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PSYCHOLOGY QUIZ — Chapter 1: Introduction to Psychology

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the best answer. Refer to the figure. The figure illustrates a typical experiment in

a)

Gestalt psychology.

b)

evolutionary psychology.

c)

functionalism.

d)

cognitive psychology.

2.

Choose the best answer. Psychology is best defined as the study of

a)

mental health.

b)

consciousness and intuition.

c)

the mind and behavior.

d)

learning and developmental delay.

3.

Choose the best answer. According to the social brain hypothesis, each of us can deal effectively with social interactions with roughly 150 people. This implies that

a)

most of us are able to maintain close, lifelong friendships with about 150 people.

b)

we are capable of maintaining social networks of up to 150 people throughout our lives.

c)

most of us cannot recognize more than 150 people at any given time in our lives.

d)

we function best in groups of roughly 150 people, whether all are friends or strangers.

4.

Choose the best answer. The idea that children are born with no knowledge or “content” whatsoever and are “filled” by life experiences is called

a)

rationalism.

b)

determinism.

c)

tabula rasa.

d)

nature vs. nurture.

5.

Choose the best answer. In Plato’s cave allegory, when a prisoner returned to the chains after seeing the fire, the other prisoners

a)

refused to believe him.

b)

marveled at his great knowledge.

c)

began to reconsider their own views.

d)

immediately accepted his insight.

6.

Choose the best answer. Which perspective argues that human behavior develops in certain ways because it serves a useful purpose?

a)

Psychoanalysis

b)

Cognitive psychology

c)

Behaviorism

d)

Functionalism

7.

Choose the best answer. Which approach to psychology did Edward Titchener advocate in the late 1800s?

a)

Humanistic psychology

b)

Psychoanalysis

c)

Functionalism

d)

Structuralism

8.

Choose the best answer. A researcher asks participants to describe their internal experiences after seeing flashing lights. This method is known as

a)

functionalism.

b)

introspection.

c)

behaviorism.

d)

psychoanalysis.

9.

Choose the best answer. The study of the nervous system is called

a)

cognitive science.

b)

psychopathology.

c)

psychophysics.

d)

neuroscience.

10.

Choose the best answer. The “Doll Test,” which influenced the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision on school segregation, was conducted by

a)

Francis Sumner.

b)

B. F. Skinner.

c)

Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark.

d)

Mary Cover Jones.

11.

Choose the best answer. What is a mainstream psychologist most likely to think about Sigmund Freud?

a)

Freudian theory is largely untestable and not grounded in science.

b)

Freud discovered the unconscious and most of his theories are correct.

c)

Freud was a fraud who should not be studied.

d)

Research has confirmed most Freudian ideas.

12.

Choose the best answer. Which statement reflects a reasonable attitude toward claims about human behavior?

a)

Older ideas are more likely to be correct.

b)

Accept ideas until they are proven wrong.

c)

Popular ideas are more likely to be correct.

d)

Skepticism is advisable until an idea is proven right.

13.

Choose the best answer. Xander has taken a medication that is an endorphin antagonist. Which side effect is most likely?

a)

Increased pain sensitivity

b)

Impaired motor control

c)

Reduced sensitivity to touch and pressure

d)

Impulsivity

14.

Choose the best answer. Following a head injury, Maria experienced a dramatic personality change. She now gambles heavily, swears and yells at work, and has difficulty planning ahead. She most likely experienced damage to her

a)

prefrontal cortex.

b)

basal ganglia.

c)

occipital lobe.

d)

central sulcus.

15.

Choose the best answer. Which statement about vesicles is accurate?

a)

They are responsible for the breakdown of used neurotransmitters.

b)

They bind neurotransmitters released by axon terminals.

c)

They empty neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

d)

They are the only places where two neurons touch.

16.

Choose the best answer. A patient has a dangerously low heart rate and is having difficulty breathing. The neurotransmitter that would be most helpful to him is

a)

acetylcholine.

b)

serotonin.

c)

norepinephrine.

d)

GABA.

17.

Choose the best answer. The sensation of a fly landing on your arm is weaker than the sensation of being hit with a dodgeball because

a)

the dodgeball triggers faster moving action potentials from each sensory neuron.

b)

the dodgeball triggers a more negatively charged action potential.

c)

the fly depolarizes neurons, but the dodgeball hyperpolarizes neurons.

d)

the dodgeball triggers more action potentials per second from each sensory neuron.

18.

Choose the best answer. The action potential of a neuron is best compared to

a)

liquid starting to spill over the rim of a cup when just enough force is applied.

b)

a baseball traveling farther when it is thrown harder.

c)

a heavier bowling ball knocking down more pins than a lighter ball does.

d)

the speed of a remote-controlled car depending on the battery charge.

19.

Choose the best answer. Neurotransmitters influence the polarization of a neuron by

a)

causing receptor channels to open, allowing positively charged sodium ions to flow into the neuron.

b)

crossing into the neuron, bringing their charge with them.

c)

causing neurons to expel sodium ions.

d)

blocking ion flow.

20.

Choose the best answer. Inhibitory synapses

a)

cannot exist in the same part of the body as excitatory synapses.

b)

increase the likelihood that a neuron will reach the firing threshold.

c)

trigger action potentials.

d)

hyperpolarize neurons.

21.

Choose the best answer. A neuron with ______ would be expected to have the slowest-moving action potential.

a)

a well-myelinated, thick axon

b)

many nodes of Ranvier

c)

an unmyelinated, thick axon

d)

an unmyelinated, thin axon

22.

Choose the best answer. After being diagnosed with thyroid cancer, Kaela had her thyroid removed. The effects of this are likely to include

a)

an inability to regulate her endocrine system.

b)

changes in metabolism.

c)

difficulty breaking down sugar.

d)

an inability to trigger the fight-or-flight response.

23.

Choose the best answer. After a skydiving accident, an MRI showed damage to Rose’s cerebellum. She is most likely to have difficulty with

a)

reading.

b)

practicing yoga.

c)

controlling emotions.

d)

understanding speech.

24.

Choose the best answer. A scientist has inserted an electrode into the frontal lobe of a monkey. Electrical stimulation would most likely cause the monkey to

a)

feel no pain.

b)

make a kicking motion.

c)

demonstrate behaviors of intense anxiety.

d)

respond as if it were hearing other monkeys’ screeches.

25.

Choose the best answer. After her stroke, Mei was able to hear, smell, and taste normally. However, she had difficulty with her vision. She most likely experienced damage to her

a)

prefrontal cortex.

b)

limbic system.

c)

occipital lobe.

d)

thalamus

26.

Choose the best answer. Kobe, a native English speaker, has moved to Germany and is learning to speak German. Which brain region is likely to show the greatest plasticity?

a)

Limbic system

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Prefrontal cortex

d)

Parietal lobe

27.

Choose the best answer. A technique that tracks blood flow to measure brain activity is

a)

positron emission tomography (PET).

b)

the electroencephalogram (EEG).

c)

computed tomography (CT).

d)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

28.

Computed tomography (CT) scans

a)

provide less detailed brain images than transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).

b)

show brain structures but not areas of brain activity.

c)

require the injection of radioactive markers.

d)

measure the response of brain tissue to magnetic fields.

29.

A researcher plans to study changes in patients’ brain activity as Alzheimer’s disease progresses by detecting changes in blood flow and oxygen content. The appropriate brain imaging technique to use is

a)

functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).

b)

computed tomography (CT).

c)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

d)

electroencephalography (EEG).

30.

A doctor needs a brain imaging technique that shows brain structure but not brain function. Which technique should the doctor choose?

a)

Electroencephalography (EEG)

b)

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

c)

Positron emission tomography (PET)

d)

Computed tomography (CT)

31.

Genes regulate protein synthesis by

a)

coding for the arrangement of ribosomes on DNA molecules.

b)

specifying which amino acids will be joined together, and in what order.

c)

regulating the influx of ions like sodium and potassium, which code for proteins.

d)

setting the cell’s biological clock and controlling how and when a cell divides.

32.

The fusion of your father’s sperm and your mother’s egg is referred to as

a)

gene expression.

b)

spermatization.

c)

fertilization.

d)

epigenetics.

33.

How do gene mutations contribute to evolution?

a)

Beneficial mutations are passed on to several members of a generation, quickly taking hold in a population.

b)

Unfavorable mutations have a more significant effect on genes than do favorable mutations, so they are spread through the population.

c)

Natural selection favors beneficial mutations, so they survive and are passed on to future generations.

d)

Beneficial and unfavorable mutations take hold in the population equally over numerous generations.

34.

The process by which a cell directs a gene to make a certain protein is called

a)

gene expression.

b)

DNA extraction.

c)

chromosome assembly.

d)

genetic modification.

35.

Epigenetics is most concerned with

a)

changes in a person’s genotype resulting from environmental influences.

b)

the expression of a particular gene as influenced by external inputs.

c)

environmental influences on gene expression over experiential influences.

d)

the heritability of genotypes that have been altered over multiple generations.

36.

In the experiment with dull and bright rats, Cooper and Zubek demonstrated a gene—environment interaction by showing that when navigating the maze

a)

dull rats raised in all environments always made more errors.

b)

bright rats raised in enriched environments sometimes made more errors.

c)

dull rats raised in enriched environments eventually performed as well as bright rats.

d)

dull rats raised in impoverished environments performed poorly.

37.

Why are dominant, yet harmful, alleles like the huntingtin gene so rare in our genomes?

a)

Only a few harmful alleles affect the nervous system.

b)

The carrier does not survive long enough to pass on the allele.

c)

The alleles for disorders are not active until adulthood.

d)

The allele can be transmitted only to another dominant carrier.

38.

Before the mechanisms behind PKU were known to science, infants that inherited the genes for the disorder almost always

a)

maintained a low body weight.

b)

developed mental impairments.

c)

grew to pass on the genes to offspring.

d)

died before the age of ten.

39.

The effects of PKU are epigenetic because

a)

having two genes for PKU doubles the chances that phenylalanine will impact a child’s brain development.

b)

a child inherits two genes for PKU only when environmental conditions are favorable.

c)

phenylalanine causes mental deficits even if a child inherits just one gene for PKU.

d)

PKU is harmful only if a child ingests significant amounts of phenylalanine.

40.

Which single gene effect do men display more often than women?

a)

The inability to distinguish red from green

b)

The inability to distinguish different pitches

c)

A gradual decline in the ability to focus on distant objects

d)

A gradual decline in the ability to hear

41.

One reason dysfunctional alleles can have such specific effects on the workings of our sensory systems is that

a)

only one allele has a significant effect on each system.

b)

the toxicity of dysfunctional alleles degrades the action of the entire brain.

c)

our sensory systems rely on the functioning of more than one protein.

d)

only a single allele needs to be dysfunctional to result in a deficit.

42.

Which statement best describes a valid gene—environment interaction on behavior?

a)

Identical twins adopted by different families often display behaviors typical of their adoptive families.

b)

In rats, littermates reared by mothers of different strains display the same exploratory behavior as their biological siblings.

c)

Two people with the same phenotype may not share the same genotype.

d)

Shrews raised in a lab without their mother fail to nurture their young.

43.

Which confounding variable is teased out when psychologists study the traits of identical twins?

a)

Similar environments shared by relatives

b)

Shared zygotes of monozygotic twins

c)

The influence of dysfunctional alleles

d)

The genetic influence of the huntingtin gene

44.

Dizygotic twins

a)

have identical DNA.

b)

appear to be identical.

c)

rarely resemble each other.

d)

grow from separate zygotes.

45.

Twins who do not share 100 percent of their genes are called

a)

dizygotic.

b)

monozygotic.

c)

identical.

d)

discordant.

46.

Twins who share a certain physical or behavioral trait are ______ for that trait.

a)

discordant

b)

monozygotic

c)

dizygotic

d)

concordant

47.

Heritability estimates tell us

a)

the degree to which variations in a population can be attributed to genetics.

b)

the rate at which people in a given population develop a particular disorder.

c)

the percentage of people who can pass on a specific gene to a child.

d)

the chance that any one person will carry a particular gene.

48.

What is the key difference between twin studies and adoption studies?

a)

Twin studies involve identical twins, while adoption studies involve fraternal twins.

b)

In twin studies, the effects of the environment are not taken into consideration.

c)

In adoption studies, twins are separated at birth, adopted, and raised apart.

d)

Adoption studies involve non-twin biological siblings raised by different families.

49.

Twin studies of the heritability of schizophrenia generally show that

a)

there is a 50 percent difference in the genomes between those with schizophrenia and those without it.

b)

90 percent of twins who inherit genes for schizophrenia will develop symptoms.

c)

monozygotic twins tend not to inherit genes for schizophrenia.

d)

the heritability of schizophrenia is about 50 percent.

50.

Schizophrenia most often presents itself at what stage?

a)

Early childhood, when parental influences are most significant

b)

Late childhood, when genetics and family environment have the greatest impact

c)

Early adulthood, when people begin to face the world on their own

d)

Late adulthood, when brain and body cells are more susceptible to breaking down

51.

In cases where only one of two identical twins develops schizophrenia, all of the following factors may be responsible except

a)

birth weight

b)

birth order

c)

nutrition

d)

nurturing

52.

Which situation is most consistent with the results of twin studies of schizophrenia?

a)

When both twins carry the gene for schizophrenia, only one will develop symptoms.

b)

Schizophrenia is more likely to materialize in a twin who experiences extreme stress.

c)

Twins who inherit the gene for schizophrenia very rarely present symptoms of the disorder.

d)

Having a father with schizophrenia greatly increases the chance that male twins will develop the disorder.

53.

What do studies of maternal nurturing behavior in rats suggest about humans?

a)

Maternal nurturing causes children to release corticosterone, which reduces levels of stress and leads to more nurturing.

b)

People who are adequately nurtured early in life tend to be less nurturing when they have children of their own.

c)

Children with nurturing mothers develop fewer natural defenses to stress and are more likely to become suicidal.

d)

Maternal neglect early in life may have lasting impacts on a person’s ability to cope with life’s challenges.

54.

Neural development begins with rapid division of nerve cells in a process called

a)

synaptogenesis

b)

cell migration

c)

differentiation

d)

neurogenesis

55.

During neural development, the nervous system generates more cells than it ultimately needs. Over half of the extra cells

a)

die though a natural process before birth.

b)

are stored in the cortex to replace damaged neurons later.

c)

are integrated into the circulatory system.

d)

develop into cell masses that house the neurotransmitters.

56.

In the final stages of synaptogenesis, neurons

a)

differentiate into cerebral cells.

b)

grow dendrites and axons.

c)

undergo synapse rearrangement.

d)

die as a result of natural aging.

57.

Any substance that can potentially harm the fetus during birth is called a

a)

teratogen.

b)

pollutant.

c)

plasticity factor.

d)

cell death agent.

58.

Vision researchers have shown that a person will fail to develop visual perception abilities if light does not stimulate the eye early in development. This is evidence of ______ during development.

a)

synaptic pruning

b)

plasticity

c)

sensitive periods

d)

cell migration

59.

Which statement regarding brain development is true?

a)

Adult brains are better able to recover from injury than children’s brains.

b)

Young children’s brains do not experience synapse rearrangement.

c)

The final stage of plasticity occurs during the adolescent years.

d)

Children’s brains are much more plastic than adults’ brains.

60.

Two reflexes that help an infant receive nourishment are the ______ reflex, or the turning of the head in response to a brush of the cheek, and the ______ reflex, primarily for intake of breast milk.

a)

grasping; sucking

b)

rooting; grasping

c)

sucking; rooting

d)

rooting; sucking

61.

Which of the following demonstrates the concept of habituation?

a)

A toddler repeats an activity in the same way multiple times.

b)

An infant shows a preference for viewing a single object over multiple objects.

c)

A baby stares into her mother’s eyes while breast feeding.

d)

A baby glances at a familiar stuffed animal, then stares at a new one.

62.

Piaget’s theory of development has been referred to as ______ because in his view, children adapt to the world by actively building and organizing their experiences.

a)

constructivism

b)

postconventional

c)

egocentrism

d)

psychosocial

63.

When a child learns new information about the world that fits with her schema, it is called ______. When a child learns new information that requires her to change her schema, it is called ______.

a)

assimilation; accommodation

b)

association; assimilation

c)

accommodation; assimilation

d)

accommodation; association

64.

Lila is 18 months old and is no longer surprised when her mother hides her ball, only to reveal it again in a different position in front of her. What cognitive milestone is Lila displaying?

a)

Concrete operations

b)

Object recognition

c)

Conservation

d)

Object permanence

65.

Preoperational children are often described as ______ because they do not understand that different people can have different points of view.

a)

logical

b)

egocentric

c)

constructivist

d)

preconventional

66.

The procedure by which researchers test whether a child has developed a theory of mind is called the

a)

strange situation task.

b)

conservation test.

c)

preferential looking task.

d)

Sally and Anne test.

67.

At about eight months of age, as a part of normal attachment development, infants begin to show

a)

rooting reflexes.

b)

avoidant attachment.

c)

stranger anxiety.

d)

ambivalent attachment.

68.

Gerard’s mother has noticed that he becomes very upset when she leaves for work in the morning. When she gets home, he is resistant to her attempts to bond with him. Gerard is displaying

a)

disorganized attachment.

b)

ambivalent attachment.

c)

secure attachment.

d)

avoidant attachment.

69.

All of the following are female secondary sex characteristics except

a)

wide hips.

b)

breast development.

c)

soft skin.

d)

ovaries.

70.

Which developmental milestone characterizes menarche?

a)

The onset of menstruation

b)

An enhanced sex drive

c)

The first signs of puberty

d)

Thinning hair

71.

Thinning of the top layer of the cortex in adolescence is a good indicator of the neurodevelopmental process called

a)

synapse rearrangement.

b)

demyelination.

c)

differentiation.

d)

cell death.

72.

Kohlberg constructed his theory of moral reasoning by asking people to decide how a fictional character, Heinz, should respond to a moral dilemma. Kohlberg was most interested in the

a)

number of times people changed their minds while deciding.

b)

reasoning by which people reached their decisions.

c)

degree of empathy in the decision-making process.

d)

degree of justice in the decision-making process.

73.

A child finds a five-dollar bill beside her teacher’s desk. Which scenario describes the application of preconventional moral reasoning?

a)

The child wants her teacher to like her, so she gives him the money.

b)

The child knows that stealing is wrong, so she leaves the money where she found it.

c)

The child is afraid she’ll get in trouble if she takes the money, so she gives it to her teacher.

d)

The child knows it is wrong to keep the money, but she slips it into her pocket, anyway.

74.

Which theory outlines a series of stages that occur throughout the lifespan and involve tension between conflicting ways of interacting with others?

a)

Freud’s psychosexual theory

b)

Erikson’s psychosocial theory

c)

Piaget’s constructivist theory

d)

Bowlby’s attachment theory

75.

According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which question best corresponds with an adolescent’s search for identity?

a)

What activities am I good at, compared to other people?

b)

Which adults can I trust, and which are not trustworthy?

76.

Which statement is consistent with research on cognitive processing and aging?

a)

Older people typically respond faster than younger people in memory experiments.

b)

Fluid intelligence develops and improves from adolescence through old age.

c)

Memory decline in older people is the result of an enlargement of the hippocampus.

d)

Crystallized intelligence continues to grow throughout the aging process.

77.

A 70-year-old woman who is given a touch-screen tablet becomes hopelessly frustrated when she tries to use it. Which of the following best explains her lack of success?

a)

A decline in crystallized intelligence makes it difficult for her to apply previous knowledge to a new situation.

b)

A decline in fluid intelligence keeps her from reasoning abstractly when confronted with an unfamiliar object.

c)

The similarity between her laptop computer and the tablet causes confusion between crystallized and fluid intelligence.

d)

The unfamiliarity of the tablet’s technology causes a breakdown of her crystallized intelligence.

78.

Alzheimer’s disease is dementia that is caused by

a)

normal slowing of cognition due to rapid aging of the frontal cortex.

b)

random cell death primarily in the temporal lobe.

c)

the build-up of amyloid in and outside of acetylcholine neurons.

d)

diets high in fat, which cause the slow disintegration of brain cell

79.

This term refers to a tendency to believe information, even if it is false, after repeated exposure.

a)

Cognitive dissonance

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Illusory truth effect

d)

Availability heuristic

80.

Which of the following mental illnesses actually appears in the DSM-5?

a)

Multiple personality disorder

b)

Dissociative identity disorder

c)

Split personality syndrome

d)

Manic-depressive psychosis

81.

Memory used to remember events of one’s own life is best classified as:

a)

Semantic memory

b)

Procedural memory

c)

Episodic memory

d)

Working memory

82.

Hobbes popularized the idea that certain people are “more evolved” or “more civilized” than others. Those who are not considered “civilized” are said to live in:

a)

An artificial state

b)

A de-evolved state

c)

A state of nature

d)

Barbarism