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Worksheets

Variant 0 — Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the current Cisco product that allows you to create virtualized network devices through an API for use in QA and testing?

a)

VIRL

b)

NSO

c)

CML

d)

pyATS

e)

ITSM

2.

ACI is integrated with an SD-WAN controller and provides information on how to prioritize traffic to or from a particular application. Which pair of domains is involved?

a)

enterprise and data center

b)

data center and security

c)

data center and service provider

d)

service provider and enterprise

e)

none of them

3.

Which method is used to automate a multidomain network?

a)

CLI

b)

GUI

c)

console

d)

API

4.

A variable of the list data type that is named devices has the following value: [{"hostname":"csr1kv1"}]. Which Python command will print the value of the "hostname" key?

a)

print(devices["hostname"])

b)

print(devices[0]["hostname"])

c)

print(devices(0))

d)

print(devices[0][hostname])

e)

print(devices[hostname])

5.

Which option can be used to list all available methods for any supported Python data type and learn how to use a given method?

a)

len()

b)

all()

c)

print()

d)

show()

e)

help()

6.

What is a reason to use XML namespaces?

a)

to describe the element

b)

to combine elements by their purpose

c)

to easily identify a desired element

d)

to avoid element name conflicts

e)

all of them

7.

What is the name of the Python object that represents XML data?

a)

xml

b)

xml.etree.ElementTree

c)

xml.etree

d)

xml.etree.ElementTree.parse()

e)

xml.etree.parse()

8.

Which feature of a RESTful API ensures that each HTTP request received by the server is independent of previous requests?

a)

Scalability

b)

Cacheable

c)

Stateless

d)

Simple

e)

Private

9.

RESTCONF is based on which data model?

a)

Next-Gen

b)

YANG

c)

REST

d)

HTTP

e)

HTTPS

10.

Which HTTP error code should show up when the number of API calls have been exceeded?

a)

404

b)

200

c)

429

d)

501

e)

203

11.

Which word is prepended to the basic authentication in the headers?

a)

Basic

b)

None

c)

Bearer

d)

Simple

e)

Header

12.

Which of the following modules is used to send arbitrary operational commands to networking devices?

a)

ios_command

b)

ios_cmd

c)

ios_facts

d)

debug_command

e)

command

13.

Which statement best describes Jinja2?

a)

Jinja2 is a programming language that is used with Python.

b)

Jinja2 is a templating language that can be used to simplify the generation of a text file when using Python.

c)

Jinja2 is the only templating language that works with networking devices.

d)

Jinja2 is a templating language that is purpose-built for templating network configurations.

14.

Which parameter is required when using the template module?

a)

template

b)

source

c)

destination

d)

dest

e)

temp

15.

Which process represents the SDLC?

a)

Design, review, and copy software products

b)

Plan, design, develop, and test high-quality software products and applications

c)

Assess, implement, and test software products

d)

Review, test, and put into production a software product

e)

None of them

16.

Which option does Lean seek to eliminate as its main objective?

a)

error

b)

people

c)

main

d)

waste

e)

scope creep

17.

Which statement describes a Git remote repository?

a)

A remote repository is where the files of the project reside, and it is also from where all other local copies are pulled.

b)

A remote repository is where snapshots, or commits, are stored on the local machine of each person.

c)

A remote repository is where all the changes that are performed are placed.

d)

A remote repository is where the files are stored as they are modified.

e)

A remote repository is where the files can’t be modifies

18.

Which of the following tools can isolate an operating system and contain all the necessary dependencies used as part of a reproducible environment?

a)

Vagrant

b)

Docker

c)

Pipenv

d)

Qemu

e)

Cisco

19.

Which model includes operational and configuration data in a single model?

a)

OpenConfig output

b)

native output

c)

IETF output

d)

CLI output

e)

Config output

20.

What is the default port number for NETCONF?

a)

TCP port 380

b)

UDP port 380

c)

UDP port 830

d)

TCP port 22

e)

TCP port 830

21.

True or False. Most cyberattacks today are perpetrated by internal threat actors, such as malicious employees engaging in corporate espionage.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which cybersecurity regulation strengthens data protection for European Union - EU - residents and addresses the export of personal data outside the EU?

a)

Canada Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act - PIPEDA

b)

General Data Protection Regulation - GDPR

c)

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard - PCI DSS

d)

North American Electric Reliability Corporation - NERC

e)

Critical Infrastructure Protection - CIP

23.

True or False. The Cyber-Attack Lifecycle framework is a five-step process that an attacker can implement in order to attack a network.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which is not a Zero Trust design principle?

a)

Ensure that all resources are accessed securely, regardless of location

b)

Adopt a least privilege strategy and strictly enforce access control

c)

Allow internal users to access network services through remote access

d)

Inspect and log all traffic

e)

None of them

25.

Which Secure the Cloud technology functions as a multimode cloud access security broker (CASB), offering inline and API-based protection working together to minimize the range of cloud risks that can lead to breaches?

a)

Prisma SaaS

b)

Prisma Access

c)

Prisma SASE

d)

Prisma Cloud

26.

LLM input and data quality assessment can be hindered by a lack of input ____________.

a)

validation

b)

diversity

c)

sampling

d)

bias

e)

hallucination

27.

Which network device is essentially an intelligent hub that uses physical or logical addresses to forward data packets to devices on a network?

a)

Switch

b)

Router

c)

Firewall

d)

Server

e)

Hub

28.

What is another term for a logical address?

a)

IP Address

b)

Physical Address

c)

MAC Address

d)

Burned-In Address

e)

Default gateway

29.

Which layer of the OSI model does Project 802 divide into two sublayers?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Session

e)

Transport

30.

Select True or False - Zero Trust is intended to remedy the deficiencies of perimeter-centric strategies.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

An effective SASE solution needs to service the following requirements - Select the best answer.

a)

All of them

b)

Diversity - Carrier Agnostic

c)

Scalability

d)

Mobility

e)

None of them

32.

Which SASE tenet should enable complete visibility and control over all traffic, regardless of where a user may be located, to ensure the secure use of cloud-based apps and other web services?

a)

Zero Trust Network Access - ZTNA

b)

Cloud Access Security Broker - CASB

c)

Secure Web Gateway - SWG

d)

Autonomous Digital Experience Monitoring – ADEM

e)

Software Defined - Wide Area Network - SD-WAN

33.

A hypervisor allows multiple, virtual (“guest”):operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The Cloud Native Computing Foundation (CNCF) Kubernetes project defines a container security model for Kubernetes in the context of cloud native security. This model is referred to as “the 4 C’s of Cloud Native security”.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

An added benefit of using virtual firewalls for east-west protection is the unprecedented traffic and threat visibility that the virtualized security device can now provide.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Prisma SaaS is an inline service, so it doesn’t impact latency, bandwidth, or end-user experience.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which Cortex Cloud Pillar Enforce machine learning-based runtime protection to protect applications and workloads in real time?

a)

Network Protection

b)

Visibility, Governance, and Compliance

c)

Computer Security

d)

Identity Security

e)

Access and Protection

38.

Which key element is crucial for both SecOps and DevSecOps to function effectively?

a)

Automation of security tasks and processes

b)

The exclusive use of open-source security tools

c)

Daily manual code reviews by the CEO

d)

A strict separation of duties with no collaboration between teams

e)

Developing custom programming languages for security tasks

39.

SecOps content engineering is the function that builds alerting profiles which identify the alerts that will be forwarded for investigation.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Cortex Data Lake unifies case management, automation, real-time collaboration, and native threat intel management in the industry’s first extended security orchestration, automation, and response – SOAR - offering.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which tool will Cymbal Bank use to enforce authentication and authorization for services deployed to Google Cloud?

a)

Google Cloud Armor

b)

Application Load Balancer

c)

Firewall rules

d)

Identity-Aware proxy

e)

Google private access

42.

What feature will allow Cymbal Bank to delete or change the storage class of objects in Cloud Storage buckets?

a)

Retention policies

b)

Rotation periods

c)

Lifecycle management rules

d)

Object versioning

e)

Google Cloud Armor

43.

The loan application from Cymbal Bank’s lending department collects credit reports that contain credit payment information from customers. According to bank policy, the PDF reports are stored for six months in Cloud Storage, and access logs for the reports are stored for three years. You need to configure a cost-effective storage solution for the access logs. What should you do?

a)

Set up a logging export bucket in Cloud Storage to collect data from the Security Command Center. Configure object lifecycle management rules to delete logs after three years.

b)

Set up a logging export dataset in BigQuery to collect data from Cloud Logging and the Security Command Center. Create table expiry rules to delete logs after three years.

c)

Set up a logging export bucket in Cloud Storage to collect data from Cloud Audit Logs. Configure object lifecycle management rules to delete logs after three years.

d)

Set up a logging export dataset in BigQuery to collect data from Cloud Logging and Cloud Monitoring. Create table expiry rules to delete logs after three years.

e)

All of them

44.

How will Cymbal Bank be able to determine who performed a particular administrative action and when?

a)

Audit logs

b)

VPC service controls

c)

Cloud Monitoring

d)

VPC flow logs

e)

Cloud logs

45.

You are a cloud engineer at Cymbal Bank. You need to share the auditing and compliance standards with your CTO that cover controls over financial reporting and both public and private controls over security, availability, and confidentiality. Which compliance standard covers this?

a)

PCI-DSS

b)

GDPR

c)

SOX

d)

FIPs 140-2

e)

GCA

46.

Cymbal Bank has compliance requirements to ensure certain data is stored, processed, and never transferred or used outside of Europe. Which Google Cloud feature can help them achieve this?

a)

Sensitive Data Protection

b)

Audit logs

c)

Organization policy constraints

d)

VPC service controls

e)

Cloud Monitoring

47.

What type of cloud computing service lets you bind your application code to libraries that give access to the infrastructure your application needs?

a)

Hybrid cloud

b)

Virtualized data centers

c)

Platform as a service

d)

Infrastructure as a service

e)

Software as a service

48.

Which of these values is globally unique, permanent, and unchangeable, but can be modified by the customer during creation?

a)

The project number

b)

The project's billing credit-card number

c)

The project name

d)

The project ID

e)

The project address

49.

For which of these interconnect options is a Service Level Agreement available?

a)

Carrier Peering

b)

Direct Peering

c)

Standard Network Tier

d)

Dedicated Interconnect

e)

Google Cloud service

50.

Which relational database service can scale to higher database sizes?

a)

Firestore

b)

Cloud SQL

c)

Bigtable

d)

Spanner

e)

Google Cloud

51.

Which scenario is best suited for using Cloud Run instead of Cloud Run functions?

a)

Sending an email notification whenever a new document is added to a specific folder in Cloud Storage.

b)

Generating thumbnails for images uploaded to a Cloud Storage bucket.

c)

Hosting a dynamic web application that allows users to upload and share photos.

d)

Resizing images on demand when requested by a user through a web interface.

e)

Performing batch processing of large datasets for data analytic

52.

How can you avoid hallucinations when using a large language model?

a)

Train the model to operate with very few constraints.

b)

Train the model on a clean, curated dataset.

c)

Train the LLM on a smaller dataset.

d)

Do not add any context to your prompts.

e)

Provide clear, precise, and relevant context in your prompts.

53.

You want to lower cloud networking cost and have no problem leveraging the public internet for cross-region traffic. Which network service tier is best for you?

a)

Premium tier

b)

Standard tier

c)

Pro version

d)

Prime tier

e)

Basic tier

54.

Which of the following approaches to multi-project networking uses a centralized network administration model?

a)

VPC Network Peering

b)

Shared VPC

c)

Cloud VPN

d)

Cloud VPN and Shared VPC

e)

Private VPC

55.

You must create a VM that has an IPv6 address. How do you do it?

a)

Create an IPv6-only subnet, and create the VM with an IPv6 address.

b)

Create a dual-stack subnet, and create the VM with an IPv6 address.

c)

Create a single-stack network, and create the VM with an IPv6 address.

d)

Create a dual-stack network, and create the VM with an IPv6 address.

e)

Create an IPv4-only subnet, and create the VM with an IPv6 address.

56.

Private services access automatically configures which Google Cloud product to implement communication between the producer and consumer VPC networks?

a)

Private Google Access

b)

Cloud NAT

c)

Shared VPC

d)

VPC Network Peering

e)

Cloud Interconnect

57.

You are designing a Google Cloud network for a large financial services company with strict security requirements. The network needs to isolate sensitive customer data from other resources and limit communication between specific network segments. Which of the following network topologies would be most suitable for this scenario?

a)

Hub-and-spoke

b)

Mesh

c)

Gated ingress and egress

d)

Mirrored

e)

Star

58.

Which IAM role contains permissions to create, modify, and delete networking resources, except for firewall rules and SSL certificates?

a)

Network viewer

b)

Security administrator

c)

Network administrator

d)

Security viewer

e)

Network engineer

59.

When you use the internal IP address of the forwarding rule to specify an internal Network Load Balancer next hop, the load balancer can only be:

a)

In the same VPC network as the next hop route.

b)

In the same subnet as the next hop route.

c)

In the same subnet as the next hop route or a shared VPC network.

d)

In the same VPC network as the next hop route or in a peered VPC network.

e)

In the same region as the next hop route

60.

Which of the following statements is TRUE for the use of Cloud Identity?

a)

Your organization must use Google Workspace services in order to use Cloud Identity.

b)

Cloud Identity can work with any domain name that is able to receive email.

c)

You cannot use both Cloud Identity and Google Workspace services to manage your users across your domain.

d)

A Google Workspace or Cloud Identity account can be associated with more than one Organization.

e)

Cloud Identity requires a minimum of 10 users to set up.