Worksheetsap psychology final Part II
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is cognition?
a)
The study of human development and learning
b)
The scientific study of human behavior
c)
Thinking, including perception, knowledge, problem solving, judgment, and memory
d)
The social interactions between individuals in groups
2.
What is a prototype in cognitive psychology?
a)
A mental shortcut used to solve problems
b)
The best example or representation of a concept
c)
A step-by-step formula for solving problems
d)
A set of behaviors that are performed the same way each time
3.
Which of the following is an example of an artificial concept?
a)
The concept of snow for someone living in Vermont
b)
The definition of a triangle having three angles and three sides
c)
The understanding of what constitutes a dog based on experience
d)
The concept of justice developed over many years
4.
What is the Flynn effect?
a)
The observation that intelligence decreases with each new generation
b)
The theory that intelligence is primarily determined by genetics
c)
The observation that each generation has a significantly higher IQ than the previous generation
d)
The correlation between socioeconomic status and IQ scores
5.
Which intelligence theory proposes that intelligence is comprised of practical, creative, and analytical components?
a)
Multiple Intelligences Theory
b)
Triarchic Theory of Intelligence
c)
Emotional Intelligence Theory
d)
Crystallized and Fluid Intelligence Theory
6.
What is the difference between convergent and divergent thinking?
a)
Convergent thinking is creative while divergent thinking is analytical
b)
Convergent thinking provides established answers while divergent thinking generates multiple solutions
c)
Convergent thinking is used in art while divergent thinking is used in science
d)
Convergent thinking is unconscious while divergent thinking is conscious
7.
Which of the following best describes a schema?
a)
A problem-solving formula that provides step-by-step instructions
b)
A mental shortcut that saves time when solving a problem
c)
A mental construct consisting of a cluster of related concepts
d)
The smallest unit of language that conveys meaning
8.
What was the purpose of Alfred Binet's original intelligence test?
a)
To determine which adults were suitable for military service
b)
To identify children who might have difficulty in school
c)
To measure the intelligence of university students
d)
To compare intelligence levels across different cultures
9.
What is the difference between crystallized and fluid intelligence?
a)
Crystallized intelligence declines with age while fluid intelligence improves
b)
Crystallized intelligence is innate while fluid intelligence is learned
c)
Crystallized intelligence involves acquired knowledge while fluid intelligence involves solving novel problems
d)
Crystallized intelligence is measured by IQ tests while fluid intelligence cannot be measured
10.
What is dyslexia?
a)
A learning disability that causes difficulty in mathematics
b)
A developmental disorder related to low intelligence
c)
A learning disability that causes extreme difficulty in writing legibly
d)
A learning disability where letters are not processed properly by the brain
11.
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory, what are the three stages that information passes through?
a)
Encoding, storage, and retrieval
b)
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
c)
Visual, acoustic, and semantic encoding
d)
Automatic processing, effortful processing, and retrieval
12.
Which of the following best describes elaborative rehearsal?
a)
Repetition of information without thinking about its meaning
b)
Thinking about the meaning of new information and connecting it to existing knowledge
c)
Organizing information into smaller chunks to improve recall
d)
The process of transferring information from short-term to sensory memory
13.
A student is trying to remember a list of vocabulary words for an exam. Which memory enhancement technique involves organizing these words into meaningful groups?
a)
Self-reference effect
b)
Distributed practice
c)
Chunking
d)
Mnemonic devices
14.
What is the primary function of the hippocampus in memory processing?
a)
Processing procedural memories
b)
Determining which memories to store based on emotional response
c)
Encoding new memories and projecting information to cortical regions
d)
Controlling the flow of information through neural circuits
15.
A patient suffers brain trauma and can remember events from before the injury but cannot form new memories. This condition is called:
a)
Retrograde amnesia
b)
Anterograde amnesia
c)
Transience
d)
Blocking
16.
Flashbulb memories are:
a)
Memories that fade quickly after formation
b)
Exceptionally clear recollections of important events
c)
Memories that are stored in the cerebellum
d)
False memories created through suggestibility
17.
The misinformation effect, as demonstrated by Loftus and Palmer's car accident experiment, illustrates which memory phenomenon?
a)
How the wording of questions can alter memory recall
b)
How chunking improves memory performance
c)
The limited capacity of short-term memory
d)
The superiority of visual encoding over acoustic encoding
18.
Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for procedural memories, such as learning to play the piano?
a)
Amygdala
b)
Prefrontal cortex
c)
Hippocampus
d)
Cerebellum
19.
When new information interferes with the recall of previously learned information, this is known as:
a)
Proactive interference
b)
Retroactive interference
c)
Memory consolidation
d)
The self-reference effect
20.
According to the levels of processing theory proposed by Craik and Lockhart, which type of encoding leads to better memory retention?
a)
Acoustic encoding
b)
Visual encoding
c)
Semantic encoding
d)
Automatic encoding
21.
According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, what is the primary developmental task of adolescence?
a)
Industry versus inferiority
b)
Identity versus role confusion
c)
Intimacy versus isolation
d)
Generativity versus stagnation
22.
Which of the following best characterizes Piaget's concrete operational stage?
a)
Children can think logically about abstract ideas and hypothetical situations
b)
Children learn about the world primarily through sensory experiences and motor activities
c)
Children can think logically about concrete events and understand conservation
d)
Children use symbols to represent words and engage in pretend play
23.
The debate regarding whether development occurs in distinct stages (discontinuous) or as a gradual process (continuous) addresses which major issue in developmental psychology?
a)
Nature versus nurture
b)
Continuity versus discontinuity
c)
One course of development versus many courses
d)
Universal versus context-specific development
24.
In which stage of prenatal development does the heart begin to beat and organs start to form and function?
a)
Germinal stage
b)
Embryonic stage
c)
Fetal stage
d)
Neonatal stage
25.
The Strange Situation procedure developed by Mary Ainsworth was designed to assess:
a)
Object permanence in infants
b)
Attachment styles between caregivers and children
c)
Theory of mind in preschoolers
d)
Egocentrism in the preoperational stage
26.
Which parenting style is characterized by high demands, consistent limits, warmth, and responsiveness to the child's needs?
a)
Authoritarian
b)
Permissive
c)
Uninvolved
d)
Authoritative
27.
Which of the following best describes theory-of-mind (TOM)?
a)
The understanding that objects continue to exist even when not visible
b)
The ability to mentally manipulate information and think hypothetically
c)
The understanding that people have thoughts, feelings, and beliefs different from one's own
d)
The ability to classify objects based on their physical properties
28.
What characterizes emerging adulthood in Western cultures?
a)
The period when individuals establish their careers and start families (typically ages 30-40)
b)
An in-between time from ages 18 to mid-20s focused on identity exploration in work and love
c)
The stage when individuals experience the empty nest syndrome as children leave home
d)
The period when individuals begin to develop secondary sexual characteristics
29.
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross proposed that people who are dying typically experience which of the following sequences of emotional stages?
a)
Sadness, acceptance, anger, denial, bargaining
b)
Denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance
c)
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
d)
Shock, denial, anger, acceptance, resolution
30.
Which of the following is a characteristic of socioemotional selectivity theory regarding aging?
a)
Older adults experience a significant increase in the number of social relationships they maintain
b)
As people age, they focus more on quantity rather than quality of social connections
c)
Social support and friendships decrease in number but remain close or become closer with age
d)
Older adults show no significant changes in social preferences compared to younger adults
31.
Motivation describes:
a)
The external factors that influence our behaviors
b)
The wants or needs that direct behavior toward a goal
c)
The process of maintaining homeostasis in the body
d)
The cognitive appraisal of emotional situations
32.
Which theory suggests that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs that result in psychological drive states?
a)
Instinct theory
b)
Arousal theory
c)
Drive theory
d)
Self-efficacy theory
33.
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that:
a)
All emotions are based on physiological arousal
b)
Simple tasks are performed best with higher arousal levels while complex tasks require lower arousal levels
c)
Motivation is primarily influenced by external rewards
d)
Self-actualization can only be achieved when all lower needs are met
34.
What is the overjustification effect?
a)
The tendency to overestimate one's abilities when performing familiar tasks
b)
The diminishment of intrinsic motivation when extrinsic motivation is given
c)
The process by which individuals justify their behaviors after experiencing cognitive dissonance
d)
The overestimation of emotional responses in social situations
35.
Which hormone is released by fat cells and acts as a satiety signal?
a)
Ghrelin
b)
Orexin
c)
Leptin
d)
Insulin
36.
According to the James-Lange theory of emotion:
a)
Emotions arise from physiological arousal
b)
Emotional experience occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal
c)
Emotions are determined by cognitive appraisal of the stimulus
d)
Emotions result from a combination of arousal and cognitive labeling
37.
In Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle, which phase is characterized by rhythmic contractions of the pelvis and increased muscle tension?
a)
Excitement
b)
Plateau
c)
Orgasm
d)
Resolution
38.
Which brain structure plays a critical role in fear responses and emotional memory?
a)
Thalamus
b)
Amygdala
c)
Hippocampus
d)
Hypothalamus
39.
The cognitive-mediational theory developed by Lazarus asserts that:
a)
Physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
b)
Emotions are determined by appraisal of the stimulus
c)
Emotional responses are primarily controlled by the limbic system
d)
Emotions are universal and biologically determined
40.
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs:
a)
Self-actualization is the most basic need that must be satisfied first
b)
Physiological needs must be satisfied before addressing safety needs
c)
Social needs are more important than esteem needs
d)
All needs must be completely satisfied before moving to higher levels
41.
Personality refers to:
a)
Short-term behavioral responses to specific situations
b)
Long-standing traits and patterns that propel individuals to consistently think, feel, and behave in specific ways
c)
Temporary emotional states influenced by environmental factors
d)
Conscious choices made by individuals based on rational thinking
42.
Freud's theory of personality includes three components. Which component serves as one's moral compass or conscience?
a)
The id
b)
The ego
c)
The superego
d)
The collective unconscious
43.
According to Erikson's psychosocial stages of development, what is the primary developmental task of young adults (ages 19-29)?
a)
Identity vs. confusion
b)
Intimacy vs. isolation
c)
Generativity vs. stagnation
d)
Industry vs. inferiority
44.
Carl Jung's concept of the "collective unconscious" refers to:
a)
A universal version of the personal unconscious containing ancestral memories called archetypes
b)
The conscious part of personality that is visible to others
c)
The process of integrating the shadow self with one's public persona
d)
A person's private thoughts that they choose not to share with others
45.
Which neo-Freudian theorist is known for the concept of the "inferiority complex" and founded individual psychology?
a)
Karen Horney
b)
Carl Jung
c)
Alfred Adler
d)
Erik Erikson
46.
In Bandura's social-cognitive theory, the concept of "reciprocal determinism" suggests that:
a)
Personality is determined solely by genetic factors
b)
Cognitive processes, behavior, and context all interact and influence each other
c)
Early childhood experiences determine adult personality
d)
People's behavior is primarily influenced by unconscious drives
47.
Which personality test uses inkblots to assess an individual's unconscious desires, fears, and struggles?
a)
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
b)
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
c)
Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
d)
Rorschach Inkblot Test
48.
The Five Factor Model of personality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Openness to experience
b)
Conscientiousness
c)
Dominance
d)
Neuroticism
49.
In the context of personality psychology, what is "self-efficacy"?
a)
The degree to which one's actual self matches their ideal self
b)
The level of confidence in one's own abilities
c)
The tendency to attribute success to internal factors
d)
The process of becoming self-actualized
50.
What is the difference between individualist and collectivist cultures in terms of personality development?
a)
Individualist cultures value tradition while collectivist cultures embrace change
b)
Individualist cultures emphasize independence and personal achievement, while collectivist cultures value social harmony and group needs
c)
Collectivist cultures produce more extroverted personalities than individualist cultures
d)
There are no significant differences in personality development between these cultural types
51.
Social psychology is best defined as:
a)
The study of individual personality traits and how they influence behavior
b)
The examination of how people affect one another and the power of the situation
c)
The analysis of biological factors that determine human behavior
d)
The study of mental disorders and their impact on social interactions
52.
The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to:
a)
Blame ourselves for failures and credit others for our successes
b)
Underestimate situational factors in our own behavior
c)
Overemphasize internal factors as explanations for others' behavior
d)
Make accurate judgments about the causes of human behavior
53.
What is the key difference between normative social influence and informational social influence?
a)
Normative influence is based on the desire to be liked, while informational influence is based on the desire to be correct
b)
Normative influence occurs in collectivistic cultures, while informational influence occurs in individualistic cultures
c)
Normative influence is conscious, while informational influence is unconscious
d)
Normative influence is temporary, while informational influence is permanent
54.
In Stanley Milgram's obedience experiment, what percentage of participants delivered the maximum voltage shock?
a)
23%
b)
40%
c)
48%
d)
65%
55.
What is cognitive dissonance?
a)
The inability to process conflicting information
b)
Psychological discomfort arising from inconsistent attitudes, behaviors, or cognitions
c)
The tendency to seek information that confirms existing beliefs
d)
Mental fatigue resulting from making too many decisions
56.
Which of the following is an example of the bystander effect?
a)
A person helping a stranger because others are watching
b)
A witness to an emergency not helping because they assume someone else will
c)
Someone conforming to group pressure despite knowing the group is wrong
d)
A person obeying an authority figure against their better judgment
57.
According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, consummate love consists of:
a)
Intimacy and passion, but no commitment
b)
Passion and commitment, but no intimacy
c)
Intimacy, passion, and commitment
d)
Intimacy and commitment, but no passion
58.
What is the self-serving bias?
a)
The tendency to blame external factors for failures and take credit for successes
b)
The tendency to favor people who are similar to ourselves
c)
The belief that people get what they deserve in life
d)
The tendency to conform to group norms even when they conflict with personal beliefs
59.
Which of the following statements about cyberbullying is NOT true?
a)
It is typically overt rather than covert
b)
About one in three middle and high school students report experiencing it
c)
It can lead to suicidal ideation in both victims and perpetrators
d)
LGBTQ youth are targeted at higher rates than heterosexual and cisgender youth
60.
According to social exchange theory, people maintain relationships when:
a)
The benefits outweigh the costs
b)
They have no other options available
c)
They feel obligated by social norms
d)
They have invested too much time to leave
61.
Which of the following best describes the physiological response during stress that was first identified by Walter Cannon?
a)
General adaptation syndrome
b)
Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
c)
Fight-or-flight response
d)
Psychoneuroimmunology
62.
In the general adaptation syndrome model proposed by Hans Selye, during which stage is a person most vulnerable to illness?
a)
Alarm reaction
b)
Stage of resistance
c)
Stage of exhaustion
d)
Primary appraisal
63.
Which of the following best describes a "psychophysiological disorder"?
a)
A psychological disorder caused by physical illness
b)
A physical disorder whose symptoms are brought about or worsened by stress and emotional factors
c)
A disorder that exists only in a person's mind but has no physical basis
d)
A disorder that affects both psychological and physiological systems independently
64.
Research on happiness has shown which of the following to be true?
a)
People adapt completely to all major life events, both positive and negative
b)
Happiness levels cannot be permanently changed
c)
People do not fully adapt to unemployment or severe disabilities
d)
Winning the lottery produces permanent increases in happiness
65.
Which of the following is considered a dimension of job burnout?
a)
Perfectionism
b)
Depersonalization
c)
Type A personality
d)
Social isolation
66.
What is the relationship between social support and health outcomes?
a)
Social support has no measurable effect on physical health
b)
Individuals with stronger social relationships have a 50% greater likelihood of survival compared to those with weak social relationships
c)
Social support only benefits psychological health, not physical health
d)
Social support increases susceptibility to the common cold
67.
Which concept refers to the state of being so engaged in an activity that it becomes worth doing for its own sake, often causing a person to lose track of time?
a)
Positive affect
b)
Optimism
c)
Flow
d)
Eustress
68.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct elements of happiness described by Seligman?
a)
The pleasant life
b)
The good life
c)
The meaningful life
d)
The balanced life
69.
The field of positive psychology is best described as:
a)
The study of psychiatric disorders and their treatments
b)
The science of happiness and human strengths
c)
The practice of positive thinking to overcome depression
d)
The study of how positive emotions affect brain chemistry
70.
Which of the following is a correct statement about stress and the immune system?
a)
Stress has no effect on immune functioning
b)
Stress always strengthens immune functioning
c)
Researchers have demonstrated that stress can weaken immune functioning
d)
Immune functioning is completely independent of psychological factors
71.
Which of the following disorders involves a person becoming detached from their core sense of self?
a)
Bipolar disorder
b)
Dissociative disorder
c)
Schizophrenia
d)
Generalized anxiety disorder
72.
Which of the following is a key feature of antisocial personality disorder?
a)
Persistent fear of social situations
b)
Lack of regard for others' rights and feelings
c)
Excessive worry about everyday matters
d)
Inflated sense of self-importance
73.
The DSM-5 classifies autism spectrum disorder as a:
a)
Mood disorder
b)
Personality disorder
c)
Neurodevelopmental disorder
d)
Dissociative disorder
74.
Which symptom is NOT typically associated with major depressive disorder?
a)
Feelings of worthlessness
b)
Racing thoughts and increased energy
c)
Significant weight loss or gain
d)
Difficulty concentrating
75.
The diathesis-stress model of psychological disorders suggests that:
a)
Disorders are caused solely by genetic factors
b)
Environmental factors alone determine who develops disorders
c)
A predisposition interacts with stressful events to cause disorders
d)
Disorders are the result of supernatural forces
76.
A person who experiences recurrent panic attacks and develops intense fear about having future attacks would most likely be diagnosed with:
a)
Specific phobia
b)
Panic disorder
c)
Agoraphobia
d)
Social anxiety disorder
77.
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
a)
Hallucinations
b)
Delusions
c)
Disorganized speech
d)
Diminished emotional expression
78.
The prevalence of ADHD is:
a)
Equal between males and females
b)
Higher in females than males
c)
Higher in males than females
d)
Not mentioned in the text
79.
What percentage of people with bipolar disorder attempt suicide at some point in their lifetime?
a)
15%
b)
24%
c)
36%
d)
47%
80.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three clusters into which personality disorders are organized in the DSM-5?
a)
Cluster A (odd or eccentric)
b)
Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic)
c)
Cluster C (anxious or fearful)
d)
Cluster D (impulsive or aggressive)
100 %
