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english 1

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main purpose of English for Academic Purposes (EAP)?

a)

To learn idioms and slang in English

b)

To practice writing personal emails

c)

To improve casual conversation skills

d)

To prepare learners for academic study and professional contexts

2.

What is the main purpose of English for Academic Purposes (EAP)?

a)

To learn idioms and slang in English

b)

To practice writing personal emails

c)

To improve casual conversation skills

d)

To prepare learners for academic study and professional contexts

3.

Which greeting is most appropriate in a formal academic email to a professor?

a)

Dear Professor Smith,

b)

Hey there!

c)

Hi John,

d)

Yo Prof,

4.

What is the main purpose of a formal academic email?

a)

To send personal messages to friends

b)

To communicate politely and professionally with academic staff

c)

To write short notes in slang

d)

To share jokes with classmates

5.

Which of the following is a proper closing for a formal academic email?

a)

Later!

b)

Best regards,

c)

Cheers!

d)

See ya,

6.

Which greeting is suitable for an informal email to a friend?

a)

To whom it may concern,

b)

Respectfully, Sir,

c)

Hi Sarah,

d)

Dear Mr. Smith,

7.

What is an important rule when writing an informal email?

a)

Always use academic references

b)

Use a friendly tone and casual language appropriate for the recipient

c)

Avoid using contractions

d)

Never include personal experiences

8.

What is the meaning of Primary care?

a)

Heart specialist

b)

Initial/basic medical help provided to patients

c)

Temporary substitute

d)

Specialized medical help

9.

Who is a Physician?

a)

A mental health expert

b)

A medical professional who treats patients

c)

An eye specialist

d)

A skin specialist

10.

What does a locum refer to?

a)

A skin condition

b)

A temporary substitute in a medical position

c)

A mental health professional

d)

A heart doctor

11.

What is an acute condition?

a)

A long-term disease

b)

A worsening or severe stage of illness

c)

A heart-related disorder

d)

A skin problem

12.

What does secondary care mean?

a)

An eye examination

b)

A temporary medical replacement

c)

Specialized medical care, usually provided by specialists

d)

Basic medical help

13.

Who is an ophthalmologist?

a)

A mental health professional

b)

A specialist in eye and vision care

c)

A heart doctor

d)

A doctor specializing in skin diseases

14.

What does a cardiologist specialize in?

a)

Eye care

b)

Skin diseases

c)

Heart and cardiovascular system

d)

Women's health

15.

Who is a psychiatrist?

a)

A heart doctor

b)

A specialist in mental health and disorders

c)

A temporary medical worker

d)

A skin doctor

16.

What is a dermatologist?

a)

A specialist treating skin conditions

b)

A heart specialist

c)

A mental health doctor

d)

An eye specialist

17.

Who is a gynecologist?

a)

An eye specialist

b)

A heart doctor

c)

A specialist in women’s reproductive health

d)

A skin doctor

18.

Who is an obstetrician?

a)

A skin specialist

b)

A doctor who uses needles for therapy

c)

A doctor who delivers babies and cares for pregnant women

d)

A doctor who specializes in children’s health

19.

What does a pediatrician specialize in?

a)

Heart conditions

b)

Pain management

c)

Child health and medical care for children

d)

Eye diseases

20.

What is the role of an anesthetist?

a)

A specialist in mental health

b)

A chiropractor

c)

A doctor who helps with surgery by administering anesthesia

d)

A homeopathic doctor

21.

What is alternative medicine?

a)

Medicine focused on children’s health

b)

Non-mainstream medical treatments, such as herbal remedies or acupuncture

c)

Traditional medical treatment using surgery

d)

Emergency medical care

22.

What does complementary medicine mean?

a)

Primary care services

b)

Medical practices used together with conventional medicine to improve health

c)

Surgery procedures

d)

Medicine that replaces traditional treatment

23.

Who are acupuncturists?

a)

Physicians primarily treating mental health disorders

b)

Doctors specializing in heart diseases

c)

Specialists focusing on skin care treatments

d)

Medical professionals who treat pain using inserted needles inti the body

24.

What do chiropractors do?

a)

B) Treat problems related to the spine and joints, often by manual adjustment

b)

A) Provide therapy using essential oils

c)

C) Administer anesthesia

d)

D) Treat children’s illnesses

25.

What is a homeopathic doctor?

a)

A) A doctor who uses tiny amounts of natural substances to treat illnesses

b)

B) A specialist in surgery

c)

C) A chiropractor

d)

D) A heart specialist

26.

What does an aroma therapist do?

a)

Uses oils and scents to promote physical and mental well-being

b)

Specializes in children’s health and development

c)

Diagnoses and treats heart diseases in adults

d)

Provides dermatological care for chronic skin issues

27.

What is the main purpose of skimming when reading a text?

a)

To read every word carefully and slowly

b)

To get the general idea quickly

c)

To analyze language style in depth

d)

To find specific facts or details precisely

28.

When would you use scanning as a reading strategy?

a)

When trying to understand the main theme broadly

b)

When reviewing grammar rules thoroughly

c)

When looking for a specific piece of information or keyword

d)

When reading for leisure and enjoyment

29.

Which tip is good for skimming?

a)

Read only the first and last sentences of paragraphs

b)

Read every sentence slowly without skipping

c)

Focus primarily on punctuation marks throughout

d)

Write a summary of each individual paragraph

30.

Which option best describes scanning?

a)

Reading to understand the writer’s personal style

b)

Quickly moving eyes over text to find numbers or dates

c)

Reading aloud to memorize the content

d)

Analyzing paragraph structure carefully for tone

31.

What is a common use of skimming in academic reading?

a)

Getting an overview of a chapter before detailed study

b)

Preparing for an exam by memorizing details

c)

Checking spelling mistakes before submission

d)

Writing an essay conclusion for an assignment

32.

Which skill is NOT usually involved in scanning?

a)

Ignoring irrelevant information while searching

b)

Recognizing keywords related to the topic

c)

Searching for specific data like names or dates

d)

Reading every word carefully from start to end

33.

How does skimming help improve reading speed?

a)

By skipping unnecessary words and focusing on main points

b)

By memorizing the text using repetition

c)

By reading aloud to maintain consistent pacing

d)

By rewriting the text into shorter summaries

34.

Which sentence describes the difference between skimming and scanning?

a)

Skimming is fast reading for gist; scanning searches for specific info

b)

Scanning is reading aloud; skimming is silent reading

c)

Skimming is for details; scanning is for general ideas

d)

Both mean reading every word carefully without skipping

35.

Which is NOT an effective scanning strategy?

a)

Reading the whole text slowly from beginning to end

b)

Moving your eyes quickly over the text for targets

c)

Knowing what you want to find before reading

d)

Looking for keywords or numbers while scanning

36.

What is the main purpose of a descriptive essay about a line graph?

a)

To list unrelated facts without interpretation

b)

To tell a personal story related to the topic

c)

To argue a particular opinion on the data

d)

To describe trends and changes shown in the graph

37.

When describing a line graph, what should you mention first?

a)

The colors used in the graphic elements

b)

Your opinion about the significance of trends

c)

The title of the graph and what it represents

d)

The number of lines only without context

38.

Which phrase best reports an increase in a line graph?

a)

The graph is complicated to interpret

b)

The data remained constant throughout

c)

The number rose steadily over time

d)

There was a decline across the period

39.

What should you avoid when writing about charts and graphs?

a)

Giving personal opinions and unsupported guesses

b)

Describing patterns and changes clearly

c)

Using clear data references in the description

d)

Using comparative language to show differences

40.

How can you describe a sudden drop in a line graph?

a)

The chart looks good aesthetically

b)

The figure increased slowly overall

c)

The number was stable across years

d)

There was a sharp decline in values

41.

Which is a good way to compare two lines on a graph?

a)

The graph has two lines displayed

b)

The lines are different lengths visibly

c)

Both lines are blue in the chart

d)

Line A increased, while Line B decreased

42.

When describing a pie chart, what key information should be included?

a)

The size of each slice and what it represents

b)

Your favorite slice among the categories

c)

How many slices exist without details

d)

Only the colors used in the chart slices

43.

Which phrase describes a stable trend in a line graph?

a)

The figures fluctuated wildly throughout

b)

There was little change over time overall

c)

The numbers doubled suddenly at midpoint

d)

The data is missing for several points

44.

How do you describe the highest point in a line graph?

a)

A) “The peak was reached in July”

b)

B) “The graph ends there”

c)

C) “The line was low”

d)

D) “The color changed”

45.

When summarizing a descriptive essay that includes charts, what is the best approach?

a)

Repeat every number and label exactly

b)

Give an overview of main trends and key points

c)

State your personal opinions only

d)

Describe unrelated background information

46.

45. What is common law?

a)

Law based on religious beliefs

b)

Law based on judicial decisions and precedents

c)

C) Law based on customs and traditions

d)

D) Law based on legislation passed by the government

47.

46. Which type of law is primarily concerned with private rights and civil disputes?

a)

A) Religious law

b)

B) Common law

c)

C) Civil law

d)

D) Customary law

48.

What defines customary law?

a)

Laws created by elected officials

b)

Laws established by court rulings

c)

Laws based on the customs and traditions of a community

d)

Laws written in religious texts

49.

48. What is religious law based on?

a)

Religious doctrines and beliefs

b)

Judicial precedents

c)

Government legislation

d)

Social customs

50.

What is case law also known as?

a)

Law based on customary practices

b)

Law derived from written legislation

c)

Law based on previous court decisions (precedents)

d)

Law based on religious texts

51.

What does the abbreviation “e.g.” mean?

a)

For example

b)

That is

c)

And so on

d)

In other words

52.

What does the symbol “%” represent?

a)

Percentage

b)

Per hour

c)

Plus or minus

d)

Per mile

53.

What does the abbreviation “i.e.” stand for?

a)

That is to say

b)

In conclusion

c)

Before everything

d)

For instance

54.

The symbol “&” typically means what?

a)

Or

b)

Because

c)

And

d)

But

55.

What does “etc.” stand for in writing?

a)

And the others

b)

And so on

c)

As stated above

d)

Without exceptions

56.

The abbreviation “vs.” is used to mean what?

a)

Various subjects

b)

Versus (against)

c)

Very soon

d)

Volume size

57.

The symbol “@” is commonly read as what?

a)

About

b)

At

c)

Around

d)

After

58.

What does “N/A” usually indicate in a table or form?

a)

No answer

b)

Not applicable

c)

New application

d)

Not available

59.

The symbol “#” is often called which of the following?

a)

Plus sign

b)

Percentage sign

c)

Hashtag or number sign

d)

Dollar sign

60.

What is the abbreviation “Mr.” short for?

a)

Mister

b)

Master

c)

Madam

d)

Miss

61.

60. 1. What is an important part of the content in a good presentation?

a)

Very long sentences and dense text

b)

Avoiding all visuals entirely

c)

Only personal stories

d)

Clear main ideas supported by facts and examples

62.

What helps organize presentation content effectively?

a)

Speaking without any preparation

b)

Random order of points

c)

Reading everything from slides

d)

A clear introduction, body, and conclusion

63.

How can you make presentation content more engaging?

a)

Use complex jargon only

b)

Include stories, questions, or interesting facts

c)

Avoid audience interaction entirely

d)

Speak in a monotone voice

64.

When preparing content, what is generally best practice?

a)

Memorize every word without understanding

b)

Use bullet points and visuals to support key ideas

c)

Overload slides with text

d)

Ignore the audience’s needs

65.

Which item should be avoided in presentation content?

a)

Clear and relevant information

b)

B) Unrelated details and excessive information

c)

C) Facts supported by evidence

d)

D) Using simple language

66.

65. What is a key aspect of good delivery in a presentation?

a)

Speaking clearly and at a moderate pace

b)

Reading directly from the slides without eye contact

c)

Speaking as fast as possible

d)

Avoiding gestures and facial expressions

67.

66. How can you effectively engage your audience during a presentation?

a)

By maintaining eye contact and using gestures

b)

By avoiding any movement

c)

By turning your back to the audience

d)

By whispering throughout

68.

What is a helpful way to manage presentation nervousness?

a)

Focus on slides and avoid the audience

b)

Avoid preparing to sound natural

c)

Ignore it and speak as fast as possible

d)

Practice beforehand and take deep breaths

69.

How important is body language in presentations?

a)

Distracts audiences from content

b)

Only voice matters for persuasion

c)

Not important in professional contexts

d)

Very important for confidence and engagement

70.

If you lose your place while speaking, what should you do first?

a)

Rush to finish quickly without clarity

b)

Panic and stop speaking immediately

c)

Apologize repeatedly for the mistake

d)

Pause, breathe, and glance at your notes

71.

Who proposed the theory of multiple intelligences?

a)

Jean Piaget

b)

B. F. Skinner

c)

Sigmund Freud

d)

Howard Gardner

72.

71. What type of intelligence involves the ability to think logically and solve mathematical problems?

a)

Linguistic intelligence

b)

Logical-mathematical intelligence

c)

Musical intelligence

d)

Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

73.

Which intelligence focuses on understanding and using language effectively?

a)

Linguistic intelligence

b)

Interpersonal intelligence

c)

Naturalistic intelligence

d)

Spatial intelligence

74.

Bodily‑kinesthetic intelligence involves the ability to:

a)

Appreciate music and identify complex rhythms

b)

Control body movements and handle objects skillfully

c)

Understand others’ feelings and social cues

d)

Recognize patterns in nature and ecosystems

75.

Which intelligence involves sensitivity to sounds, rhythms, and music?

a)

Intrapersonal intelligence

b)

Spatial intelligence

c)

Logical intelligence

d)

Musical intelligence

76.

Interpersonal intelligence refers to the ability to:

a)

Solve complex mathematical theorems

b)

Use language elegantly and persuasively

c)

Understand oneself deeply and privately

d)

Interact well with others and understand their emotions

77.

Which intelligence involves self‑awareness and understanding one’s own feelings?

a)

Bodily‑kinesthetic intelligence

b)

Intrapersonal intelligence

c)

Interpersonal intelligence

d)

Logical intelligence

78.

Spatial intelligence best relates to the ability to:

a)

Perform and compose musical pieces

b)

Manipulate grammar and language structures

c)

Solve algebraic and geometric problems

d)

Think in three dimensions and visualize objects

79.

Naturalistic intelligence primarily concerns the ability to:

a)

Excel in competitive athletic activities

b)

Perform at a high level in musical arts

c)

Understand and categorize plants, animals, and phenomena

d)

Engage socially and build strong networks

80.

Which intelligence is most associated with leadership and communication skills?

a)

Interpersonal intelligence

b)

Naturalistic intelligence

c)

Linguistic intelligence

d)

Bodily‑kinesthetic intelligence

81.

Which option best defines a tangible product?

a)

A subscription to access digital content

b)

A physical product you can touch and see

c)

An idea that cannot be physically handled

d)

A service provided by a company to clients

82.

Which is an example of an intangible product?

a)

A software subscription

b)

A laptop computer

c)

A car for personal use

d)

A printed book copy

83.

Which characteristic is typical of intangible goods?

a)

Cannot be physically possessed

b)

Easily stored in physical inventory

c)

Usually lasts many years with wear

d)

Simple to transport like a parcel

84.

83. Which of these is a tangible good?

a)

A concert performance

b)

A haircut

c)

A bottle of water

d)

Online consulting

85.

What is the key difference between tangible and intangible goods?

a)

Intangible goods must be physical objects

b)

Tangible goods are inherently digital products

c)

Intangible goods are always free to consumers

d)

Tangible goods can be touched; intangible goods cannot

86.

Which option best defines a durable good?

a)

A service with no physical presence at all

b)

A product consumed quickly right after purchase

c)

A perishable item with a short shelf life

d)

A product that lasts long and can be reused repeatedly

87.

Which of the following is a non-durable good?

a)

Refrigerator

b)

Sofa

c)

Bread

d)

Car

88.

Which characteristic is true for durable goods?

a)

They are consumed in one use

b)

They typically have a long lifespan

c)

They cannot be resold

d)

They are always intangible

89.

Non-durable goods are:

a)

Items used up quickly or consumed in one or few uses

b)

Products that last many years

c)

Services offered in stores

d)

Always electronic devices

90.

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a)

Durable good — Washing machine

b)

Non-durable good — Car

c)

Durable good — Milk

d)

Non-durable good — Laptop

91.

Which of the following best defines culture?

a)

Only the traditions of a country

b)

Shared values, beliefs, norms, and behaviours of a group

c)

Inherited physical traits of a group

d)

The food and clothing of people

92.

Culture is:

a)

Only visible in clothing and art

b)

Inherited genetically

c)

Learned through socialization and experience

d)

Completely static

93.

Which statement is true about culture?

a)

It is dynamic and evolves over time

b)

It only exists in modern societies

c)

It never changes

d)

It is inherited biologically

94.

Which of the following is a visible aspect of culture?

a)

Clothing

b)

Beliefs

c)

Values

d)

Attitudes

95.

Which of these is considered a non-visible aspect of culture?

a)

Language

b)

Beliefs

c)

Food

d)

Music

96.

Examples of surface culture include:

a)

Attitudes and communication norms

b)

Gender expectations

c)

Language, food, and art

d)

Values and beliefs

97.

Deep culture includes:

a)

Art and festivals

b)

Attitudes, communication norms, and gender expectations

c)

Language and food

d)

Clothing and music

98.

The two layers of culture are:

a)

Visible and invisible laws

b)

Surface (observable) and deep (unobservable) culture

c)

Traditional and modern culture

d)

Primary and secondary culture

99.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Deep culture only applies to ancient societies

b)

Surface culture is always more important than deep culture

c)

Surface culture is easy to see and includes food, clothing, and music

d)

Deep culture is easier to observe than surface culture

100.

A belief that affects behaviour but is not visible is part of:

a)

Surface culture

b)

Deep culture

c)

Modern culture

d)

Traditional culture

101.

What is a linear process?

a)

A process that happens randomly

b)

A process that follows a straight, sequential order from start to finish

c)

A process that repeats in cycles

d)

A process with multiple overlapping layers

102.

Which of the following is an example of a linear process?

a)

Seasons changing

b)

Manufacturing a product from raw material to finished item

c)

Layers of government decision-making

d)

The water cycle

103.

What characterizes a cyclical process?

a)

It is always faster than linear processes

b)

It is unpredictable

c)

It follows a repeating sequence of stages or events

d)

It happens only once

104.

Which of the following is an example of a cyclical process?

a)

Annual seasons or life cycles

b)

Cooking a meal step by step

c)

Building a house

d)

Writing an essay

105.

What is a multi-layered process?

a)

A process that is strictly sequential

b)

A process with several interacting levels that may overlap

c)

A process with one step after another

d)

A process that repeats endlessly

106.

Which of the following is an example of a multi-layered process?

a)

Following a straight assembly line

b)

Brushing your teeth

c)

Urban planning involving social, economic, and environmental layers

d)

Baking a cake

107.

Which statement is true?

a)

Linear processes never have a start or end

b)

Cyclical processes do not repeat

c)

Linear processes are always faster than cyclical ones

d)

Multi-layered processes involve interconnected steps that may occur simultaneously

108.

A process that moves step by step in one direction is:

a)

Cyclical

b)

Linear

c)

Random

d)

Multi-layered

109.

Processes like climate systems or life cycles are best described as:

a)

Linear

b)

Cyclical

c)

Multi-layered

d)

Static

110.

Which type of process is most suitable for analyzing complex systems with multiple interacting factors?

a)

Simple

b)

Multi-layered

c)

Cyclical

d)

Linear

111.

What does equality of opportunity mean?

a)

Everyone receives the same salary

b)

Everyone studies the same subject

c)

Everyone has the same chances to succeed

d)

Everyone has the same wealth

112.

What are student loans?

a)

Tuition fee discounts

b)

Free grants given to students

c)

Money students can borrow and repay later when working

d)

Scholarships that do not need repayment

113.

Elitism refers to:

a)

A system where everyone is treated equally

b)

A small, privileged group

c)

Equal distribution of wealth

d)

The belief in hard work

114.

Something inherent in a system is:

a)

Easily removed from the system

b)

Temporary and short-lived

c)

Existing as a basic part of it

d)

Accidental or optional

115.

League tables are:

a)

Lists of tuition fees by program

b)

Rankings of student performance in one school

c)

Lists of schools or colleges ranked from best to worst

d)

Sports competitions for schools

116.

To perpetuate something means to:

a)

Make it continue

b)

Stop it immediately

c)

Hide it from view

d)

Criticize it publicly

117.

A two-tier system refers to:

a)

A system with one level only

b)

A system with only online courses

c)

A system with two separate levels, one better than the other

d)

A system with equal opportunities

118.

To perceive something is to:

a)

Memorize it exactly as given

b)

Forget it quickly after seeing

c)

See or consider it in a certain way

d)

Ignore it completely

119.

A well-endowed institution:

a)

Has very few resources for students

b)

Only accepts rich students

c)

Receives a lot of money in grants or donations

d)

Charges no tuition fees at all

120.

Tertiary education refers to:

a)

Preschool and early years

b)

University or college education

c)

Primary school level education

d)

Secondary school level education

121.

What should you do when the captain says, “Fasten your seatbelt”?

a)

Go to the aisle while seated

b)

Put on your seatbelt securely

c)

Remove your belt immediately

d)

Take your luggage to the aisle

122.

What does it mean to unfasten your seatbelt?

a)

Recline your seat back

b)

Buckle your seatbelt again

c)

Take off your seatbelt

d)

Move your seat forward

123.

To put a seat into upright position means:

a)

Sit up straight comfortably

b)

Make the seat vertical

c)

Move the seat forward slightly

d)

Recline the seat backward

124.

To put a seat back means:

a)

Move the seat to aisle

b)

Take the seat cushion out

c)

Fold the seat upright

d)

Recline the seat

125.

Someone who feels airsick:

a)

Enjoys flying without issues

b)

Feels ill during the flight

c)

Can’t find their seat on board

d)

Is allergic to luggage and tags

126.

An aisle is:

a)

The emergency exit row

b)

The luggage compartment area

c)

The space between rows of seats

d)

The window on the aircraft

127.

An aisle seat is:

a)

Next to the window

b)

Next to the aisle

c)

In the middle of the row

d)

In first class only

128.

A window seat is:

a)

Next to the aisle space

b)

In the middle of the row

c)

Next to the window frame

d)

Located only in front rows

129.

Baggage reclaim is:

a)

The boarding gate

b)

The place to collect your luggage after the flight

c)

The check-in counter

d)

The security check

130.

A boarding pass is:

a)

A luggage receipt

b)

A passport

c)

A baggage tag

d)

A ticket that allows you to enter the plane

131.

A connecting flight is:

a)

A flight that is cancelled

b)

A direct flight

c)

A flight for cargo only

d)

A flight that continues after a stopover

132.

Excess luggage refers to:

a)

Luggage that is lost

b)

Hand luggage only

c)

Luggage above the allowed weight

d)

Luggage below weight limit

133.

Arrivals is the area in an airport where:

a)

Luggage is weighed

b)

Passengers leave the airport

c)

Passengers come after landing

d)

Passengers check in

134.

Departures is the area in an airport where:

a)

Security checks are done only

b)

Baggage is collected

c)

Passengers arrive

d)

Passengers leave for flights

135.

Luggage / baggage refers to:

a)

Passengers’ personal belongings carried on the flight

b)

Boarding passes

c)

Tickets for flights

d)

The plane seats

136.

A porter is:

a)

A person who flies the plane

b)

A person giving announcements

c)

A person who helps passengers with luggage

d)

A person checking passports

137.

Take off refers to:

a)

Collecting luggage

b)

Boarding the plane

c)

When the plane leaves the ground and starts flying

d)

Landing the plane

138.

Landing refers to:

a)

When the plane reaches the ground after flight

b)

When the plane leaves the airport

c)

Boarding a connecting flight

d)

Checking in

139.

Wheelchairs at airports are for:

a)

Transporting pilots

b)

Seating in planes

c)

Moving luggage

d)

Helping passengers with reduced mobility

140.

Turbulence refers to:

a)

Flight announcements

b)

Airplane maintenance

c)

Sudden, irregular movements of the plane during flight

d)

Smooth flight conditions

141.

What is the main purpose of an introduction in an essay?

a)

To summarize the conclusion

b)

To present the topic and thesis statement

c)

To provide detailed evidence

d)

To list references

142.

A thesis statement is:

a)

A topic sentence in the body paragraph

b)

A sentence that gives examples

c)

A statement summarizing the main argument of the essay

d)

A concluding remark

143.

The body paragraphs of an essay should:

a)

Introduce new unrelated topics

b)

Present evidence, examples, and analysis supporting the thesis

c)

Repeat the introduction word for word

d)

Contain only opinions without support

144.

The conclusion of an essay should:

a)

Describe unrelated topics

b)

Restate the thesis and summarize main points

c)

Introduce new arguments

d)

Include only citations

145.

Which of the following is a descriptive essay?

a)

An essay that argues a point

b)

An essay that explains a process step by step

c)

An essay that critiques a book

d)

An essay that describes a graph, chart, or system

146.

What is a topic sentence?

a)

A sentence giving an example

b)

A sentence summarizing the main idea of a paragraph

c)

The first sentence of the introduction

d)

The concluding sentence of the essay

147.

Which type of essay compares two or more ideas or cultures?

a)

Narrative essay

b)

Compare and contrast essay

c)

Argumentative essay

d)

Descriptive essay

148.

Which of the following is true about formal academic essays?

a)

Use contractions and informal language

b)

Use clear structure, formal language, and evidence-based arguments

c)

Include personal stories only

d)

Do not need a thesis statement

149.

A paragraph in an academic essay should generally contain:

a)

Multiple unrelated ideas

b)

One main idea supported by evidence

c)

A list of references

d)

Only quotations

150.

Which of the following is a common mistake in essay writing?

a)

Organizing paragraphs logically

b)

Using credible sources

c)

Ignoring topic relevance

d)

Restating the thesis in the conclusion

151.

What is the primary purpose of citing sources in academic writing?

a)

To impress the reader with references

b)

To replace original analysis entirely

c)

To give credit and avoid plagiarism

d)

To lengthen the bibliography section

152.

Which of the following is an example of in-text citation in APA style?

a)

“The sky is blue.”

b)

Table 1

c)

Smith, 2020