synapse occurs between

a)

the axons of two different neurons.

b)

the dendrites of two different neurons.

c)

the axon of one neuron and the cell body of another neuron.

d)

the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron.

207.

What are the 2 MAJOR divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a)

Sensory & Motor

(afferent and efferent)

b)
Peripheral & Central
c)

Somatic & Autonomic

(SNS and ANS)

d)
Brain & Spinal Cord
208.
Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses from the sense organs and internal organs (like your stomach) to the
a)
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
b)
central nervous system (CNS)
c)
muscles
d)
sense organs
209.
What is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a)
axons
b)
sensory receptors
c)
spinal cord
d)
motor neurons
210.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "H" represent?
a)
Myelin Sheath
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Dendrite
211.

Which is the correct order/sequence of the parts of a neuron affected when a neural impulse occurs?

a)
axon, dendrite, cell body, synapse
b)
dendrite, axon, cell body, synapse
c)
synapse, axon, dendrite, cell body
d)
dendrite, cell body, axon, synapse
212.

Schwann cells that make Myelin would be which color of structure?

a)

the red one

b)

the blue one

c)

the green one

d)

the purple one

213.

What is the name of the blue structure

a)

axon terminal

b)

dendrite

c)

schwann cell

d)

axon

214.

This is made up of the brain and spinal cord

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

215.

All the parts of the nervous system except the brain and spinal cord.

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

216.
The part of the neuron that insulates the axon and increases the speed of the neural message within the neuron.
a)
Synapse
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal Button
217.

Which part of the peripheral nervous system deals with involuntary activities?

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

218.

I support neurons and help produce myelin what am I?

a)

Axons

b)

Dendrites

c)

Glial cells

d)

Cell bodies

219.
This is the electrical charge that travels down an axon when a neuron is firing
a)
Resting Potential
b)

Action Potential/Electrical Impulse

c)
Threshold
d)
Refractory Period
220.

The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.

a)

synaptic cleft

b)

axon terminal

c)

impulse

d)

myelin

221.

The level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse.

a)

Threshold

b)

Action Potential

c)

Resting Potential

d)

Refractory Period

222.

Type of neurons that carry information from the CNS through nerves to effectors such as muscles or glands.

a)

Sensory Neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Motor Neurons

223.

A neurons reaction of either firing (with a full length response) or not firing.

a)

all-or-none response

b)

refractory period

c)

threshold

d)

action potential

224.

Place the following steps in the correct order to describe the firing of an ACTION POTENTIAL

a)

Stimulus occurs changing the resting potential of the neuron

b)

depolarization by 15 mVolts occurs (Threshold is reached)

c)

Na+ channels begin to open up and sodium "whooshes" inside the neuron

d)

More Na+ channels open and more "whooshing" to propagate the impulse

e)

Neurotransmitters are released at the synapse by exocytosis...the receptor on the next neuron gets the chemical message...

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

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