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5022 Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two main categories of risk treatment techniques?

a)

Risk reduction and risk financing

b)

Risk avoidance and risk acceptance

c)

Risk prevention and risk transfer

d)

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

2.

Why consider risk appetite when designing risk treatments?

a)

To ensure all risks are fully eliminated

b)

To match treatments with acceptable risk levels

c)

To ignore low-likelihood risks

d)

To always reduce costs

3.

What is the main goal of implementing risk treatment in risk management?

a)

Eliminate all possible risks faced by the organization

b)

Reduce the likelihood and/or impact of risks to acceptable levels

c)

Transfer all risks to insurance providers

d)

Comply solely with regulatory requirements

4.

How should risk treatment relate to organizational objectives?

a)

Designed independently of strategic objectives

b)

Relevant only for operational risks

c)

Support the achievement of objectives within risk appetite

d)

Focus only on financial performance

5.

What does risk avoidance involve?

a)

Reducing the consequences of a risk event

b)

Transferring all risks to another party

c)

Not engaging in activities that create risk

d)

Setting a higher risk appetite

6.

Why is segregation with redundancy important?

a)

A. IT systems never fail

b)

B. Data centers cannot be insured

c)

C. System failures can have severe consequences

d)

D. IT risks are always low impact

7.

Why automate key process steps as a risk control?

a)

Eliminate the need for oversight

b)

Reduce human error and increase consistency

c)

Increase operational complexity

d)

Transfer risk to IT suppliers

8.

What is true about legal and regulatory requirements as risk controls?

a)

Irrelevant to risk control decisions

b)

May require minimum standards regardless of cost

c)

Always define risk appetite

d)

Eliminate the need for internal controls

9.

What does duplication or segregation with redundancy mean?

a)

Having spare capacity ready for incidents

b)

Merging activities for economies of scale

c)

Removing backup systems to cut costs

d)

Using a single supply route for all inputs

10.

What is a key input to a BIA?

a)

Staff performance appraisals only

b)

Information on core activities, dependencies, and timing

c)

Historical financial statements only

d)

Exclusive focus on reputational risk

11.

Why not limit risk management to pre-identified risks?

a)

Emerging and unexpected risks can also threaten objectives.

b)

Pre-identified risks are never material.

c)

Only emerging risks can be insured.

d)

Risk registers are updated annually.

12.

What is Business Impact Analysis (BIA) mainly about?

a)

Analyzing share price performance

b)

Identifying and assessing the impacts of business interruption

c)

Determining tax strategies

d)

Benchmarking profits against competitors

13.

What characterizes an effective BCM test?

a)

Start with complex live

b)

Use resources that are unavailable

c)

Start simple and escalate

d)

Include only senior management

14.

What is a key element of BCM?

a)

Ignoring minor threats

b)

Identifying key infrastructure and resources for continuity

c)

Focusing only on shareholder communication

d)

Ensuring only external stakeholders know the plan

15.

Which control manages credit risk exposure?

a)

Set no credit limits

b)

Use credit checks and set limits

c)

Pay suppliers immediately without verification

d)

Ignore overdue receivables

16.

How to develop a BCM culture in an organization?

a)

Embed BCM into strategic and daily management.

b)

Conduct one large-scale test.

c)

Focus only on technical solutions.

d)

Keep BCM limited to specialists.

17.

What is normally included in a Crisis Management Plan?

a)

Annual financial statements only

b)

Plan overview, roles, escalation procedures, contact details

c)

Insurance premium details

d)

Product pricing schedules

18.

Which control reduces unauthorized payment risk?

a)

Single-person approval of transfers

b)

Segregation of duties between initiators and approvers

c)

Shared generic login for banking

d)

Allow verbal approval without documentation

19.

What distinguishes preventive and detective controls?

a)

Preventive controls identify errors after they occur.

b)

Preventive controls stop errors; detective controls find them after.

c)

No real difference.

d)

Both are only relevant for IT risks.

20.

True statement about risk-related controls?

a)

Always designed without risk appetite

b)

Cost and complexity should match risk significance

c)

Never need review

d)

Identical across all units

21.

How to integrate BCM with risk management?

a)

Treat BCM as a separate project

b)

Use risk assessments and BIAs to inform continuity strategies

c)

Conduct BCM once a decade

d)

Only involve external consultants

22.

Why consider internal and external dependencies in BCM planning?

a)

External dependencies are always more important

b)

Dependencies reveal single points of failure across processes and suppliers

c)

Only external suppliers can fail

d)

Internal processes never depend on external services

23.

What is the main purpose of risk financing in an organization?

a)

Eliminate all risks from activities

b)

Fund negative financial consequences of risk events

c)

Ensure no external capital is used

d)

Maximize short-term profits regardless of risk

24.

Risk financing belongs to which phase of risk?

a)

Risk identification

b)

Risk analysis

c)

Risk treatment

d)

Risk communication

25.

What is the core mission of risk management as discussed in lectures?

a)

Avoid all risks at any cost

b)

Retain only risks that provide a good return

c)

Transfer all risks to insurers

d)

Minimize insurance premiums

26.

Risk financing techniques mainly include which two categories?

a)

Risk avoidance and acceptance

b)

Risk retention and transfer

c)

Risk diversification and sharing

d)

Risk reporting and reduction

27.

Which statement best describes risk transfer?

a)

Selling high-risk business units

b)

Using insurance or contracts to pass financial consequences to another party

c)

Creating internal reserves for losses

d)

Sharing information with regulators

28.

Which of the following is NOT typically an insurance intermediary?

a)

Brokers

b)

Banks as strategic partners

c)

Dealers

d)

Regulators

29.

Banks act as intermediaries for insurers mainly when

a)

Marine hull insurance only

b)

Mortgage and loan protection insurance

c)

Reinsurance treaties

d)

Professional indemnity insurance for brokers

30.

What is a responsibility of insurers and brokers toward their agents?

a)

Provide training and be responsible for actions within their authority

b)

Pay all client claims directly to agents

c)

Allow agents to issue reinsurance contracts

d)

Guarantee agents a minimum commission

31.

What is a key advantage of distributing insurance products via the internet or call centers?

a)

Avoid all regulatory oversight

b)

Guarantee the lowest premiums

c)

Centralize customer service and reduce admin costs

d)

No need for actuarial pricing

32.

Domestic policies typically include all EXCEPT:

a)

Home buildings and contents

b)

Private motor vehicle insurance

c)

Industrial special risks

d)

Travel insurance

33.

What does a policy schedule primarily contain?

a)

Generic wording for all clients

b)

Details specific to the policy, such as sums insured and insured parties

c)

Optional for marine policies only

d)

Prepared by the regulator

34.

Policy wording in a booklet usually sets out:

a)

List of intermediaries

b)

Extent of cover, conditions, exclusions, and optional extensions

c)

Insurer’s financial statements

d)

List of reinsurers

35.

Which document sets out how the insurer intends to settle a claim?

a)

Basis of settlement clause

b)

Title

c)

Preamble

d)

Policy schedule

36.

Why is reinsurance important?

a)

Guarantees profit to insurers

b)

Allows insurers to accept large or volatile risks safely

c)

Eliminates the need for regulation

d)

Replaces all primary insurance

37.

Excess of loss reinsurance is suitable when:

a)

Losses are frequent but small

b)

Occasional large losses could seriously affect the portfolio

c)

Insurer wishes to avoid small claims

d)

Insurer writes only domestic household policies

38.

What does retrocession mean in reinsurance?

a)

Reinsurers reinsure part of the risks they accepted

b)

Reinsurers cancel all previous treaties

c)

Insurers sell capital to investors

d)

Policyholders buy extra cover directly

39.

What is a key advantage of a captive?

a)

Always replaces traditional insurance

b)

Provides lower overall cost of insurable risk by bypassing frictional costs

c)

Guarantees investment returns

d)

Operates without regulation

40.

Group captives are owned by:

a)

Single corporation

b)

Group of organizations jointly owning the captive

c)

Only insurers

d)

Government

41.

Protected cell companies (PCCs) are characterized by:

a)

No legal segregation between cells

b)

Legal segregation of each cell’s assets and liabilities

c)

Available only to life insurers

d)

Unregulated entities

42.

What is the primary purpose of ART methods?

a)

Replace all traditional insurance regulations

b)

Provide additional or complementary risk financing beyond traditional insurance

c)

Eliminate the need for risk retention

d)

Guarantee profits to reinsurers

43.

Dual trigger policies pay out only when:

a)

Any single insured event occurs

b)

Two specified events occur together

c)

Insurer’s share price falls

d)

No loss occurs, but volatility increases

44.

Weather derivatives are mainly used by organizations that:

a)

Have no exposure to weather

b)

Hedge financial exposures to weather-related indices like temperature or rainfall

c)

Must comply with statutory insurance

d)

Operate only in financial markets

45.

What is a key caveat when designing international insurance programs?

a)

Only the insurer needs involvement; other functions add little value.

b)

Tax, legal, and regulatory issues can seriously affect success.

c)

Local standards should be ignored for global wording.

d)

Identical policies are always possible in all countries.

46.

What is the primary purpose of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

a)

To comply with legal requirements only

b)

To reduce insurance costs

c)

To ensure the organization can continue operations during a disruption

d)

To eliminate all business risks

47.

Which of the following best describes the term 'moral hazard'?

a)

Increased risk due to lack of insurance

b)

Risk that arises from the behavior of insured parties

c)

Risk that is purely financial in nature

d)

Risk associated with natural disasters

48.

What is the main function of an insurance broker?

a)

To underwrite insurance policies

b)

To manage claims on behalf of insurers

c)

To provide legal advice on insurance contracts

d)

To act as an intermediary between clients and insurers

49.

Which of the following is a common method of risk financing?

a)

Risk avoidance

b)

Risk acceptance

c)

Risk transfer

d)

Self-insurance

50.

What is the significance of a risk register?

a)

It is used solely for compliance audits

b)

It documents all financial transactions

c)

It tracks identified risks and their management strategies

d)

It serves as a marketing tool for the organization