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Radar and ARPA Controls Worksheet

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the “acquire” button on ARPA do?

a)

Adjust radar gain

b)

Manually track a target

c)

Change display brightness

d)

Activate guard zone

2.

Which control adjusts radar sensitivity?

a)

Gain

b)

Vector length

c)

Guard zone

d)

Trial maneuver

3.

What does the “vector length” setting affect?

a)

Radar range

b)

Target brightness

c)

Prediction time

d)

Display color

4.

What does the “vector length” setting affect?

a)

Guard zone

b)

Gain

c)

Echo trail

d)

Vector toggle

5.

What does the “trail” function show?

a)

CPA

b)

TCPA

c)

Target history

d)

Radar range

6.

Which button simulates course changes without executing them?

a)

Guard zone

b)

Trial maneuver

c)

Vector toggle

d)

Acquire

7.

What does the “cancel target” function do?

a)

Deletes radar history

b)

Removes a tracked target

c)

Turns off radar

d)

Resets display settings

8.

Which control helps identify moving targets?

a)

Gain

b)

Echo trail

c)

Guard zone

d)

Vector toggle

9.

What is parallel indexing used for?

a)

CPA calculation

b)

Collision avoidance

c)

Monitoring distance from hazards

d)

Radar calibration

10.

What does the wheel-over point indicate?

a)

Speed reduction

b)

Start of a turn

c)

Radar range change

d)

CPA breach

11.

11. The line used in parallel indexing is:

a)

Reference line

b)

Base line

c)

Datum line

d)

Contour line

12.

What is the main benefit of parallel indexing?

a)

Fuel efficiency

b)

Visual confirmation of track

c)

Radar range extension

d)

Target acquisition

13.

When is parallel indexing most useful?

a)

Open Sea

b)

Coastal navigation

c)

Radar calibration

d)

Target tracking

14.

What does a deviation from the index line suggest?

a)

Radar failure

b)

Course error

c)

CPA breach

d)

Guard zone violation

15.

Which factor affects ARPA accuracy?

a)

Time of day

b)

Sea state and weather

c)

Target nationality

d)

Radar color

16.

What is a limitation in target acquisition?

a)

Targets must be moving

b)

Only red targets can be tracked

c)

Low radar reflectivity

d)

Targets must be within 1 mile

17.

What causes target swapping?

a)

Radar overheating

b)

Close target crossing

c)

Operator error

d)

Low battery

18.

How are processing delays measured?

a)

Degrees

b)

Seconds

c)

Nautical miles

d)

Percentages

19.

What is a critical echo?

a)

Echo from land

b)

Echo from a collision threat

c)

Echo during testing

d)

Echo from radar interference

20.

What is an exclusion area?

a)

Traffic zone

b)

Radar blind spot

21.

What does CPA stand for?

a)

Collision Prevention Alert

b)

Closest Point of Approach

c)

Calculated Position Accuracy

d)

Central Processing Algorithm

22.

What does TCPA stand for?

a)

Time to Closest Point of Approach

b)

Target Course and Position Accuracy

c)

True Course Position Analysis

d)

Tracking Control Adjustment

23.

What is a danger area?

a)

Shallow water

b)

Radar blind spot

c)

CPA breach zone

d)

High traffic zone

24.

Which test ensures ARPA accuracy?

a)

Power test

b)

Brightness test

c)

Performance verification

d)

Antenna rotation test

25.

What does a guard zone violation indicate?

a)

Radar failure

b)

Unsafe proximity

c)

Target lost

d)

Display error

26.

What do true vectors show?

a)

Movement relative to own ship

b)

Movement over ground

c)

Target history

d)

CPA

27.

What do relative vectors show?

a)

Movement over ground

b)

Movement relative to own ship

c)

Target speed only

d)

Target direction only

28.

What does vector elongation indicate?

a)

Radar gain

b)

Longer prediction time

c)

CPA breach

d)

Guard zone radius

29.

What does graphic representation include?

a)

CPA alarms

b)

Echo trails and vectors

c)

Radar gain

d)

Guard zone radius

30.

What does a short vector suggest?

a)

High speed

b)

Low speed

c)

Radar failure

d)

CPA breach

31.

What does a vector pointing toward own ship suggest?

a)

Safe passage

b)

Potential collision

c)

Radar interference

d)

Guard zone violation

32.

What does a vector toggle do?

a)

Switches between true and relative vectors

b)

Switches from ground to stabilized

c)

Adjusts brightness

d)

Activates guard zone

33.

Which method allows automatic target acquisition?

a)

Manual plotting

b)

Guard zone detection

c)

Parallel indexing

d)

Trial maneuver

34.

What does the trial maneuver simulate?

a)

Emergency stop

b)

Radar failure

c)

Course change outcome

d)

CPA breach

35.

What does “target lost” warning mean?

a)

Target is out of range

b)

Radar failure

c)

CPA breach

d)

Guard zone violation

36.

What does “radar failure” warning indicate?

a)

CPA breach

b)

System malfunction

c)

Guard zone violation

d)

Target swap

37.

What does “vector prediction” depend on?

a)

Radar gain

b)

Target speed and course

c)

Guard zone radius

d)

Display brightness

38.

What is the purpose of echo trails?

a)

Show radar range

b)

Show target history

c)

Show CPA

d)

Show guard zone

39.

What does a blinking target symbol mean?

a)

CPA breach

b)

Target lost

c)

Guard zone violation

d)

Radar failure

40.

What is the purpose of system calibration?

a)

Adjust radar brightness

b)

Ensure tracking accuracy

c)

Set guard zone

d)

Toggle vectors

41.

Which ARPA control allows the operator to adjust the radar display between True Motion and Relative Motion?

a)

Range Control

b)

Motion Mode Selector

c)

Gain Control

d)

Heading Marker

42.

What does the "Acquire Target" control do in an ARPA system?

a)

It adjusts the brightness of the display.

b)

It initiates tracking of a selected target.

c)

It changes the scale of the radar screen.

d)

It resets the system

43.

Which control is used to adjust the radar's ability to reduce clutter from rain?

a)

Rain Clutter Control

b)

Gain Control

c)

Sea Clutter Control

d)

Pulse Length Control

44.

Which ARPA control allows the operator to exclude weak echoes from being displayed?

a)

Anti-Clutter Control

b)

Gain Control

c)

FTC (Fast Time Constant) Control

d)

Pulse Length Control

45.

What is the function of the "History" control on an ARPA system?

a)

It provides a visual trail of past positions of a tracked target.

b)

It stores radar data for future reference.

c)

It resets the ARPA system to factory settings.

d)

It adjusts the radar range.

46.

Which control is used to set a safety limit around the ship, triggering an alarm if a tracked target breaches this boundary?

a)

CPA/TCPA Alarm Control

b)

Range Control

c)

Anti-Sea Clutter Control

d)

VRM (Variable Range Marker) Control

47.

What does the "Lost Target" alarm indicate?

a)

The radar display has failed.

b)

A previously tracked target is no longer detected.

c)

A target is approaching dangerously close.

d)

The radar's range has changed.

48.

Which ARPA control allows the operator to adjust the radar range to view targets at different distances?

a)

Range Control

b)

Bearing Control

c)

Guard Zone Control

d)

Gain Control

49.

What is the purpose of the "Vector Time" control in ARPA?

a)

It changes the direction of the radar antenna.

b)

It adjusts the length of the prediction vectors for tracked targets.

c)

It controls the brightness of the display.

d)

It zooms in on a specific area of the radar screen.

50.

Which control is responsible for the automatic acquisition of targets?

a)

Manual Acquisition Control

b)

Automatic Target Tracking (ATT) Control

c)

Vector Time Control

d)

Sea Clutter Control

51.

What does the "Off-Center" control do in an ARPA system?

a)

It moves the radar display to show more of the area ahead of the vessel.

b)

It turns off the radar display.

c)

It adjusts the radar to focus on a target.

d)

It centers the radar display on the ship.

52.

Which ARPA control allows the operator to adjust the sensitivity of the radar to sea clutter?

a)

Sea Clutter Control

b)

Rain Clutter Control

c)

Gain Control

d)

Heading Control

53.

What is the function of the "Guard Zone" control on an ARPA system?

a)

It sets a circular zone around the ship where alarms are triggered if a target enters.

b)

It adjusts the brightness of the display.

c)

It turns the radar on and off.

d)

It enhances weak signals.

54.

Which ARPA control allows you to change the reference point for measurements?

a)

Bearing Control

b)

Range Control

c)

Electronic Bearing Line (EBL) Control

d)

Gain Control

55.

Which control is used to suppress unwanted noise or interference on the radar display?

a)

Gain Control

b)

Interference Rejection Control

c)

Pulse Length Control

d)

Anti-Clutter Control

56.

What are the two main types of ARPA displays?

a)

True Motion and Relative Motion

b)

Head-Up and North-Up

c)

Stabilized and Unstabilized

d)

Manual and Automatic

57.

Which type of ARPA display keeps the vessel stationary in the center while other targets move around it?

a)

True Motion

b)

Relative Motion

c)

North-Up

d)

Head-Up

58.

Which of the following is a characteristic of ARPA systems?

a)

It continuously updates the positions of tracked targets.

b)

It automatically predicts weather conditions.

c)

It displays only the closest target for safety.

d)

It eliminates the need for visual observations.

59.

What is a major limitation of ARPA systems?

a)

They provide real-time data without delay.

b)

They cannot detect targets beyond 5 miles.

c)

They can be affected by sea clutter and rain.

d)

They require constant manual input.

60.

ARPA can struggle with detecting which of the following targets?

a)

Large ships

b)

Fast-moving small vessels

c)

Stationary objects

d)

Aircraft

61.

According to IMO Performance Standards, how many targets should an ARPA system be able to track simultaneously?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

50

62.

What is the required time frame for an ARPA system to process and display accurate target data?

a)

30 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minutes

d)

5 minutes

63.

Which organization sets the performance standards for ARPA systems?

a)

International Maritime Organization (IMO)

b)

International Maritime Pilots' Association (IMPA)

c)

International Association of Marine Aids to Navigation and Lighthouse Authorities (IALA)

d)

International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)

64.

Why is it dangerous to over rely on ARPA systems?

a)

The time the target will disappear from radar.

b)

The distance at which the target will cross the own ship's path.

c)

The bearing of the target from the own ship.

d)

The speed of the target vessel.

65.

What is a potential risk associated with over reliance on ARPA?

a)

Increased situational awareness

b)

Enhanced manual plotting skills

c)

Complacency and reduced vigilance

d)

Better decision-making

66.

Which of the following is a correct practice to mitigate the risks of over reliance on ARPA?

a)

Use ARPA as the only source of navigational information.

b)

Regularly cross-check ARPA data with visual observations and other instruments.

c)

Ignore manual plotting techniques.

d)

Trust ARPA data blindly in all situations.

67.

ARPA is most effective when used in combination with:

a)

Weather forecasting tools only

b)

Manual plotting, visual observations, and other navigational aids

c)

Autopilot

d)

Sonar systems only

68.

What can cause an ARPA system to give inaccurate target information?

a)

Proper calibration

b)

Heavy Sea and rain clutter

c)

Clear weather conditions

d)

Regular maintenance

69.

What should be regularly performed to ensure ARPA system accuracy and reliability?

a)

Ignoring the system during clear weather

b)

Frequent system calibration and maintenance checks

c)

Disabling the ARPA system periodically

d)

Relying solely on ARPA for navigation

70.

Which of the following is a safety measure to prevent over reliance on ARPA systems?

a)

Turning off ARPA during calm seas

b)

Cross-checking ARPA data with other navigational aids

c)

Using ARPA for all collision avoidance decisions

d)

Disabling manual plotting techniques