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Fall Semester Exam HST 25-26

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The use of correct body mechanics is needed to ____.

a)

bend from the waist correctly

b)

obtain a narrow base of support

c)

twist while moving a patient

d)

use the strongest muscles

2.

How many inches apart should the feet be to maintain a broad base of support?

a)

2 to 4

b)

4 to 6

c)

6 to 8

d)

8 to 10

3.

To get close to an object, ____.

a)

twist to the correct angle

b)

bend from the waist and knees

c)

bend from the hips and knees

d)

reach out for the object

4.

If a particle gets in your eye, ____.

a)

rub the eye to loosen the particle

b)

report it immediately

c)

flush the eye with large amounts of water

d)

use a sterile gauze pad to remove the particle

5.

Safety glasses ____.

a)

should be worn at all times

b)

are required for some procedures

c)

usually are not needed in health care facilities

d)

must be worn while using electrical equipment

6.

Horseplay or practical jokes

a)

are permitted if no one is insulted

b)

may be done during breaks or study time

c)

cause accidents and have no place in the lab

d)

usually do not result in accidents

7.

In case of fire in a health care facility, the most important thing to do is ____.

a)

know the fire emergency plan

b)

activate the fire alarm

c)

remove everyone from the building

d)

remain calm

8.

The three things needed in order for a fire to start are ____.

a)

fuel, heat, oxygen

b)

fuel, oxygen, flammable material

c)

flammable material, oxygen, chemical reaction

d)

spark, oxygen, matches

9.

Ergonomics includes all of the following except ____.

a)

training in required muscle movements

b)

determining which repetitive movements will be most effective

c)

correct placement of furniture and equipment

d)

an awareness of the environment to prevent injuries

10.

Most fire emergency plans usually include all of the following except ____.

a)

patients and personnel in immediate danger should be removed from the area

b)

the alarm should be activated as soon as possible

c)

electrical equipment and oxygen should be shut off

d)

doors and windows should be opened to expel the smoke

11.

Solutions used in health care facilities ____.

a)

can be dangerous, so avoid eye and skin contact

b)

can be mixed together in most cases

c)

do not always need a label

d)

all of the above

12.

Failure to give care that is normally expected of a person in a particular position, resulting in injury to another person is ____.

a)

malpractice

b)

negligence

c)

abuse

d)

defamation

13.

If a health care worker sends information to an insurance company without a patient’s written consent, this can be ___

a)

invasion of privacy

b)

defamation

c)

slander

d)

libel

14.

If a physician fails to use a degree of skill and learning commonly expected and the person receiving care is injured, the physician can be sued for ___

a)

negligence

b)

defamation

c)

malpractice

d)

assault and battery

15.

If a patient is physically restrained without proper authorization or justification, this can lead to a charge of ___

a)

invasion of privacy

b)

defamation

c)

false imprisonment

d)

assault and battery

16.

Any care that results in physical harm, pain, or mental anguish can lead to a charge of ___

a)

invasion of privacy

b)

defamation

c)

false imprisonment

d)

abuse

17.

Principles relating to what is morally right or wrong are known as ___

a)

torts

b)

contracts

c)

ethics

d)

patients’ rights

18.

Permission granted voluntarily by a person who is of sound mind after a procedure and all risks involved have been explained is ___

a)

legal permission

b)

confidential authorization

c)

verbal consent

d)

informed consent

19.

Which of the following are signs or symptoms of abuse?

a)

poor personal hygiene

b)

aggressive or withdrawn behavior

c)

unexplained bruises, fractures, burns, or injuries

d)

all of the above

20.

The privacy standards of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) require all of the following except ____.

a)

patients must be able to obtain copies of their medical records

b)

patients must sign a consent form to allow a birth or death certificate to be recorded by a government agency

c)

patients must be given information on how to file a complaint against a health care provider who violates the privacy act

d)

health care providers must tell a patient how they will use the patient’s medical information

21.

The first sign of a pressure ulcer is a/an ____.

a)

open sore on the skin

b)

red or blue-gray discoloration on the skin

c)

vesicle or blister on the skin

d)

dark brown bruise on the skin

22.

Patients confined to bed should have their position changed at least every ____.

a)

30 minutes

b)

hour

c)

2 hours

d)

3 hours

23.

The proper term for dizziness is ____.

a)

vertigo

b)

diaphoresis

c)

cyanosis

d)

dyspnea

24.

Which of the following does not apply while transporting a patient on a stretcher?

a)

Walk on the right side of the hall.

b)

Move the patient in a headfirst direction.

c)

Watch for cross traffic at doorways and intersections.

d)

Move slowly whenever possible.

25.

What type of bed is made after a patient is discharged?

a)

open bed

b)

bed with cradle

c)

closed bed

d)

occupied bed

26.

If 20 milliliters of normal saline solution is put into a nasogastric tube and not withdrawn, the amount should be recorded on an I&O record as ____.

a)

intravenous intake

b)

nasal intake

c)

oral intake

d)

gastric intake

27.

A pint of blood given intravenously should be recorded on an I&O record as ____.

a)

1 pint

b)

30 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

1000 mL

28.

A tube that is surgically inserted through the abdominal skin and into the stomach is a/an ___

a)

enteral tube

b)

nasogastric tube

c)

gastrostomy tube

d)

feeding pump

29.

To begin a 24-hour urine specimen, ____.

a)

have the patient void at 8 AM, discard the specimen, and start the test at 8 AM

b)

have the patient void at 8 AM, save the specimen as the first urine, and start the test at 8 AM

c)

have the patient void at 8 AM, discard the specimen, and start the test the next time the patient voids

d)

have the patient void at 8 AM, save the specimen, and start the test the next time the patient voids

30.

All restraints must be removed ____.

a)

every hour for at least 15 minutes

b)

every 2 hours for at least 10 minutes

c)

at least once every 8 hours

d)

at least once every 24 hours

31.

To make a closed bed, ____.

a)

position the bottom sheet on the bed wrong side up

b)

position the draw sheet 24 to 36 inches from the head of the bed

c)

align the wide hem of the top sheet even with the top edge of the mattress

d)

tuck in the top sheet, blanket, and spread at the side up to the center of the bed

32.

The correct term for excessive perspiration is ____.

a)

vertigo

b)

dysphagia

c)

diaphoresis

d)

dyspnea

33.

The first step of first aid is to ____.

a)

recognize that an emergency exists

b)

call emergency medical services

c)

check the victim for breathing

d)

check the victim for bleeding

34.

If you are caring for a critical adult accident victim and determine that the victim is unconscious, ___

a)

call EMS immediately

b)

continue providing care until someone comes

c)

continue providing care but constantly yell for help

d)

continue providing care for approximately 1 minute, stop and call EMS, and return immediately to the victim

35.

What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one person is performing CPR on an adult victim?

a)

5:2

b)

15:2

c)

30:1

d)

30:2

36.

How far should a child's chest be compressed during cardiac compressions?

a)

1/2 to 1 inch

b)

1 to 1 1/2 inches

c)

1/4 to 1/2 the depth of the chest

d)

at least 1/3 the depth of the chest

37.

A wound caused by a sharp object such as a knife, scissors, or a razor is a/an ____.

a)

abrasion

b)

incision

c)

laceration

d)

puncture

38.

Tetanus is most likely to occur with a/an ____.

a)

laceration

b)

incision

c)

amputation

d)

puncture

39.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of shock?

a)

rapid, shallow respirations

b)

diaphoresis

c)

rapid, weak pulse

d)

elevated blood pressure

40.

If a poison has been swallowed, the first step of care is to ____.

a)

dilute the poison with milk or water

b)

encourage the victim to vomit

c)

call a poison control center

d)

position the victim on his or her side

41.

If a victim has contact with a poisonous plant, ____.

a)

call the poison control center or doctor

b)

apply calamine or Caladryl lotion immediately

c)

wash the area with soap and water

d)

use sterile gauze to wipe the secretions off the skin

42.

The type of burn characterized by a red or mottled color, a wet appearance, and a blister or vesicle is a ___

a)

superficial burn

b)

partial-thickness burn

c)

full-thickness burn

d)

third-degree burn

43.

To treat clear or blood-tinged fluid draining from the ear after a skull or brain injury, ___

a)

position the victim on the uninjured side

b)

apply a pressure bandage to stop the flow

c)

allow the fluid to flow from the ear

d)

pack the ear with gauze to absorb the flow

44.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for a convulsion?

a)

Put a blunt object between the victim’s teeth to keep the victim from biting his or her tongue.

b)

Remove dangerous objects from the area.

c)

Avoid using force to restrain or stop the muscle movements.

d)

Put a pillow or cushion under the victim’s head.

45.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of insulin shock?

a)

hunger pangs

b)

pale and moist skin

c)

sweet or fruity odor to the breath

d)

restlessness or anxiety

46.

A common bandage wrap for a sprained ankle or wrist is the ____.

a)

cravat wrap

b)

spiral wrap

c)

recurrent wrap

d)

figure-eight wrap

47.

Call first for EMS before starting CPR for ____.

a)

an unconscious adult or child who has reached puberty

b)

any victim of submersion or near drowning

c)

any victim with cardiac arrest caused by a drug overdose or trauma

d)

an unconscious infant or child from 1 year of age to puberty

48.

The type of shock that occurs when poisons or toxins in the blood cause vasodilation and the blood pressure drops is ____.

a)

neurogenic

b)

septic

c)

anaphylactic

d)

metabolic

49.

The type of shock that occurs when vomiting or diarrhea causes dehydration and a disruption in the normal acid base balance of the body is ____.

a)

metabolic

b)

cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic

d)

septic

50.

If an adult victim is unconscious and has an obstructed airway, ____.

a)

give abdominal thrusts

b)

give chest thrusts

c)

start CPR

d)

all of the above

51.

There is NOTHING stronger than the _______ of a Volunteer!

a)

Spleen

b)

Heart

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Kidney