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IB SEHS Fall Final Exam Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

“Individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling & behaving” defines (a)  

2.

Personality traits:

a)

relatively stable and enduring

b)

permanent

c)

change a lot

d)

stay the same across different situations and environments

3.

Personality influenced by “nature” and “nurture”. What does this mean?

a)

Nature = genetic influences

Nurture = environmental influences

b)

Nature = mood

Nurture = level of motivation

c)

Nature = coaching style Nurture = amount of practice

d)

Nurture = genetic influences on personality

Nature = environmental influences

4.

trait anxiety vs state anxiety?

a)

Both refer to moment-to-moment emotional changes during performance.

b)

Trait anxiety = temporary

State anxiety = long-term predisposition to experience anxiety.

c)

Trait = generally anxious across many situations

State = feels anxious only in certain situations

d)

Trait anxiety = poor preparation

state anxiety = caused by environmental distractions.

5.

What are limitations of using self-reporting tests to measure pre-competition anxiety in athletes? (select all that apply)

a)

the time the test is given will affect results

b)

people might not answer honestly

c)

it has to be repeated

6.

opposite of emotional stability

a)

Neuroticism

b)

Extraversion

c)

Conscientiousness

d)

Openness

7.

The extent to which individuals draw / gain energy from interacting with other people.

a)

Openness to experience

b)

Conscientiousness

c)

Extroversion

d)

Agreeableness

e)

Neuroticism

8.

how well someone relates to other people & maintains relationships

a)

Openness to experience

b)

Conscientiousness

c)

Extroversion

d)

Agreeableness

e)

Neuroticism

9.

how much a person views situations as distressing, anxiety-inducing, etc.

a)

Openness to experience

b)

Conscientiousness

c)

Extroversion

d)

Agreeableness

e)

Neuroticism

10.

individual’s willingness to try new things, be vulnerable and think originally

a)

Openness to experience

b)

Conscientiousness

c)

Extroversion

d)

Agreeableness

e)

Neuroticism

11.

tendency to control impulses, behave in socially acceptable ways, follow expectations, commit to goal directed behavior

a)

Openness to experience

b)

Conscientiousness

c)

Extroversion

d)

Agreeableness

e)

Neuroticism

12.

high conscientiousness and openness behaviors?

a)

stay calm and help teammates

b)

stay quiet and listen to instructions

c)

Help others and give consistent effort

d)

consistent effort and listen to instructions

13.

aspect of personality that explains how individuals manage challenging and pressurized situations: ______ _________

(a)  

14.

Big 5 personality traits strongly associated with mental toughness? (select all that apply)

a)

Agreeableness

b)

Extroversion

c)

Conscientiousness

d)

Low neuroticism

15.

conscientiousness is strongly correlated with this component of mental toughness:

a)

Confidence

b)

Appraisal of challenges

c)

Commitment

d)

Resilience

16.

Viewing challenges as opportunities for improvement

a)

Commitment

b)

Appraisal of challenge

c)

Perceived control

d)

Resilience

17.

when you feel like you can influence the outcome of a situation

a)

Resilience

b)

Commitment

c)

Appraisal of challenges

d)

Perceived control

18.

ability to bounce back / recover from mistakes or failures

a)

Perceived control

b)

Resilience

c)

Commitment

d)

Appraisal of challenges

19.

Which best describes the relationship between mental toughness and experiencing stress or depression?

a)

Positive correlation

b)

Negative correlation

c)

No relationship

d)

Can not be determined

20.

5 components of mental toughness?

a)

Focus, control, relaxation, composure, optimism, self-belief

b)

Openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

c)

Appraisal of challenges, commitment, confidence, perceived control and resilience

d)

Autonomy, competence, relatedness, self-determination, self-regulation

21.

How is mental toughness developed?

a)

pushing through all challenges

b)

Psychological skills training

c)

Experiencing failure

d)

Ego motivational climates

22.

“A relatively permanent change in behavior brought about by experience” defines (a)  

23.

Distinguish between open loop theory and closed loop theory.

a)

Open loop theory = quick, pre-planned movements executed without feedback

Closed loop theory = slow movements, feedback used during movement to make corrections

b)

Open loop theory = continuous feedback to adjust movement

Closed loop theory = occurs without sensory input

c)

Both need feedback but differ only in movement speed

d)

Open loop theory = only simple skills

Closed loop theory = only complex skills

24.

recall schema is primarily responsible for:

a)

Evaluating the movement outcome

b)

Initiating a motor response with specific parameters

c)

Comparing sensory feedback with the expected outcome

d)

Storing a perceptual trace for the feeling of the movement

25.

How is the information processing model of motor learning exemplified by schema theory?

a)

By suggesting that each movement is stored as a separate, specific motor program that is retrieved unchanged during performance

b)

By proposing that generalized motor programs are stored in memory and modified through recall and recognition schemas using feedback from previous performances

c)

By explaining that movement emerges through perception–action coupling as performers adapt to affordances created by task and environmental constraints

d)

By emphasizing self-organization of movement patterns through representative learning design without reliance on stored motor programs

26.

linear (traditional) pedagogy?

a)

coach directs learning by demonstrating skills, prescribing technique, and providing frequent instructions and feedback

b)

learners independently explore movement solutions with minimal coach input

c)

practice design emphasizes variability and athlete decision-making

d)

athletes control the learning process through adaptation to environmental constraints

27.

Which of the following are true about the cognitive phase of learning? (select all that apply)

a)

known as the verbal phase because learners use verbal instructions, self-talk and feedback to understand the skill

b)

The fastest rate of skill improvement occurs in this phase

c)

Performance is inconsistent and movements are not efficient

d)

learner knows what to do and has a clear mental image of what the skill looks like

28.

Can self-detect movement errors but still needs feedback from a coach to make corrections

Which phase are they likely in?

a)

Cognitive

b)

Associative

c)

Autonomous

29.

athletes in the __ phase of learning can focus on advanced tactics or strategies such as faking out their opponent because motor programs are well learned & performed without conscious thought

a)

Autonomous

b)

Cognitive

c)

Associative

30.

An athlete & coach work together to solve a problem with a given set of constraints.

a)

Linear

b)

Non-linear

31.

“an opportunity for action provided by the environment” according to ecological dynamics theory of motor learning

a)

Decision making

b)

Input

c)

Affordance

d)

Response selection

32.

example of an environmental constraint?

a)

Size of the ball

b)

Peer pressure

c)

Self-organization

d)

Rules of the game

33.

examples of task constraints?

a)

Decision making; Adapting equipment

b)

Adapting rules; Quality of playing surface

c)

Decision making; Tempo of game

d)

Adapting rules; Adapting equipment

34.

Theory that views movement as a complex interaction between the body, the task and the environment.

a)

Ecological systems theory

b)

Schema theory

c)

Open-loop theory

d)

Closed-loop theory

35.

Benefits of a constraints-led approach to skill acquisition? (select all that apply)

a)

Mastering the correct technique

b)

Enhanced problem solving and creativity

c)

Greater adaptability to adjust movements to changing situations

d)

Better attentional focus toward relevant external cues

36.

The delayed response to a second stimulus that is presented while a first stimulus is still being processed.

a)

response time

b)

reaction time

c)

psychological refractory period

37.

Type of transfer: volleyball serve to a tennis serve

a)

Skill to skill

b)

Practice to performance

c)

Stage to stage

d)

Whole–part–whole

38.

transfer type: using factual knowledge that you have learned to execute a skill efficiently?

a)

Skill to skill

b)

Practice to performance

c)

Stage to stage

d)

Principles to skills

39.

abilities to skill transfer in tennis?

a)

Hitting against a ball machine

b)

Understanding the biomechanics of hitting

c)

Training for strength to improve hitting

d)

Hitting right-handed and left-handed

40.

attentional focus used when developing a strategic game plan?

a)

Internal, narrow

b)

Internal, broad

c)

External, narrow

d)

External, broad

41.

attentional focus required to hear a starting gun?

a)

Internal, narrow

b)

Internal, broad

c)

External, narrow

d)

External, broad

42.

high need to achieve (NACH) behavior

a)

Avoid future challenges

b)

Increased effort and persistence to improve performance

c)

Decreased motivation

43.

2 Situational factors that a coach can manipulate to increase "approach" behavior according to need achievement theory?

a)

probability of success

b)

incentive value of success

c)

fear of failure

d)

motivation to succeed

44.

behavior of Need to Avoid Failure (NAF) people?

a)

Select moderately challenging tasks that provide feedback on ability

b)

Avoid competition with much stronger opponents

c)

Approach tasks with 50:50 probability of success and high incentive value

d)

Approach tasks that are very easy or very difficult to avoid failure and protect self-esteem

45.

have a self-referenced perception of success and focus on self-improvement and mastery

a)

Ego-oriented

b)

Task-oriented

46.

Feel like success = winning

a)

ego oriented

b)

task oriented

47.

performance and well-being are predicted by:

a)

The extent to which autonomy, competence and relatedness are satisfied

b)

The quantity of intrinsic or extrinsic motivation

48.

Which statement describes amotivation?

a)

Participation driven by enjoyment of the activity

b)

Participation motivated by external rewards

c)

Lack of motivation due to no perceived link between effort and outcome

d)

Motivation regulated by internal goals and values

49.

Type of motivation when you do something because it will help you achieve your goals: (select 2)

a)

controlled

b)

autonomous

c)

intrinsic

d)

extrinsic

50.

Motivation type when you do something to avoid a punishment (choose 2)

a)

extrinsic

b)

controlled

c)

autonomous

d)

intrinsic

51.

Which psychological need is being satisfied when you see that you are improving?

a)

Amotivation

b)

Autonomy

c)

Competence

d)

Relatedness

52.

Need that is satisfied when you have choices and can help make decisions?

a)

Competence

b)

Autonomy

c)

Relatedness

d)

Confidence

53.

psychological need supported when a coach checks in on athletes and how they are feeling?

a)

Competence

b)

Autonomy

c)

Relatedness

d)

Confidence

54.

Which option correctly describes the motivation continuum from lowest to highest self-determination?

a)

Amotivation → Controlled → Autonomous

b)

Controlled → Amotivation → Autonomous

c)

Autonomous → Controlled → Amotivation

d)

Intrinsic → Extrinsic → Amotivation

55.

Which example of extrinsic motivation will most likely enhance intrinsic motivation?

a)

positive verbal feedback

b)

trophy / prize

c)

money

56.

IGrouping players based on their ability level, Rewarding effort above outcome, Encouraging competition between teammates

a)

Mastery Climate

b)

Ego Climate

57.

Which type of motivational climate is fostered if a coach implements the following: Task – personalized tasks & goals for athletes, Authority – involve athletes in decisions, Recognition – recognize improvement & effort, Grouping – Mixed ability, cooperative groups, Evaluation – Self-referenced/Individual, Time – flexible time to complete tasks

a)

Autonomous Climate

b)

Mastery Climate

c)

Ego Climate

d)

Determined Climate

58.

Ego climate (select 2)

a)

effective in the short term

b)

promotes team & individual growth

c)

anxiety inducing

d)

effective long term

59.

Which is an example of a problem-focused coping strategy?

a)

A golfer studying the course before a tournament

b)

A sprinter meditating before a race

c)

A hockey player enjoying time with friends before a game

d)

A gymnast practicing with a large crash mat

60.

goals that focus on improving technique

a)

Task

b)

Performance

c)

Outcome

d)

Process

61.

"the level of physical and psychological activation" defines (a)  

62.

Which of the following will not demonstrate a positive, linear relationship between arousal and performance?

a)

Elite Athletes

b)

Novice Athletes

c)

Simple (gross) motor skills

d)

Complex (fine) motor skills

63.

Which of the following best describes the influence of drive theory on an elite athlete’s performance?

a)

Arousal has no effect on performance for elite athletes.

b)

Their performance will steadily improve as arousal continues to increase because elite athletes do not experience “choking.”

c)

High arousal negatively affects performance because the correct dominant response is not well-learned.

d)

High arousal positively affects performance because the correct dominant response is well-learned.

64.

According to the inverted-U theory, performance is optimized for most athletes at:

a)

Low levels of arousal

b)

High levels of arousal

c)

Moderate levels of arousal

d)

Both low and high levels of arousal

65.

Refer to the graph. A high jumper performs best when their arousal level is moderate (x ≈ 5). Which best explains why performance might decline if arousal increases further?

a)

Excessive arousal may impair motor coordination, leading to poor takeoff technique

b)

High arousal boosts adrenaline, allowing faster execution of technical skills

c)

The athlete’s anaerobic threshold is exceeded, reducing available oxygen for power output

d)

Elevated arousal enhances muscle recruitment, improving jump height

66.

An individual with high neuroticism likely has a _____ IZOF than someone with low neuroticism.

a)

Equal

b)

Similar

c)

Lower

d)

Higher

67.

Measurements of heart rate variation, blood pressure, and the galvanic skin response are all:

a)

Objective measures of cognitive anxiety

b)

Objective measures of somatic anxiety

c)

Subjective measures of cognitive anxiety

d)

Subjective measures of somatic anxiety

68.

catastrophe theory: a sudden and dramatic drop in an athlete’s performance occurs when...

a)

Low physiological arousal and low cognitive anxiety

b)

High physiological arousal and low somatic anxiety

c)

High physiological arousal and high cognitive anxiety

d)

Low physiological arousal and high cognitive anxiety

69.

Under the catastrophe theory, if an athlete’s cognitive anxiety is low, their performance will follow a pattern most similar to the:

a)

Drive theory

b)

Reversal theory

c)

Inverted-U hypothesis

d)

Self determination theory

70.

Which type of anxiety includes experiencing negative symptoms of physiological arousal such as rapid heart rate, sweating, and butterflies?

a)

Cognitive anxiety

b)

Somatic anxiety

c)

Psychological anxiety

d)

Arousal

71.

How is cognitive anxiety measured?

a)

Objectively with physical measurements and data

b)

Subjectively with physical measurements and data

c)

Objectively with self-report questionnaires

d)

Subjectively with self-report questionnaires

72.

Strategies that seek to alter the stressor

a)

Avoidance focused coping

b)

Emotion focused coping

c)

Problem focused coping

73.

coping strategy for managing uncontrollable stressors?

a)

Avoidance focused

b)

Problem focused

c)

Emotion focused

74.

Which coping skill is best for controlling heart rate?

a)

Breathing techniques

b)

Self talk

c)

Imagery

d)

Social support

75.

Why might two athletes respond differently to the same arousal level?

a)

Because arousal only impacts novice athletes

b)

Because perception of arousal varies based on personality and coping skills

c)

Because arousal only affects physiology, not psychology

d)

Because arousal is unrelated to sport performance

76.

Which of the following best explains the difference between a performance goal and a process goal?

a)

Performance goals focus on beating others, while process goals focus on personal bests.

b)

Performance goals are measurable standards, while process goals emphasize the actions or techniques used.

c)

Performance goals are always short-term, while process goals are always long-term.

d)

Performance goals apply only in competition, while process goals apply only in training.

77.

Norm-referenced goals where you are compared against others. (example: being selected for a team or winning 1st place)

a)

Performance goal

b)

Long-term goal

c)

Outcome goal

d)

Process goal

78.

goals that focus on technique and skill execution

a)

Short-term goal

b)

Outcome goal

c)

Performance goal

d)

Process goal

79.

which meets SMART goal criteria?

a)

Ill get better at shooting free throws

b)

Within 8 weeks, I will increase my free-throw shooting percentage from 65% to 75% by completing three focused practice sessions per week.

c)

During the remainder of the season, I will practice free throws more consistently to become a more confident shooter.

d)

By the end of the season, I will demonstrate better shooting technique during games.

80.

Goal setting and self-talk are:

(select all that apply)

a)

Coping skills for stress and anxiety

b)

Psychological skills that need to be practiced

c)

Controlled distraction strategies used to maintain focus.