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Worksheets

Pharmacology

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pharmacokinetics studies:

a)

What the drug does to the body only

b)

What the body does to the drug- metabolism, excretion (ADME) absorption, distribution,

c)

Only drug pricing

d)

Only side effects

2.

Bioavailability (F) refers to:

a)

Fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged

b)

Drug potency only

c)

Chemical composition

d)

Half-life

3.

Volume of distribution (Vd) indicates:

a)

Drug concentration in plasma only

b)

Apparent space in body available to contain the drug helps estimate loading dose

c)

Elimination lag time only

d)

Toxicity exclusively

4.

A drug with high protein binding will:

a)

Have more free fraction available

b)

Have less free (active) fraction in plasma leading to potential drug interactions if displaced

c)

Be water insoluble only

d)

Not be metabolized

5.

Half-life (1/2) is the time taken for:

a)

Drug concentration to double

b)

Plasma concentration to reduce by half during elimination phase

c)

Drug to act

d)

Drug to be excreted wholly

6.

Which enzyme system is major for hepatic drug metabolism?

a)

Renal enzymes only

b)

Cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes

c)

Digestive enzymes only

d)

Mitochondrial DNA only

7.

A cytochrome P450 inhibitor will:

a)

Increase metabolism of other drugs

b)

Decrease metabolism of substrate drugs, potentially increasing their plasma levels and toxicity

c)

Always be therapeutic

d)

Decrease drug absorption

8.

First-pass metabolism reduces oral bioavailability by:

a)

Metabolism in the gut wall and liver before reaching systemic circulation

b)

Eliminating drugs in kidney only

c)

Enhancing absorption

d)

Converting to active metabolites always

9.

Which route bypasses first-pass metabolism?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous and sublingual (to some extent)

c)

Enteral only

d)

Rectal always

10.

Agonist produces:

a)

No effect at receptor

b)

Activation of receptor producing a physiological effect

c)

Only antagonist effects

d)

Inverse agonism always

11.

Competitive antagonist effect can be overcome by:

a)

Increasing agonist concentration (dose)

b)

Decreasing agonist concentration only

c)

Not possible to overcome

d)

Changing route of administration only

12.

A partial agonist:

a)

Produces maximal response always

b)

Produces submaximal response even when occupying all receptors (has intrinsic activity less than full agonist)

c)

Is same as antagonist

d)

Is toxic only

13.

Pharmacodynamics involves:

a)

ADME only

b)

Drug-receptor interactions and physiological effect (what the drugdoes to body)

c)

Drug manufacturing only

d)

Price determination only

14.

Therapeutic index (TI) is:

a)

Ratio between toxic dose and therapeutic dose (TD50/ED50) - higher TI = safer drug

b)

Percentage of drug absorbed

c)

Half-life ratio

d)

Cost-effectiveness ratio

15.

An example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic is:

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Gentamicin (aminoglycoside)

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Erythromycin

16.

Beta-lactam antibiotics act by:

a)

Inhibiting protein synthesis only

b)

Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis via penicillin-binding proteins

c)

Inactivating DNA directly

d)

Altering human cell membranes

17.

Which antibiotic is bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal typically?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Chloramphenicol or tetracyclines. many protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic

c)

Vancomycin always bactericidal

d)

Aminoglycosides always bacteriostatic

18.

Resistance to antibiotics can be mediated by:

a)

Efflux pumps, drug-modifying enzymes, target alteration, decreased permeability

b)

Only increased drug dosing

c)

Only patient noncompliance

d)

Weather changes

19.

Which medication is first-line for Type 2 diabetes initial management along with lifestyle?

a)

Insulin only initially

b)

Metformin (biguanide) commonly first-line unless contraindicated

c)

Aspirin

d)

Sulfonylurea always

20.

ACE inhibitors may cause which common side effect?

a)

Hyperkalemia and cough (due to bradykinin)

b)

Hypoglycemia always

c)

Constipation only

d)

Ringing in ears always

21.

Which class of drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

ACE inhibitors (teratogenic, especially in 2nd/3rd trimester)

c)

Prenatal vitamins

d)

Certain penicillins (safe generally)

22.

NSAIDs primarily work by inhibition of:

a)

Monoamine oxidase

b)

Cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes decreasing prostaglandin synthesis

c)

Acetylcholinesterase

d)

DNA synthesis

23.

Which antiplatelet drug irreversibly inhibits platelet function via COX-1 inhibition?

a)

Clopidogrel

b)

Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

c)

Heparin

d)

Warfarin

24.

Heparin acts by potentiating:

a)

Protein C only

b)

Antithrombin III (inhibits thrombin and factor Xa)

c)

Vitamin K activity

d)

Platelet aggregation

25.

Warfarin's effect is antagonized by:

a)

Vitamin C only

b)

Vitamin K (phytonadione)

c)

Heparin directly

d)

Aspirin

26.

Proton pump inhibitors decrease gastric acidity by inhibiting:

a)

H2 receptors only

b)

H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) in parietal cells

c)

Muscarinic receptors

d)

Mucus production

27.

Which antiemetic acts as a dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist?

a)

Ondansetron (5-HT3 antagonist)

b)

Metoclopramide (D2 antagonist)

c)

Loperamide

d)

Ranitidine

28.

Insulin lispro is an example of:

a)

Long-acting insulin

b)

Rapid-acting insulin analog used for postprandial glucose control

c)

Oral antidiabetic

d)

Sulfonylurea

29.

Statins lower cholesterol primarily by inhibiting:

a)

Lipase enzyme only

b)

HMG-CoA reductase (rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis)

c)

LDL receptors

d)

Bile acid absorption only

30.

Which analgesic is also antipyretic and not an NSAID (minimal anti-inflammatory)?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

c)

Aspirin

d)

Naproxen

31.

Which drug class is commonly associated with ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

a)

Beta-lactams only

b)

Aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin)

c)

Macrolides only

d)

Statins

32.

Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and contractility primarily by blocking:

a)

Alpha-1 receptors

b)

Beta-1 adrenergic receptors in heart

c)

Dopamine receptors

d)

Muscarinic receptors

33.

Which local anesthetic has the longest duration among the commonly used agents?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Bupivacaine (longer duration)

c)

Procaine

d)

Cocaine

34.

A drug with narrow therapeutic index requires:

a)

No monitoring

b)

Therapeutic drug monitoring and careful dosing (e.g., digoxin, lithium)

c)

High dosing always

d)

No prescription

35.

Antiplatelet drug clopidogrel requires activation by:

a)

Gastric acid only

b)

Hepatic CYP enzymes (prodrug requiring activation)

c)

Kidney only

d)

Light exposure

36.

The mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors is:

a)

Competitive antagonism at H2 receptor

b)

Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase on parietal cell luminal membrane

c)

Neutralization of acid in stomach lumen only

d)

Coating the mucosa

37.

A major side effect of prolonged corticosteroid use is:

a)

Hypotension only

b)

Immunosuppression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, adrenal suppression

c)

Better hair quality only

d)

Rapid weight loss always beneficial

38.

Which drug is a broad-spectrum macrolide antibiotic?

a)

Erythromycin or azithromycin (macrolides)

b)

Trimethoprim only

c)

Vancomycin only

d)

Metronidazole

39.

A medication causing QT prolongation on ECG should be used carefully with:

a)

Other QT-prolonging drugs and electrolyte disturbances (hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia)

b)

Beta-blockers only

c)

Aspirin only

d)

Opiates only

40.

Which drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) poisoning?

a)

N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)

b)

Naloxone

c)

Atropine

d)

Diazepam

41.

Which antihistamine is sedating due to central penetration?

a)

Cetirizine (less sedating)

b)

First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine (sedating)

c)

Loratadine always sedating

d)

Fexofenadine always sedating

42.

In renal impairment, dose adjustments are usually required for drugs that are:

a)

Hepatically metabolized only

b)

Substantially renally excreted or have active renally-excreted metabolites

c)

Totally inert

d)

Protein pills only

43.

Which antiplatelet agent is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor used intravenously?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Abciximab (GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor)

c)

Clopidogrel oral only

d)

Warfarin

44.

Which antimicrobial is the drug of choice for MRSA serious infections (IV)?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Vancomycin (or alternatives like linezolid depending on context)

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Erythromycin

45.

The "loading dose" calculation uses which parameter primarily?

a)

Half-life only

b)

Desired plasma concentration and volume of distribution (Loading dose = Vdx target concentration)

c)

Bioavailability only

d)

Cost of drug only

46.

The main route of metabolism for morphine is:

a)

CYP450 oxidative demethylation only

b)

Glucuronidation in liver (morphine-3-glucuronide and morphine-6-glucuronide)

c)

Renal excretion unchanged only

d)

Hydrolysis in gut only

47.

Which antibiotic works by inhibiting DNA gyrase/topoisomerase?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)

c)

Macrolides

d)

Aminoglycosides

48.

Which pharmacokinetic parameter determines the steady-state concentration during continuous infusion?

a)

Volume of distribution only

b)

Clearance (Css = infusion rate / clearance) and half-life affects time to reach steady state

c)

Protein binding only

d)

Drug color only

49.

Adverse drug reaction Type A (augmented) is:

a)

Unpredictable, idiosyncratic

b)

Dose-related and predictable from pharmacology (e.g., bleeding with warfarin)

c)

Allergic only

d)

Psychosomatic only

50.

Which drug is a prokinetic and antiemetic acting partly as a dopamine receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 agonist?

a)

Ondansetron only

b)

Metoclopramide (prokinetic and antiemetic)

c)

Loperamide only

d)

Ranitidine only