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Worksheets

AMT UNIT

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is ribbing used in plastic components?

a)

To improve strength without increasing thickness

b)

To reduce transparency

c)

To make it flexible

d)

To improve surface finish

2.

Why are thermosets not recyclable?

a)

They are soluble in solvents

b)

They harden permanently after curing

c)

They are highly crystalline

d)

They melt at low temperature

3.

In calendaring, the product usually obtained is:

a)

Pipes

b)

Moulded gears

c)

Hollow containers

d)

Sheets and films

4.

Why are twin screw extruders preferred over single screw extruders in compounding?

a)

They consume less power

b)

They provide better mixing and dispersion

c)

They run at higher speed

d)

They are cheaper

5.

Liquid Crystal Polymers (LCPs) are used in:

a)

Disposable bottles

b)

Plastic bags

c)

Food packaging

d)

High-temperature electrical connectors

6.

The reciprocating screw injection moulding machine is preferred over plunger type because:

a)

It requires less maintenance

b)

It has higher clamping force

c)

It gives better mixing and melting of material

d)

It consumes less electricity

7.

Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

a)

Polypropylene

b)

Polyethylene

c)

Bakelite

d)

Nylon

8.

Which of the following is a general guideline in plastic product design?

a)

Keep uniform wall thickness

b)

Use sharp corners

c)

Always use very thick walls

d)

Avoid draft angles

9.

Why is venting provided in injection moulds?

a)

To remove trapped gases and prevent defects

b)

To reduce mould temperature

c)

To increase product strength

d)

To reduce raw material usage

10.

Which plastic becomes soft on heating and hard on cooling repeatedly?

a)

Thermoplastic

b)

Thermoset

c)

Elastomer

d)

Composite

11.

Why are fillets provided instead of sharp corners in plastic parts?

a)

To reduce cooling times only

b)

To increase brittleness

c)

To improve electrical conductivity

d)

To improve material flow and reduce stress concentration

12.

The advantage of gas-assisted injection moulding is:

a)

Increases optical clarity

b)

Reduces cost of dyes

c)

Increases optical clarity

d)

Reduces cycle times and warpage

13.

Draft angles in mould design are provided to:

a)

Improve strength of plastics

b)

Improve transparency

c)

Reduce shrinkage

d)

Facilitate easy removal of part from the mould

14.

Which one of the following should be avoided in plastic product design?

a)

Uniform wall thickness

b)

Draft angles

c)

Sharp corners

d)

Ribs for strength

15.

Structural foams are mainly used because:

a)

They reduce material weight while retaining strength

b)

They are biodegradable

c)

They have high optical clarity

d)

They are highly elastic

16.

Why is uniform wall thickness preferred in plastic components?

a)

To reduce warpage and sink marks

b)

To increase transparency

c)

To reduce cost of raw material

d)

To make it biodegradable

17.

In extrusion, the screw is mainly used for:

a)

Cooling

b)

Feeding, melting and pumping

c)

Coloring

d)

Curing

18.

Which type of shrinkage is more dominant in plastics?

a)

Thermal shrinkage

b)

Chemical shrinkage

c)

Mould shrinkage

d)

Elastic shrinkage

19.

Which of the following is an engineering plastic?

(a)  

20.

Rotational moulding is most suitable for making:

a)

Thin films

b)

Large hollow items like tanks

c)

Small gears

d)

Profiles

21.

Cladding is best described as:

a)

Chemical diffusion of atoms into surface

b)

Bonding of dissimilar metals for corrosion resistance and strength

c)

Spraying of molten powder

d)

Electrochemical deposition

22.

Honing uses which type of tool?

a)

Abrasive sticks mounted on mandrel

b)

Polishing cloth

c)

Grinding wheel

d)

Single point tool

23.

Why is hot machining used for hard-to-machine alloys?

a)

It reduces cutting forces and tool wear

b)

It increases tool hardness

c)

It makes the workplace softer permanently

d)

It increases thermal conductivity of the tool

24.

Why is electroplating widely used for decorative coatings?

a)

Provides bright finish and corrosion resistance

b)

Increases hardness only

c)

Reduces thermal expansion

d)

Makes component non-magnetic

25.

Burnishing improves surface finish by:

a)

Material removal

b)

Chemical reaction

c)

Melting and solidification

d)

Plastic deformation

26.

Galvanizing deposits a layer of:

a)

Copper

b)

Zinc

c)

Nickel

d)

Tin

27.

Which machining process is used for achieving tolerances in micron or sub-micron range?

a)

Conventional turning

b)

Ultra-precision machining

c)

Broaching

d)

Shaping

28.

Why is honing often used in engine cylinders?

a)

To reduce thermal expansion

b)

To produce cross-hatch pattern for oil retention

c)

To improve electrical properties

d)

To reduce hardness

29.

Micro and nano machining processes are widely used in:

a)

Shipbuilding

b)

Aerospace component repair

c)

MEMS and semiconductor industries

d)

Agricultural tools

30.

Main advantage of burnishing over grinding is:

a)

High material removal rate

b)

Ability to cut hard metals

c)

Lower thermal conductivity required

d)

No material removal, only surface hardening and smoothening

31.

Physical vapour deposition (PVD) includes:

a)

Carburizing

b)

Nitriding

c)

Sputtering and evaporation

d)

Hot dipping

32.

Buffing is done using:

a)

Soft wheel with fine abrasive paste

b)

Abrasive particles bonded in wheel

c)

Jet of water

d)

Steel shot

33.

Shot peening is mainly done to:

a)

Improve ductility

b)

Induce compressive stresses for fatigue strength improvement

c)

Reduce corrosion resistance

d)

Remove material

34.

High-speed machining mainly uses:

a)

High cutting speed and low feed

b)

Low cutting speed and high feed

c)

High depth of cut

d)

Slow cutting with lubrication

35.

Lapping is carried out using:

a)

A cutting tool

b)

Abrasive slurry and lap plate

c)

Electrodes discharge

d)

Buffing wheel

36.

Powder coating is a process in which:

a)

Fine dry powders are electrostatically sprayed and baked

b)

Powder is mixed into molten metal

c)

Metal surface is polished by powder abrasives

d)

Powder is chemically bonded with solvent

37.

In hot machining, the cutting tool is:

a)

Heated before machining

b)

Cooled using liquid nitrogen

c)

Applied to a preheated workpiece

d)

Rotated at high frequency

38.

Which of the following is a hot-dip process?

(a)  

39.

Vapour deposition process in which chemical reaction occurs is:

a)

CVD

b)

PVD

c)

Electroplating

d)

Cladding

40.

What is the difference between polishing and buffing?

a)

Polishing is rougher, buffing is finer finishing

b)

Buffing removes material, polishing does not

c)

Polishing is chemical, buffing is mechanical

d)

Both are identical processes

41.

Which process uses high-intensity photons for machining?

a)

PBM

b)

PAM

c)

LBM

d)

EDM

42.

Laser Beam Machining removes material mainly by:

a)

Melting and vaporization

b)

Plastic deformation

c)

Chemical reaction

d)

Chipping

43.

The electrolyte commonly used in ECM is:

a)

Kerosene

b)

Sodium chloride solution

c)

Compressed air

d)

Ferric chloride

44.

The carrier gas in AJM is usually:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Air or CO2

d)

Hydrogen

45.

AJM is best suited for:

a)

Ductile materials

b)

Brittle materials like glass and ceramics

c)

Soft plastics

d)

All materials equally

46.

The most common laser used in machining is:

a)

Ruby laser

b)

CO2 laser

c)

Diode laser

d)

Nd:YAG laser

47.

An advantage of WJM is:

a)

Heat-affected zone is formed

b)

No tool wear and no thermal damage

c)

Electrical conductivity required

d)

Limited to conductive materials only

48.

Abrasive Jet Machining uses:

a)

Water jet only

b)

High velocity gas with abrasive particles

c)

Plasma arc

d)

Ultrasonic vibrations

49.

The material removal mechanism in USM is:

a)

Erosion due to abrasive particle impact

b)

Melting

c)

Electrolysis

d)

Chemical reaction

50.

Plasma Arc Machining (PAM) temperature range is approximately:

a)

200°C

b)

2000°C

c)

20000°C

d)

20,000°C

51.

In USM, the tool vibrates at a frequency of about:

a)

50 Hz

b)

20 kHz

c)

2000 Hz

d)

100 MHz

52.

Plasma is defined as:

a)

Ionized gas with free electrons and ions

b)

Superheated gas

c)

Liquid metal

d)

Solidified gas

53.

In EDM, the dielectric fluid is usually:

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Kerosene or deionized water

d)

Nitrogen

54.

Which process uses a high voltage spark discharge for material removal?

a)

EDM

b)

ECM

c)

CHM

d)

PAM

55.

In Chemical Machining, material is removed by:

a)

Abrasive impact

b)

Spark erosion

c)

Selective chemical dissolution

d)

High-speed jet

56.

In AJM, material removal rate (MRR) depends on:

a)

Gas pressure, abrasive size, and stand-off distance

b)

Tool hardness

c)

Workpiece conductivity

d)

Electrolyte concentration

57.

In Electrochemical Machining, material is removed by:

4 lines
58.

The nozzle material in WJM is generally:

a)

Mild steel

b)

Brass

c)

Aluminum

d)

Tungsten carbide

59.

Electron Beam Machining requires:

a)

High-pressure gas chamber

b)

Vacuum chamber

c)

Electrolytic bath

d)

Magnetic field only

60.

A major limitation of Electrochemical Machining is:

a)

Burr formation

b)

Tool wear is very high

c)

Only non-conductive materials can be machined

d)

High initial investment and electrolysis disposal problem

61.

In CNC machines, servo motors are mainly used for:

a)

Power supply regulation

b)

Coolant circulation

c)

Tool wear monitoring

d)

Position and velocity control of machine axes

62.

Tool offset in CNC programming is used to:

a)

Adjust tool wear and diameter/radius compensation

b)

Modify the programmed feed rate for machining operations

c)

Regulate the programmed spindle speed during cutting process

d)

Initiate the programmed machining cycle automatically

63.

The CNC coordinate system that specifies points using radius and angle is:

a)

Cartesian

b)

Incremental

c)

Polar

d)

Absolute

64.

M-codes in CNC programming are used for:

a)

Miscellaneous functions like spindle/coolant control

b)

Linear interpolation

c)

Tool radius compensation

d)

Workpiece coordinate system

65.

G-codes in CNC are mainly used for:

a)

Emergency stop

b)

Switching coolant ON/OFF

c)

Tool changing

d)

Preparatory functions like movement and cycles

66.

The tool changing operation in a CNC machining centre is carried out by:

a)

Automatic Tool Changer (ATC)

b)

Manual tool post

c)

Turret only

d)

Gearbox mechanism

67.

Which positioning system in CNC programming defines a new position with respect to the previous position?

a)

Absolute system

b)

Polar system

c)

Incremental system

d)

Constant system

68.

In CNC turning, the linear interpolation command "G01" is used to

a)

Move tool at rapid speed

b)

Generate straight-line profiles at feed rate

c)

Generate circular arc

d)

Perform thread cutting cycle

69.

Which type of feedback system is generally used in CNC machines?

a)

Open-loop system without feedback

b)

Closed-loop system with position feedback

c)

Manual loop with operator input

d)

Hybrid loop without servo motors

70.

The command "G00" is used for

a)

Circular interpolation

b)

Linear interpolation (feed)

c)

Rapid traverse positioning

d)

Canned drilling cycle

71.

Circular interpolation in CNC programming is given by

a)

G00

b)

G01

c)

G02 / G03

d)

M06

72.

CNC stands for

a)

Central Numerical Control

b)

Computer Numerical Control

c)

Controlled Number Coding

d)

Continuous Numerical Control

73.

The CNC coordinate system based on a fixed origin is

a)

Relative

b)

Absolute

c)

Incremental

d)

Polar

74.

The tool magazine in a CNC machining center is used for

a)

Supporting spindle's vibration control

b)

Monitoring and measuring tool wear

c)

Holding and clamping workpieces

d)

Storing multiple tools for automatic tool change

75.

In a Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM), the probe is used for

a)

Detecting and recording object's surface coordinates

b)

Holding and rotating the cutting tool

c)

Storing multiple tools in the magazine

d)

Supporting the workpiece during machining

76.

The most accurate machine for measuring 3D part geometry in CNC inspection is

4 lines
77.

Which offset is used to set the workpiece origin relative to machine zero?

a)

Tool offset

b)

Program zero

c)

Cutter compensation

d)

Work offset

78.

In a CNC turning centre, the spindle axis is considered as

a)

X-axis

b)

Y-axis

c)

W-axis

d)

Z-axis

79.

Which component of a CNC turning center holds and rotates the workpiece

a)

Tool turret

b)

Chuck

c)

Tailstock

d)

Bed

80.

The main advantages of CNC over NC machines is

a)

Reduced initial investment and setup cost for the machine

b)

Elimination of highly skilled operators for machine operation

c)

Automatic error correction and flexibility in programming

d)

Lower overall energy usage and reduced power consumption

81.

STL files contains

a)

Mass properties of the model

b)

2D drawing annotations

c)

Material property data

d)

Geometrical data

82.

Which material is commonly used in FDM?

a)

Photopolymer resin

b)

PLA thermoplastic filament

c)

Metal powder

d)

Laminated paper sheets

83.

Subtractive manufacturing means

a)

Adding layers of material

b)

Removing material from a workpiece

c)

Spraying material

d)

Mixing powders

84.

The energy source used in Selective Laser Sintering (SLS) is:

a)

Ultrasonic waves

b)

Focused laser beam

c)

High-pressure gas jet

d)

Plasma arc

85.

Which is the first step in the RP process chain?

a)

STL file generation

b)

CAD modeling of the part

c)

Post-processing

d)

Slicing into layers

86.

A common input for rapid prototyping is

a)

STL file

b)

BMP file

c)

DOC file

d)

DIX file

87.

Which RP process is most suitable for thermoplastic prototypes?

a)

SLA

b)

SSM

c)

LOM

d)

FDM

88.

Rapid tooling refers to

a)

Fabrication of plastic components

b)

Production of tools or moulds using RP methods

c)

Preparation of design models in CAD software

d)

Manufacturing of parts through CNC machining

89.

In fused deposition modeling (FDM), support structures are usually made of

a)

Photopolymer resin

b)

A dissolvable secondary material

c)

Metal powders

d)

The same thermoplastic material

90.

In Selective Laser Sintering (SLS)

a)

Liquid resin is cured by laser

b)

Paper sheets are glued together

c)

Filament is extruded through a nozzle

d)

Powder is fused together by laser energy

91.

In stereolithography, the part is built inside a

a)

Powder bed chamber

b)

Liquid photopolymer vat

c)

Metal deposition chamber

d)

Lamination station

92.

In RP, support structures are mainly required for

a)

Parts made of metals only

b)

All 2D models

c)

Overhanging and complex geometries

d)

Machined surfaces

93.

The resolution and accuracy of an RP part depend primarily on

a)

Layer thickness

b)

Machine color

c)

Tool sharpness

d)

Cutting speed

94.

Process of converting STL file model into layers is called in RP

a)

Slicing

b)

Chopping

c)

Cutting

d)

Trimming

95.

STL file format is represented by interaction of

a)

Lines and hexagons

b)

Lines and rectangles

c)

Lines and triangles

d)

Lines and circles

96.

What is the full name of SLS?

a)

Selective Laser Simulator

b)

Sintering Laser Simulator

c)

Selective Laser Sintering

d)

Stereolithography Laser Sintering

97.

The primary raw material for SLA is

a)

Metal powder

b)

Thermoplastic filament

c)

Photopolymer resin

d)

Paper sheets

98.

The principle of stereolithography (SLA) is

a)

Melting filament with heat

b)

Using UV laser to cure liquid resin

c)

Jetting binder onto powder

d)

Electron beam melting

99.

Additive manufacturing builds a part

a)

By cutting layers from a block

b)

By removing unwanted material

c)

By adding material layer by layer

d)

By forging and casting

100.

Which of the following is an additive manufacturing process?

a)

Turning

b)

Milling

c)

Drilling

d)

3D Printing