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anesthesia for respiratory disease

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of asthma?

a)

Chronic inflammatory changes in the submucosa of the airways

b)

Airway hyper responsiveness

c)

Reversible expiratory airflow obstruction

d)

Elastase deficiency in the airways

2.

A 55-year-old male presented to you with a pulmonary function test report, which shows an increase in FEV1 of greater than 0.2 L (more than 12%) in response to bronchodilators. Which characteristic of his respiratory illness is depicted here?

a)

Bronchial asthma—acute bronchodilator responsiveness

b)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)—variability in airflow obstruction

c)

COPD—acute bronchodilator responsiveness

d)

Mild to moderate restrictive lung disease

3.

Which of the following techniques is associated with a lower complication rate related to bronchospasm in the asthmatic population?

a)

Regional anesthesia

b)

General anesthesia—laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

c)

General anesthesia—endotracheal tube (ETT)

d)

Combined general and neuraxial anesthesia

4.

A 22-year-old patient with a history of moderate persistent asthma on medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting inhaled β-agonist

presents for an emergency appendectomy. On clinical examination, he is actively wheezing, but maintaining an oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Which of the following statements about this clinical scenario is most appropriate?

a)

Presence of wheezing on physical examination indicates that he is having a severe attack of asthma

b)

Volatile anesthetics cause bronchodilation through catecholamine independent mechanisms

c)

Increased airway resistance that occurs intraoperatively is usually due to acute exacerbation of asthma

d)

A laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is more stimulating to the airway than an endotracheal tube, and should be avoided in asthmatics

5.

At the end of laparotomy for actively asthmatic patient (with preoperative wheezes), the surgeon requests you to extubate the patient fully awake because he found extensive intestinal adhesions and is afraid of retained gastric contents in the stomach. Which of the following will be your most likely plan of action?

a)

Insert an orogastric tube, empty the stomach as much as you can, and proceed with a deep extubation to avoid bronchospasm

b)

Administer intravenous lidocaine to decrease the likelihood of airway stimulation and wait till the patient is fully awake before extubation

c)

Shut off the inhalational agent and use intravenous propofol to avoid transitioning through a rocky stage-2 wake up

d)

Transition to a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) under sevoflurane anesthesia and let the patient wake up with an LMA

6.

Which of the following is true regarding administering general anesthesia to a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patient?

a)

Nitrous oxide + opioid technique is ideal

b)

Use large tidal volumes

c)

Use lower breathing rates to permit more exhalation time

d)

Correct the hypercapnia intraoperatively to help extubate early

7.

Which of the following is not a part of the “STOP BANG” screening questionnaire for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

a)

Snoring

b)

Observed apnea

c)

Exercise tolerance

d)

High blood pressure

8.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of asthma and heart failure is to undergo a hernia repair. On physical examination, you notice that the patient is wheezing. Following treatment with albuterol, the patient should be monitored for which electrolyte?

a)

Potassium

b)

Calcium

c)

Sodium

d)

Chloride

9.

A 75-year-old patient with coronary artery disease, hypertension, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is undergoing a left colectomy for cancer. He had a COPD exacerbation 4 months ago and was on steroids for a week at the time. Steroid replacement

a)

Should be given at a dose greater than 10 times the normal daily cortisol production rate

b)

Should not exceed 100 to 150 mg of cortisol equivalent per day

c)

Is not necessary in this patient

d)

Should include 100 mg of cortisol, tapered over 5 to 7 days

10.

Restrictive pulmonary diseases are best characterized by which physiological pattern?

a)

Increased FEV1/FVC with obstruction

b)

Elevated volumes with high resistance

c)

Normal compliance with low expiratory flow

d)

Decreased compliance and reduced volumes

11.

In early obstructive disease, which parameter is often the only abnormality detected?

a)

Forced expiratory flow 25–75% reduction

b)

Peak inspiratory pressure elevation

c)

Total lung capacity reduction

d)

Residual volume reduction

12.

As obstructive disease progresses, what typical pattern appears in spirometry?

a)

Increased FEV1 and increased FEV1/FVC

b)

Normal FEV1 with decreased TLC

c)

Increased FEV1 with increased diffusion capacity

d)

Decreased FEV1 and decreased FEV1/FVC

13.

Which statement best characterizes ipratropium’s role in asthma management?

a)

Direct phosphodiesterase inhibitor with narrow range

b)

Powerful mast cell stabilizer preventing degranulation

c)

Potent β1-selective bronchodilator for rescue

d)

Moderate antimuscarinic bronchodilator via inhalation

14.

Which clinical sign most strongly suggests impending respiratory failure in an acute asthma attack?

a)

Presence of pulsus paradoxus

b)

Increased TLC and RV on spirometry

c)

Low PaCO2 due to hyperventilation

d)

Normal or high PaCO2 indicating fatigue

15.

In treating severe acute asthma in the emergency setting, what is the most evidence-supported initial pharmacologic strategy?

a)

Start intravenous magnesium sulfate alone

b)

Give high-dose oral prednisone immediately

c)

Administer inhaled β2-agonist via nebulizer

d)

Begin leukotriene modifiers for rapid relief

16.

During inhalation induction, which agents more commonly provoke cough, laryngospasm, and bronchospasm?

a)

Isoflurane and desflurane

b)

Sevoflurane and halothane

c)

Enflurane and sevoflurane

d)

Nitrous oxide and xenon

17.

What capnography change suggests airflow obstruction ?

a)

High end-tidal CO2 without slope change

b)

Sudden drop of end-tidal CO2

c)

Delayed-expiration rise of end-tidal CO2 value

d)

Early-expiration rise of end-tidal CO2 value

18.

Which ventilatory approach helps avoid air trapping in severe asthma?

a)

Low tidal volumes with prolonged expiratory time

b)

High tidal volumes with short expiratory time

c)

High respiratory rate with long inspiratory time

d)

Zero PEEP with large tidal volumes

19.

Which drugs are best avoided due to histamine release precipitating bronchospasm?

a)

Fentanyl, rocuronium, ketamine release histamine

b)

Succinylcholine, dexmedetomidine release histamine

c)

Atracurium, morphine, meperidine release histamine

d)

Midazolam, propofol, glycopyrrolate release histamine

20.

What is the initial management priority for intraoperative bronchospasm?

a)

Switch to total intravenous anesthesia

b)

Increase opioid dosing significantly

c)

Decrease volatile anesthetic concentration immediately

d)

Administer aerosolized bronchodilator promptly

21.

Which criterion best defines the clinical diagnosis of chronic bronchitis?

a)

Productive cough on most days for 3 months each year for 2 years

b)

Productive cough present intermittently for 1 year

c)

Dry cough with wheeze for 6 months in a single year

d)

Productive cough only during respiratory infections

22.

Which finding most commonly differentiates emphysema from chronic bronchitis on chest radiograph?

a)

Lobar consolidation with air bronchograms

b)

Cardiomegaly with pulmonary venous congestion

c)

Diffuse interstitial infiltrates throughout both lungs

d)

Hyperinflation with flattened diaphragms

23.

Why might nitrous oxide be avoided in COPD patients ?

a)

It eliminates beneficial hypoxic vasoconstriction

b)

It causes bronchodilation only

c)

It may enlarge bullae and raise pulmonary pressures

d)

It raises dead space ventilation via 2nd gas effect

24.

In restrictive disease, how are FEV1 and FVC typically affected?

a)

FEV1 reduced, FVC normal, low ratio

b)

Both increased, with elevated FEV1/FVC ratio

c)

FEV1 normal, FVC reduced, high ratio

d)

Both reduced, with normal FEV1/FVC ratio

25.

During intraoperative care of ARDS, which ventilation strategy is appropriate?

a)

Low tidal volume 4–6 mL/kg with higher rate

b)

High tidal volume 10–12 mL/kg with low rate

c)

Peak airway pressures above 40 cm H2O routinely

d)

Zero PEEP with permissive hypoxia policy

26.

What end‑tidal CO2 consideration is typical with low tidal volume ventilation in ARDS?

a)

Increase in end‑tidal CO2 due to permissive hypercapnia

b)

Decrease in end‑tidal CO2 due to hyperventilation (rapid respiratory rate)

c)

No change in end‑tidal CO2 due to normal minute ventilation

d)

Immediate normalization of PaCO2 with high PEEP

27.

Which preoperative metric indicates severe dysfunction in chronic interstitial lung disease (ILD)?

a)

FEV1 greater than 70% predicted

b)

Vital capacity less than 15 mL/kg

c)

DLCO higher than normal limits

d)

Arterial oxygen saturation above 94%

28.

Which arterial blood gas pattern most commonly appears in acute pulmonary embolism in a spontanousely breathing patient?

a)

Mild hypoxemia with metabolic acidosis

b)

Mild hypoxemia with respiratory alkalosis

c)

Severe hypercapnia with normal oxygenation

d)

Normal gases without hypoxemia

29.

Which echocardiographic sign supports the diagnosis of massive pulmonary embolism perioperatively?

a)

Left atrial enlargement without dysfunction

b)

Normal right heart with septal thickening

c)

Right ventricular overload with tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Left ventricular dilation with high preload

30.

Which intraoperative change most specifically suggests pulmonary embolism?

a)

Stable end-tidal CO2 with tachycardia and/or arrhythmias

b)

Decrease in end-tidal CO2 concentration

c)

Increase in end-tidal CO2 concentration

d)

Increase in peak airway pressure without hypoxemia

31.

In pulmonary hypertension secondary to chronic thromboembolism, which perioperative therapy can lower pulmonary pressures?

a)

Epinephrine infusion for all cases

b)

High-dose beta-blockers routinely

c)

High sevoflurane and nitrous oxide

d)

Inhaled nitric oxide or prostacyclin

32.

When venous air is identified in the right atrium intraoperatively, which immediate action can be lifesaving?

a)

Administering aerosolized bronchodilator therapy

b)

Switching to pressure‑support ventilation

c)

Lowering FIo2 by addind nitrous oxide

d)

Emergency central venous cannulation with aspiration

33.

A 65-year-old woman with severe COPD is undergoing a laparoscopic hysterectomy under general anesthesia. Her end tidal CO2 is 65mmHg. After increasing her RR from 20 to 30 breaths per minute, you notice she is becoming hypotensive. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate in her initial management?

a)

Bolus 1mg epinephrine IV

b)

Bolus 2L IV fluid

c)

Disconnect the patient from the ventilator briefly

d)

Inform the surgeon that you need to cancel the case

34.

Which of the following helps distinguish obstructive from restrictive lung disease?

a)

Total lung capacity is reduced in both, but more in obstructive disease.

b)

FEV1/FVC is reduced in obstructive disease, but unchanged or increased in restrictive.

c)

FEV1/FVC is increased in obstructive disease, but unchanged or decreased in restrictive.

d)

DLCO is normal in obstructive disease, but reduced in restrictive.

35.

Reduced lung volumes with reduced Diffusing Capacity for Carbon Monoxide (DLCO) suggests what kind of disease?

a)

Restrictive disease due to interstitial lung disease

b)

Restrictive disease due to extra-pulmonary cause

c)

Obstructive disease due to COPD

d)

Obstructive disease due to asthma

36.

What is the most common cause of death, other than disease progression, in pulmonary fibrosis?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Right heart failure

c)

Hypercarbic respiratory failure

d)

End stage liver fibrosis

37.

Which of the following is more common in restrictive lung disease than obstructive lung disease?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Auto-Peep

d)

Increased residual volume

38.

A patient with restrictive lung disease, due to scoliosis, would be most likely to have which set of findings for lung volumes and Diffusing Capacity Carbon Monoxide (DLCO)?

a)

Normal lung volumes with reduced DLCO

b)

Reduced lung volumes with reduced DLCO

c)

Normal lung volumes with normal DLCO

d)

Reduced lung volumes with normal DLCO

39.

A 22-year-old woman with no significant medical history is undergoing laparoscopic appendectomy under general anesthesia. While placing the patient into Trendelenburg position, the SpO2 decreases from 100% to 92%. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

a)

Decrease in functional residual capacity

b)

Decrease in total lung capacity

c)

Decrease in closing capacity

d)

Extensive CO2 absorbtion

40.

An 80-year-old woman with no significant past medical history is scheduled to undergo a cystoscopy due to nephrolithiasis. Preoperatively, she is noted to have an SpO2 of 94% on room air. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the decrease in baseline SpO2?

a)

Decreased functional residual capacity

b)

Increased closing capacity

c)

Decreased compliance of small airways

d)

Respiratory muscles weakness with aging