WorksheetsCMA Fall Semester Final Exam 2025
Total questions: 85
Worksheet time: 43mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following determines the scope of medical assistants?
a)
Individual companies
b)
Physician the MA works under
c)
Credentialing organizations
d)
State medical boards
2.
________________ assist patients in improving mobility, strength, and range of motion.
a)
Occupational therapists
b)
Physical therapists
c)
Radiology technicians
d)
Medical assistants
3.
The MA works under the supervision of a provider and performs tasks allowed by state and provider approval.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
How many hours of continuing education must a CCMA complete every two years to keep their certification valid with NHA?
a)
10
b)
15
c)
24
d)
12
5.
Which of the following patients are receiving inpatient care?
a)
A patient completes diagnostic testing at a hospital and returns home following the test.
b)
A patient visits their primary care provider for a physical exam.
c)
A patient goes to a hospice facility for end-of-life care.
d)
A patient receives physical therapy in their home following hospitalization.
6.
What is the most appropriate first step when dealing with an angry patient?
a)
Interrupt the patient to explain your perspective
b)
Remain calm and actively listen to their concerns
c)
Tell the patient you don't have time to address the issue
d)
Refer the patient to another staff member immediately
7.
Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
a)
A written note
b)
A telephone conversation
c)
A facial expression
d)
A text message
8.
How should a medical assistant handle a patient who does not speak the same language?
a)
Use a family member as a translator
b)
Speak louder and slower for better understanding
c)
utilize a professional interpreter or translation service
d)
ignore the language barrier and proceed
9.
What is the goal of active listening?
a)
To ensure the speaker feels heard and understood
b)
To identify flaws in the speaker's statement
c)
To summarize the conversation in writing
d)
to multitask while listening to the speaker
10.
When documenting a patient's concerns, what should you avoid?
a)
Using the patient's exact words when possible
b)
Including personal opinions or assumptions
c)
Recording the date and time of the interaction
d)
Clarifying points with the patient before documenting
11.
How should a medical assistant address a patient with a hearing impairment?
a)
Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear
b)
Use written communication or visual aids as needed
c)
Ignore the impairment and proceed normally
d)
Ask the patient to bring someone to interpret for them
12.
When communicating with pediatric patients, what is an effective strategy?
a)
Use complex medical terminology to build trust
b)
Speak directly to the parent only
c)
Use simple language and include the child in the conversation
d)
Avoid explaining procedures to reduce fear
13.
Which of the following is an example of good telephone etiquette?
a)
Answering with "hold, please" immediately
b)
Using a loud tone to assert authority
c)
Identifying yourself and the facility upon answering
d)
Ending the call without summarizing the conversation
14.
How should a medical assistant respond if a patient asks a question beyond their scope of practice?
a)
Provide the most logical answer based on personal knowledge
b)
Admit they don't know and avoid further discussion
c)
Direct the patient to speak with the provider
d)
Give an approximate answer to reassure the patient
15.
What is the best way to address cultural differences in communication?
a)
Ignore the cultural differences to maintain neutrality
b)
Educate patients on standard medical practices only
c)
Be respectful, ask questions, and adapt communication as needed
d)
Use medical jargon to demonstrate authority
16.
Which of the following is an example of a civil law violation in healthcare?
a)
Assaulting a patient
b)
Breach of contract
c)
Falsifying medical records
d)
Administering medication without a license
17.
What does the term "informed consent" mean?
a)
A patient's verbal agreement to a procedure
b)
The patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure
c)
A healthcare provider's authority to act in the patient's best interest
d)
A signature obtained before treatment begins
18.
HIPAA regulations primarily protect which of the following?
a)
Employment records
b)
Criminal Records
c)
Health insurance payment structures
d)
Patient confidentiality and health information
19.
What is the legal term for failing to provide standard care that results in harm to a patient?
a)
Negligence
b)
Malpractice
c)
Assault
d)
Defamation
20.
Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in healthcare?
a)
Keeping a patient's information private
b)
Reporting a provider for unprofessional behavior
c)
Ensuring no harm is caused during a procedure
d)
Acting in the best interest of the patient
21.
What is the primary purpose of the Patient's Bill of Rights?
a)
To ensure equal pay for healthcare professionals
b)
To protect healthcare facilities from lawsuits
c)
To outline patients' rights regarding their care and treatment
d)
To limit the services patients can request
22.
The Good Samaritan Law is designed to protect:
a)
Patients who file lawsuits
b)
Healthcare workers providing emergency care off duty
c)
Patients who refuse treatment
d)
Provider working in disaster zones
23.
When can a minor give consent for medical treatment without parental approval?
a)
When they are a patient in an urgent care setting
b)
When they are married or emancipated
c)
For any medical procedure under $100
d)
When they verbally express understanding
24.
What is an example of a mandatory reportable event?
a)
Reporting a patient's refusal of treatment
b)
Reporting suspected child or elder abuse
c)
Reporting a patient's missed appointment
d)
Reporting a patient's dissatisfaction with care
25.
What does the term “autonomy” refer to in medical ethics?
a)
Acting in the best interest of the patient
b)
The patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions
c)
Avoiding harm to the patient during treatment
d)
Keeping patient information confidential
26.
What is the primary purpose of an advance directive?
a)
To identify the next of kin in case of an emergency
b)
To outline the patient's medical treatment preferences in case they become incapacitated
c)
To allow a healthcare provider to decide on care
d)
To ensure a patient can refuse all forms of treatment
27.
Which of the following scenarios represents battery in a healthcare setting?
a)
A provider refusing to see a patient without insurance
b)
A healthcare worker threatening to restrain a patient
c)
Performing a procedure on a patient without their consent
d)
Reporting a patient's refusal of treatment
28.
Which of the following actions violates HIPAA regulations?
a)
Sharing a patient's health information with another provider for treatment
b)
Leaving a patient records on a desk where others can view them
c)
Asking a patient to sign a consent form before disclosing information
d)
Sending encrypted medical records to another facility
29.
This plan contracts with a medical center or group of providers to provide preventive and acute care for the insured person.
a)
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
b)
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
c)
Point-of-service (POS)
d)
TRICARE
30.
Which plane divides the body into upper and lower sections, not necessarily equally?
a)
Frontal plane
b)
Transverse plane
c)
Sagittal plane
d)
Coronal plane
31.
This cavity houses the lungs, heart, and major vessels:
a)
Spinal cavity
b)
Thoracic cavity
c)
Abdominal cavity
d)
Pelvic cavity
32.
Which of the classifications of bone describes the femur?
a)
Long
b)
Short
c)
Flat
d)
Irregular
33.
Which of the following conditions includes symptoms of excessive bleeding and frequent bruising?
a)
Hemophilia
b)
Myocardial Infarction
c)
Congestive heart failure
d)
Atherosclerosis
34.
________________________ is usually described and experienced by the patient and is not measurable.
a)
Subjective
b)
Objective
35.
A 25 year old male patient comes in and has a pulse of 95. This is considered a normal pulse.
a)
True
b)
False
36.
Convert 72 kg to lb
a)
158.4 lb
b)
32.7 lb
c)
144 lb
d)
36 lb
37.
What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
a)
26 to 40 breaths per minute
b)
20 to 30 breaths per minute
c)
12 to 20 breaths per minute
d)
18 to 24 breaths per minute
38.
Which of the following would not cause an increase in blood pressure?
a)
Pain
b)
Beta-blocker medication
c)
Smoking
d)
Anxiety
39.
The circumference of a child’s head should be measured at a well-child visit until which of the following ages?
a)
1 year
b)
18 months
c)
2 years
d)
3 years
40.
What is the most common packaging for medication that is administered parenterally?
a)
Premeasured syringes
b)
Vials
c)
Ampoules
d)
Cartridges
41.
The first line of treatment for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock is
a)
Benadryl
b)
Loratadine
c)
Epinephrine
d)
Claritin
42.
Liniment, lotion and paste are all examples of which type of medication?
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Rectal
d)
Topical
43.
When giving an ID injection, which way should the bevel be facing?
a)
Up
b)
Down
c)
Left
d)
right
44.
What route of medication has the quickest effect on a patient?
a)
ID
b)
IM
c)
PO
d)
IV
45.
At what degree should an ID injection be given?
a)
5-10 degrees
b)
45 degrees
c)
90 degrees
d)
5-15 degrees
46.
Which needle gauge number indicates the largest needle?
a)
18
b)
22
c)
24
d)
26
47.
Otic drops are a medication for which of the following?
a)
Eyes
b)
Ears
c)
Nose
d)
throat
48.
A laceration is a wound that is
a)
A smooth cut
b)
A skin scrape
c)
A penetration caused by a sharp, pointed instrument
d)
Edges torn in an irregular shape
49.
When removing staples, you always start with the
a)
Very first staple on either end
b)
First staple and then every other
c)
Second staple and then every other
d)
Middle staple and work towards the edge
50.
An example of DME is
a)
Gauze
b)
Band Aid
c)
CPAP machine
d)
Sanitary pad
51.
A compound fracture (aka open) means that the bone
a)
Is broken in two place
b)
Breaks through the skin
c)
Is broken at the joint
d)
Is not broken all the way through
52.
You encounter a patient at the grocery store who is experiencing syncope, how should you treat them?
a)
Begin chest compressions
b)
Begin rescue breathing
c)
Remove any wet clothing, cover them with a blanket and give them warm beverages
d)
Use aromatic spirits of ammonia capsules to wake the patient
53.
A patient had a biopsy of a lymph node under their arm. If the patient observes which of the following should they call the Dr. immediately?
a)
Temp of 98.9 F
b)
Pink, flat lesion
c)
Vomiting
d)
Discomfort at the site when arm is down
54.
An exam of the vagina and cervix using a type of endoscope is
a)
Colposcopy
b)
Colonoscopy
c)
Endoscopy
d)
Gynecoloscopy
55.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign and symptom of a heart attack?
a)
Chest pain
b)
Sweating
c)
Shortness of breath
d)
Difficulty speaking and coughing
56.
A clean technique that includes frequent hand hygiene, proper use of gloves, cleaning and sterilizing medical equipment, and sanitizing surfaces is called
a)
Sterilization
b)
Autoclaving
c)
Medical asepsis
d)
Disinfecting
57.
An environment conducive to pathogen survival is known as a
a)
Causative agent
b)
Susceptible host
c)
Reservoir
d)
Mode of transmission
58.
Normal flora are microorganisms that live on or within the body without causing disease.
a)
False
b)
True
59.
Which of the following pathogens does the common cold fall under?
a)
Fungi
b)
Bacteria
c)
Virus
d)
Parasite
60.
Which of the following must be included on the SDS?
a)
First aid measures
b)
Pt name
c)
Providers name
d)
Store the chemical was purchased
61.
The recommended temperature for the autoclave to ensure all equipment is sterilized is 200℉.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
Which of the following guidelines should not be followed when handling biohazard materials?
a)
Do not wear gloves
b)
Drop items into sharps containers and avoid pushing them in
c)
Keep containers upright and closed
d)
Discard of disposable sharps container when it has reached the fill line
63.
Lack of communication can be responsible for all of the following except
a)
Rehospitalization
b)
Poor quality of care
c)
Increased spending
d)
Increased patient satisfaction
64.
In PCMHs patient’s get to choose all of the following except
a)
Their diagnosis
b)
Their treatment
c)
How they will receive their treatment
d)
Education and counseling
65.
All of the following are examples of learning styles except
a)
auditory
b)
kinesthetic
c)
Visual
d)
Shut out
66.
Heart rhythm is the __________________ of a patient’s heartbeat and heart rate is the _________________.
a)
Pattern, speed
b)
Speed, pattern
c)
Strength, pattern
d)
Length, speed
67.
It is best practice to have patients arrive how many minutes before their scheduled appointment time?
a)
10 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
20 minutes
d)
30 minutes
68.
The medical assistant is responsible for all of the following tasks except?
a)
Diagnosing the patient
b)
Scheduling appointments
c)
Cancelling appointments
d)
Rescheduling appointments
69.
All of the following can be found in the clinical section of the medical record except?
a)
advance directives
b)
problem list
c)
labs
d)
continuity of care
70.
How many sections are there to a medical record?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
71.
Which additive is found in the Light Blue top tube and is essential for coagulation testing, such as a Prothrombin Time (PT) test?
a)
Heparin
b)
EDTA
c)
Sodium Citrate
d)
Clot Activator
72.
What is the first and most critical step a CCMA must take before beginning any phlebotomy procedure?
a)
Wash hands and put on gloves
b)
Identify the patient using at least two patient identifiers
c)
Apply the tourniquet and palpate the vein
d)
Select the appropriate equipment and check the expiration dates
73.
During a venipuncture, a patient begins to develop a large, rapidly growing hematoma (a bruise/swelling) at the puncture site. What is the CCMA's immediate action?
a)
Continue the draw quickly and apply pressure after the last tube is collected
b)
Remove the tourniquet and needle, then apply firm pressure
c)
Loosen the tourniquet slightly and observe the site for a few more seconds
d)
Change the angle of the needle slightly to reposition it in the vein
74.
Which needle gauge is considered standard for routine adult venipuncture using the evacuated tube (Vacutainer) system?
a)
25 gauge
b)
21 gauge
c)
16 gauge
d)
18 gauge
75.
A CCMA is preparing to collect a blood sample for a glucose test. Which tube stopper color contains the appropriate additive to prevent glycolysis?
a)
Green
b)
Lavender
c)
Gray
d)
Red
76.
Which bodily function does the liver primarily perform within the digestive system?
a)
Secreting insulin to regulate blood sugar
b)
Absorbing nutrients into the bloodstream
c)
Reabsorbing water and forming solid waste
d)
Producing bile
77.
A patient is documented as having an apical pulse of 115 beats per minute. Which term should the CCMA use to accurately describe this finding in the chart?
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Eupnea
c)
Hypotension
d)
Bradycardia
78.
A CCMA is setting up a sterile field for a minor surgical procedure. Which action would cause the sterile field to be considered contaminated?
a)
The CCMA reaches over the sterile tray to adjust the overhead light
b)
The CCMa pours sterile saline onto a sterile gauze pad from the side
c)
The CCMA places sterile instruments in the center of the sterile towel
d)
The CCMA dons sterile gloves before handling the instruments
79.
What is the primary purpose of the autoclave in a clinical setting?
a)
To store sterile instrument packs under controlled humidity
b)
To chemically disinfect non-critical equipment at room temperature
c)
To achieve surgical asepsis by killing all microorganisms and spores
d)
To sanitize instruments by removing visible debris
80.
According to OSHA standards, what must be immediately available to employees who work with hazardous chemicals in the clinic?
a)
A fire extinguisher rated for chemical fires
b)
A list of all patient allergies to chemicals
c)
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for all hazardous chemicals
d)
A complete list of contact numbers for poison control
81.
In the chain of infection, which component refers to the method by which a pathogen is transmitted from one person to another (e.g., airborne, droplet, vector)?
a)
Mode of Transmission
b)
Reservoir
c)
Portal of Exit
d)
Infectious Agent
82.
What is the primary reason the CCMA must invert tubes containing additives (like the Lavender top) immediately after collection?
a)
To ensure accurate blood to anticoagulant ratios
b)
To initiate the clotting cascade for serum separation
c)
To prevent the blood from clotting immediately
d)
To release gases and prevent the tube from cracking
83.
Which vein is the preferred site for venipuncture due to its large size and good support from surrounding tissue?
a)
Cephalic
b)
Basilic
c)
Median Cupital
d)
Femoral
84.
Which question demonstrates the use of therapeutic communication by using an open-ended format?
a)
Are you feeling better now than you were yesterday?
b)
What concerns do you have about the treatment plan?
c)
Did you take your medication this morning as prescribed?
d)
Do you need me to call the provider to clarify something for you?
85.
What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the medical office?
a)
To establish workplace safety standards for medical employees
b)
To ensure the security and confidentiality of PHI
c)
To define the minimum educational requirements for clinical medical assistants
d)
To standardize coding for insurance billing and claims processing
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