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Introduction- Investigational New Drug (IND) Application

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of the Investigational New Drug (IND) application?

a)

To allow human clinical trials of a new drug or biologic

b)

To manufacture drugs for commercial sale

c)

To approve drugs for market

d)

To conduct animal studies only

2.

The IND application serves as the bridge from ______ studies to clinical development.

a)

preclinical

b)

post-marketing

c)

epidemiological

d)

toxicological

3.

Which of the following is a purpose of the IND?

a)

Protect the safety and rights of human subjects

b)

Approve drugs for sale

c)

Manufacture drugs

d)

Conduct animal studies only

4.

The IND provides FDA with data to assess whether the investigational product can be safely tested in humans.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Which of the following is NOT included in the IND application?

a)

Nonclinical pharmacology/toxicology data

b)

Chemistry, Manufacturing & Controls (CMC) information

c)

Marketing strategies

d)

Clinical study protocols and safety monitoring plans

6.

Sponsor may begin clinical trials after FDA’s 30-day safety review unless a clinical hold is issued.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

According to the IND Application requirements, the drug must be reasonably safe for initial human exposure. Fill in the blank: The drug is __________ for initial human exposure.

a)

reasonably safe

b)

highly toxic

c)

completely ineffective

d)

unpredictable

8.

According to the IND Application requirements, there must be adequate __________ information to ensure quality.

a)

manufacturing

b)

clinical

c)

marketing

d)

financial

9.

According to the IND Application requirements, the clinical study design must be scientifically sound and __________ acceptable.

a)

ethically

b)

financially

c)

legally

d)

commercially

10.

Fill in the blank: The ___ provides a summary of submission, purpose (new IND or amendment), contact information, and a brief description of the investigational product and development stage.

a)

Cover Letter

b)

Investigator's Brochure

c)

Protocol

d)

Informed Consent Form

11.

Fill in the blank: identifies the sponsor, product, indication, and commitment to follow regulations.

a)

Form FDA 1571

b)

Form FDA 3500A

c)

Form FDA 482

d)

Form FDA 3454

12.

Fill in the blank: documents investigator qualifications and responsibilities.

a)

Form FDA 1572

b)

Form FDA 3500A

c)

Form FDA 482

d)

Form FDA 1932

13.

Fill in the blank: The __________ contains a summary of preclinical data, product safety, mechanism, manufacturing info, and clinical protocol synopsis, and is updated throughout development.

a)

Investigator’s Brochure (IB)

b)

Case Report Form (CRF)

c)

Informed Consent Form (ICF)

d)

Clinical Study Report (CSR)

14.

What is the rationale for development?

a)

Rationale for development.

b)

Economic growth and poverty reduction.

c)

Technological advancement only.

d)

Political stability.

15.

What is the drug class, structure, and proposed mechanism of action?

a)

Drug class, structure, proposed mechanism of action.

b)

Drug dosage, side effects, contraindications.

c)

Drug absorption, metabolism, excretion.

d)

Drug interactions, patient history, allergies.

16.

What are the planned indications and therapeutic intent?

a)

Planned indications and therapeutic intent.

b)

Planned dosage and administration route.

c)

Expected side effects and contraindications.

d)

Patient eligibility and exclusion criteria.

17.

Provide an overview of planned clinical development for the first year.

a)

Overview of planned clinical development for the first year.

b)

Detailed financial projections for the first year.

c)

Summary of marketing strategies for the first year.

d)

List of key personnel for the first year.

18.

Summarize previous human experience, if any.

a)

Summary of previous human experience, if any.

b)

List of future predictions.

c)

Analysis of animal behavior.

d)

Description of technological advancements.

19.

What does the CMC section ensure in drug development?

a)

The CMC section ensures the product can be consistently manufactured with acceptable quality.

b)

The CMC section ensures the drug is approved by regulatory authorities.

c)

The CMC section ensures the drug is safe for human consumption.

d)

The CMC section ensures the drug is marketed effectively.

20.

Which of the following is included in the 3.1 Drug Substance (Active Ingredient) section?

a)

Formulation description

b)

Name, structure, physical/chemical properties

c)

Container/closure system

d)

Stability studies

21.

List one method described in the CMC section for producing a drug substance.

a)

Method of synthesis or biological production process.

b)

Packaging and labeling process.

c)

Marketing authorization procedure.

d)

Clinical trial design.

22.

What is the purpose of stability profile in the CMC section?

a)

To describe the stability of the drug substance.

b)

To outline the manufacturing process steps.

c)

To provide details on packaging materials.

d)

To summarize clinical trial results.

23.

What does the 3.2 Drug Product (Final Formulation) section describe?

a)

Formulation description (e.g., tablet, injection).

b)

Manufacturing equipment specifications.

c)

Clinical trial results.

d)

Packaging design details.

24.

Which of the following is NOT part of the Drug Product (Final Formulation) section?

a)

A) Composition and excipients

b)

B) Specifications and analytical methods

c)

C) Container/closure system

d)

D) Stability studies to support the clinical shelf-life

25.

What is the role of manufacturing process controls in the CMC section?

a)

To ensure in-process testing and product quality.

b)

To increase the cost of production.

c)

To delay product release timelines.

d)

To reduce the need for regulatory oversight.

26.

What does the 3.3 Microbiological Information section include?

a)

Sterility, endotoxins, viral safety, adventitious agent testing.

b)

Product labeling, packaging requirements, and shipping instructions.

c)

Clinical trial results, patient demographics, and efficacy data.

d)

Manufacturing equipment specifications and maintenance schedules.

27.

Is environmental analysis usually required for early INDs?

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is the purpose of stability studies in the Drug Product section?

a)

To support the clinical shelf-life.

b)

To determine the drug's color.

c)

To assess the packaging design.

d)

To evaluate marketing strategies.

29.

What does nonclinical (preclinical) information demonstrate in the context of human trials?

a)

A reasonable expectation of safety for human trials.

b)

It guarantees the drug will be effective in humans.

c)

It proves the drug is safe for all populations.

d)

It eliminates the need for further testing.

30.

Which type of studies is nonclinical (preclinical) information usually derived from?

a)

Good Laboratory Practice (GLP)-compliant studies.

b)

Randomized controlled trials.

c)

Case-control studies.

d)

Meta-analyses.

31.

What is the focus of primary pharmacodynamics in pharmacology?

a)

Mechanism of action and efficacy models.

b)

Drug absorption and distribution.

c)

Drug metabolism and excretion.

d)

Clinical trial design and statistics.

32.

Safety pharmacology panels typically include which systems?

a)

Cardiovascular, respiratory, CNS panels.

b)

Digestive, endocrine, reproductive panels.

c)

Musculoskeletal, integumentary, lymphatic panels.

d)

Urinary, immune, sensory panels.

33.

Single-dose toxicity studies are conducted on which types of animals?

a)

Rodent and/or non-rodent.

b)

Only primates.

c)

Only birds.

d)

Only amphibians.

34.

Repeat-dose toxicity studies are aligned with which plan?

a)

Clinical plan.

b)

Marketing plan.

c)

Financial plan.

d)

Production plan.

35.

Which test is usually used for genotoxicity in early phase studies?

a)

Ames test and in vitro micronucleus.

b)

ELISA test and Western blot.

c)

PCR and gel electrophoresis.

d)

Blood glucose test and urinalysis.

36.

Carcinogenicity studies are rarely required before which phase for chronic conditions?

a)

Phase 3.

b)

Phase 1.

c)

Phase 2.

d)

Phase 4.

37.

What does ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics studies?

a)

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

b)

Activation, Degradation, Modification, Elimination.

c)

Assimilation, Diffusion, Mutation, Expulsion.

d)

Aggregation, Dispersion, Migration, Extraction.

38.

What is the purpose of the safety assessment summary in nonclinical information?

a)

Justification of starting human dose and identification of potential risks and mitigation strategies.

b)

Documentation of clinical trial results and patient feedback.

c)

Summary of manufacturing processes and quality control measures.

d)

Overview of marketing strategies and sales projections.

39.

What is included in section 5.1 Clinical Protocol(s) of clinical information documentation?

a)

A full protocol for each proposed clinical study, including study objectives, study design, inclusion/exclusion criteria, dosing regimen and escalation rules, safety monitoring plan and stopping rules, and statistical analysis plan.

b)

Only the summary of previous clinical studies without any details.

c)

A list of investigators involved in the clinical studies, without protocol details.

d)

Financial budget and resource allocation for the clinical studies.

40.

What should be described under study objectives in a clinical protocol?

a)

Primary and secondary objectives.

b)

Study budget and funding sources.

c)

Patient recruitment strategies.

d)

Data analysis software used.

41.

What are examples of study design mentioned in clinical information documentation?

a)

Randomized, open-label, dose-escalation.

b)

Double-blind, placebo-controlled, retrospective.

c)

Cross-sectional, case-control, meta-analysis.

d)

Longitudinal, observational, survey-based.

42.

What criteria must be included in a clinical protocol according to section 5.1?

a)

Inclusion/exclusion criteria.

b)

Financial budget details.

c)

Marketing strategy.

d)

Patient insurance information.

43.

What should be specified regarding dosing in a clinical protocol?

a)

Dosing regimen and escalation rules.

b)

Patient age and gender only.

c)

Study location and investigator name.

d)

Type of placebo used.

44.

What safety-related plans must be included in a clinical protocol?

a)

Safety monitoring plan and stopping rules.

b)

Patient recruitment plan and advertising strategy.

c)

Budget allocation and resource management plan.

d)

Data analysis plan and publication strategy.

45.

What type of analysis plan is required in clinical information documentation?

a)

Statistical analysis plan.

b)

Financial analysis plan.

c)

Marketing analysis plan.

d)

Operational analysis plan.

46.

What documents are required under section 5.2 Investigator Information?

a)

CVs or qualification documents.

b)

Financial statements.

c)

Site maps.

d)

Patient consent forms.

47.

What training documentation is required for investigators in clinical studies?

a)

Good Clinical Practice (GCP) training documentation.

b)

Laboratory Safety Manual documentation.

c)

Patient Consent Form documentation.

d)

Financial Disclosure documentation.

48.

What information is required under section 5.3?

a)

Institutional Review Board (IRB) Information.

b)

Financial Disclosure Information.

c)

Study Drug Storage Information.

d)

Participant Compensation Details.

49.

What documents are required under section 5.4?

a)

Informed Consent Documents.

b)

Financial Disclosure Forms.

c)

Site Visit Reports.

d)

Training Certificates.

50.

Fill in the blank: For Biologics (BLA-pathway), one of the additional information requirements is _________

a)

Cell bank characterization

b)

Pharmacokinetic profiling

c)

Tablet coating process

d)

Bioequivalence study

51.

Fill in the blank: For Biologics (BLA-pathway), another requirement is _________?

a)

Viral clearance studies

b)

Stability testing

c)

Pharmacokinetic profiling

d)

Bioequivalence studies

52.

Fill in the blank: For Biologics (BLA-pathway), _________ is required to assess the strength of the product.

a)

Potency assays

b)

Stability tests

c)

Colorimetric analysis

d)

pH measurement

53.

Fill in the blank: For Gene Therapies / Cell Therapies, _________ and replication-competent virus testing are required.

a)

Vector characterization

b)

Cell viability

c)

Antibody screening

d)

Protein quantification

54.

Fill in the blank: For Gene Therapies / Cell Therapies, _________ is required to ensure the suitability of the donor.

a)

Donor eligibility

b)

Donor compensation

c)

Donor anonymity

d)

Donor registration

55.

Fill in the blank: For Gene Therapies / Cell Therapies, _________ analysis is required, and FDA provides additional guidance specific to gene therapy INDs.

a)

Genome integration

b)

Protein folding

c)

Cell migration

d)

Metabolic rate

56.

Fill in the blank: For Combination Products, _________, engineering analysis, and biocompatibility are required.

a)

Device description

b)

Clinical trial data

c)

Manufacturing process

d)

Regulatory approval

57.

Fill in the blank: For Diagnostics / Companion Diagnostics, _________ report is required.

a)

Analytical validation

b)

Clinical trial

c)

Safety assessment

d)

Performance review

58.

Fill in the blank: For Diagnostics / Companion Diagnostics, _________ strategy with therapeutic product is required.

a)

Co-development

b)

Post-marketing

c)

Independent

d)

Sequential

59.

Which of the following is typically included in a proposed study dose justification?

a)

Human Equivalent Dose (HED) calculations

b)

Safety margins from NOAEL in animals

c)

PK/PD modeling where available

d)

Rationale for dose-escalation scheme

e)

All of the above

60.

Fill in the blank: In a proposed study dose justification, ________ calculations are typically included to estimate the appropriate dose for humans.

a)

Human Equivalent Dose (HED)

b)

Maximum Tolerated Dose (MTD)

c)

No Observed Adverse Effect Level (NOAEL)

d)

Lowest Observed Effect Level (LOEL)

61.

Fill in the blank: Safety margins from ________ in animals are considered in a proposed study dose justification.

a)

NOAEL

b)

LD50

c)

ED50

d)

TD50

62.

Fill in the blank: ________ modeling is included in a proposed study dose justification where available.

a)

PK/PD

b)

ABC

c)

XYZ

d)

LMN

63.

Fill in the blank: The rationale for ________ scheme is part of a proposed study dose justification.

a)

dose-escalation

b)

double-blind

c)

placebo-control

d)

randomization

64.

Fill in the blank: One type of supporting document mentioned in the appendices is _________

a)

Literature references

b)

Financial statements

c)

Meeting minutes

d)

Technical drawings

65.

Fill in the blank: The appendices include ________ compliance statements.

a)

GLP

b)

ISO

c)

FDA

d)

GMP

66.

Fill in the blank: Certificates of analysis are also known as _________.

a)

CoAs

b)

SOPs

c)

MSDS

d)

GMPs

67.

Fill in the blank: The appendices contain analytical validation _________.

a)

summaries

b)

reports

c)

guidelines

d)

procedures