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Pharmacology and Medical Concepts Q&A

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines an agonist’s action at receptors?

a)

Binds and activates, then blocks receptors

b)

Binds and activates receptors causing effects

c)

Binds receptors but reverses all effects

d)

Destroys the receptor, no effect occurs

2.

Which clinical sign is most consistent with severe carbon monoxide poisoning?

a)

Peripheral cyanosis with dark venous blood

b)

Pupils fixed and dilated without hypoxia

c)

Venous blood appears unusually bright

d)

Bradycardia with normal oxygen saturation

3.

Which medication class best treats opioid or benzodiazepine overdose?

a)

Antagonists targeting those receptors

b)

Antiplatelets for thrombus reduction

c)

ACE inhibitors for blood pressure

d)

Beta agonists for bronchodilation

4.

Which calcium channel blocker is non-dihydropyridine?

a)

Verapamil

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Felodipine

d)

Nifedipine

5.

Convert one grain (gr) to milligrams (mg).

a)

100 mg per grain

b)

32.4 mg per grain

c)

6.48 mg per grain

d)

64.8 mg per grain

6.

Which liquid formulation contains solid particles suspended in liquid?

a)

Suspension

b)

Emulsion

c)

Syrup

d)

Elixir

7.

Which ET route uses the acronym LEAN for common drugs?

a)

Lidocaine, Epinephrine, Atropine, Naloxone

b)

Lorazepam, Epinephrine, Etomidate, Atropine

c)

Lidocaine, Enalapril, Atropine, Naloxone

d)

Levofloxacin, Epinephrine, Amiodarone, Nitroglycerin

8.

When teaching IVIO dosing via endotracheal tube, what is typical dosing guidance?

a)

Half the IVIO dose due to absorption

b)

Never use ET for emergency drugs

c)

Two to five times the IVIO dose

d)

Use same dose as IVIO in most cases

9.

What pharmacokinetic change is common in elderly patients?

a)

Increased plasma protein binding

b)

Decreased renal clearance and sensitivity

c)

Increased enzyme activity and plasma levels

d)

Greater volume of distribution for water drugs

10.

Provide the standard sublingual nitroglycerin dosing convention.

a)

SL route, 0.4 mg, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses

b)

PO route, 0.4 mg, every hour, up to 2 doses

c)

SL route, 0.2 mg, every 10 minutes, up to 4 doses

d)

IM route, 0.4 mg, once, repeat as needed

11.

Which preoperative safety principle takes priority?

a)

Verify postoperative labs before anesthesia

b)

Document only after response

c)

Refuse surgical orders first

d)

Patient safety always comes first

12.

Which initial ED assessment mnemonic emphasizes airway, breathing, circulation?

a)

SOAP notes then vitals

b)

Patient safety: indication, response, documentation

c)

Classic five rights of meds

d)

Standard mnemonic adds reason and response

13.

Which autonomic pathway causes bradycardia and increased GI motility?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Enteric inhibitory pathway

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Somatic motor neurons

14.

Dopamine has dose-dependent effects. Which pairing reflects low-dose action?

a)

Vasoconstriction via alpha-1

b)

Renal vasodilation via D1

c)

Bronchodilation via beta-2

d)

AV block via M2 receptors

15.

Which is a correct glucagon reconstitution fact?

a)

Usually reconstituted with diluent before use

b)

Typically supplied as liquid ready to inject

c)

Never requires mixing for IV administration

d)

Given only orally when patient swallows

16.

How is hydroxocobalamin supplied for IV administration?

a)

Activated charcoal suspension

b)

Solid tablet for infusion

c)

Lyophilized powder to reconstitute

d)

Pre-mixed oral syrup formulation

17.

What combination reduces reflex tachycardia and AV conduction in hypertension therapy?

a)

DHP CCBs with beta-agonists

b)

Alpha-2 agonists with nitrates

c)

ACE inhibitors with diuretics

d)

Non-DHP CCBs with beta-blockers

18.

Which solution is used to dilute airway ET drugs for normal saline?

a)

Dextrose 50% to improve absorption

b)

Lidocaine 1% as carrier fluid

c)

Sterile water 2 mL without ventilating

d)

10 mL normal saline and ventilate

19.

Ipratropium produces bronchodilation primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking muscarinic receptors

b)

Stimulating beta‑2 receptors

c)

Releasing histamine from mast cells

d)

Blocking sodium channels in bronchi

20.

Which pairing correctly matches agent and primary receptor effect?

a)

Dobutamine

1.

Beta‑1 agonist increases contractility

b)

Atropine

2.

Muscarinic antagonist increases heart rate

c)

Phenylephrine

3.

Alpha‑1 agonist raises vascular tone

d)

Metoprolol

4.

Beta‑1 antagonist reduces heart rate