WorksheetsAP Psychology: Introduction to Psychology Assessment
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Psychology is defined as:
a)
The study of mental disorders and their treatments
b)
The scientific study of mind and behavior
c)
The philosophical examination of human consciousness
d)
The study of emotional and social intelligence
2.
Which of the following best represents the focus of William James' functionalism?
a)
Breaking down consciousness into its basic elements
b)
Examining the unconscious mind as a repository of feelings and urges
c)
Studying how mental activities help an organism fit into its environment
d)
Applying conditioning principles to modify behavior
3.
The biopsychosocial model in health psychology suggests that:
a)
Biological factors are more important than psychological factors in determining health
b)
Social factors alone determine an individual's health outcomes
c)
Health is determined by an interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors
d)
Psychological factors are the primary determinants of physical health
4.
Evolutionary psychology differs from biopsychology in that evolutionary psychology:
a)
Focuses on the immediate physiological causes of behavior
b)
Studies the ultimate biological causes of behavior through natural selection
c)
Rejects the influence of genetics on human behavior
d)
Exclusively studies animal behavior rather than human behavior
5.
Which of the following is an example of the type of research B.F. Skinner conducted?
a)
Analysis of dream content to reveal unconscious desires
b)
Case studies of individuals with rare psychological disorders
c)
Experiments using operant conditioning chambers to study behavior modification
d)
Surveys about how cultural differences influence personality development
6.
According to the Five Factor Model of personality, which of the following traits is characterized by being helpful, trusting, and empathetic?
a)
Openness
b)
Conscientiousness
c)
Extroversion
d)
Agreeableness
7.
Which early psychological perspective is most associated with the statement that "no biological organism exists in isolation, and our behavior is influenced by our interactions with others"?
a)
Structuralism
b)
Psychoanalysis
c)
Functionalism
d)
Behaviorism
8.
The cognitive revolution in psychology was influenced by developments in which fields?
a)
Linguistics, neuroscience, and computer science
b)
Medicine, biology, and chemistry
c)
Philosophy, art, and literature
d)
Sociology, anthropology, and economics
9.
Which of the following examples best illustrates the work of a forensic psychologist?
a)
Conducting research on the effectiveness of different teaching methods
b)
Assessing a defendant's competency to stand trial
c)
Designing ergonomic workstations to improve employee productivity
d)
Developing treatment plans for patients with chronic pain
10.
What is the hallmark of scientific research that distinguishes it from other methods people use to understand behavior?
a)
It is based on intuition and personal experience
b)
It is grounded in objective, tangible evidence
c)
It relies on authority figures' statements
d)
It depends on blind luck and chance
11.
In the scientific method, what is the relationship between inductive and deductive reasoning?
a)
They are completely independent processes
b)
Deductive reasoning always precedes inductive reasoning
c)
They are inseparable processes, like inhaling and exhaling
d)
Inductive reasoning is only used in qualitative research
12.
The D.A.R.E. program as an example of:
a)
A successful intervention based on scientific evidence
b)
How research can guide public policy decisions
c)
The reliability of anecdotal evidence
d)
How deception is sometimes necessary in research
13.
What is the key difference between facts and opinions?
a)
Facts are always true while opinions can be false
b)
Facts are observable realities established through empirical research
c)
Opinions are more reliable than facts in psychological research
d)
Facts are based on intuition while opinions are based on evidence
14.
What is a hypothesis?
a)
A well-developed set of ideas that propose an explanation for observed phenomena
b)
A testable prediction about how the world will behave if our idea is correct
c)
A method of collecting data through direct observation
d)
The final conclusion of a research study
15.
Which research method is described as providing the richest information about individuals but having limitations in generalizing to larger populations?
a)
Surveys
b)
Naturalistic observation
c)
Case studies
d)
Archival research
16.
In the context of experimental design, what is the purpose of random assignment?
a)
To ensure that the sample represents the larger population
b)
To eliminate the need for a control group
c)
To make it unlikely that there are systematic differences between groups
d)
To increase the validity of self-reported data
17.
Correlation does not indicate causation because:
a)
Correlational research never produces significant results
b)
A confounding variable could be causing the systematic movement in the variables
c)
Correlations are always negative in psychological research
d)
Researchers can never establish the strength of relationships between variables
18.
In a double-blind study, who is unaware of which participants are in the experimental or control groups?
a)
Only the participants
b)
Only the researchers
c)
Both the researchers and the participants
d)
Neither the researchers nor the participants
19.
What is the purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) in psychological research?
a)
To conduct peer review of journal articles
b)
To ensure the ethical treatment of research participants
c)
To replicate studies to determine their reliability
d)
To assign participants randomly to experimental conditions
20.
What is the primary function of myelin in the nervous system?
a)
It produces neurotransmitters
b)
It increases the speed of neural transmission
c)
It generates action potentials
d)
It creates new synaptic connections
21.
The substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area (VTA) are involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Movement
b)
Reward processing
c)
Addiction
d)
Language comprehension
22.
A patient with damage to Wernicke's area would most likely experience:
a)
Difficulty producing speech
b)
Difficulty comprehending language
c)
Loss of motor control
d)
Inability to form new memories
23.
In the sickle-cell anemia example from the text, what evolutionary concept is illustrated?
a)
Genetic drift
b)
Sexual selection
c)
Artificial selection
d)
Natural selection
24.
Which of the following best describes the "all-or-none" principle of action potentials?
a)
Either all neurons fire or none of them do
b)
A neuron either fires at full strength or not at all
c)
All neurotransmitters are released or none are released
d)
Either all receptors are activated or none are activated
25.
The corpus callosum serves which primary function?
a)
Connecting the brain to the spinal cord
b)
Connecting the left and right hemispheres
c)
Connecting the forebrain to the hindbrain
d)
Connecting the cerebral cortex to the limbic system
26.
What is the role of the hypothalamus in relation to the endocrine system?
a)
It secretes hormones that regulate blood sugar
b)
It controls the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
c)
It serves as an interface between the nervous system and endocrine system
d)
It produces growth hormone
27.
Which brain imaging technique uses radioactive tracers to map brain activity?
a)
fMRI
b)
EEG
c)
CT scan
d)
PET scan
28.
Which division of the autonomic nervous system is associated with the "fight or flight" response?
a)
Parasympathetic nervous system
b)
Somatic nervous system
c)
Sympathetic nervous system
d)
Central nervous system
29.
Which part of the brain houses the body's biological clock?
a)
Pituitary gland
b)
Thalamus
c)
Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
d)
Pineal gland
30.
What is a circadian rhythm?
a)
A biological rhythm that takes place over a lunar month
b)
A biological rhythm that takes place over approximately 24 hours
c)
The pattern of REM and non-REM sleep cycles
d)
The release pattern of growth hormone during sleep
31.
Which of the following brain wave patterns is associated with stage 3 NREM sleep?
a)
Alpha waves
b)
Beta waves
c)
Theta waves
d)
Delta waves
32.
What is sleep debt?
a)
The amount of sleep a person needs to function optimally
b)
The chronic deficiency in sleep that accumulates over time
c)
The increased tendency to fall asleep after experiencing REM deprivation
d)
The financial cost of treating sleep disorders
33.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of narcolepsy?
a)
Falling asleep at inopportune times
b)
Cataplexy
c)
Hallucinations during sleep attacks
d)
Increased muscle tone during REM sleep
34.
What is the difference between manifest content and latent content according to Freud's theory of dreams?
a)
Manifest content is remembered upon waking, while latent content is forgotten
b)
Manifest content is the actual storyline of a dream, while latent content is the hidden meaning
c)
Manifest content occurs during REM sleep, while latent content occurs during NREM sleep
d)
Manifest content is universal across cultures, while latent content is culturally specific
35.
Which of the following statements about hypnosis is FALSE?
a)
Hypnosis involves extreme self-focus and attention
b)
People under hypnosis typically have clear memories of the experience
c)
Hypnosis causes individuals to lose control of their behaviors
d)
Brain imaging studies show global changes in brain functioning during hypnotic states
36.
Which neurotransmitter system is most directly affected by stimulants like cocaine and amphetamines?
a)
GABA
b)
Acetylcholine
c)
Dopamine
d)
Serotonin
37.
What is the primary mechanism by which alcohol affects the brain?
a)
It acts as a GABA agonist
b)
It blocks dopamine reuptake
c)
It stimulates acetylcholine release
d)
It inhibits glutamate receptors
38.
Which sleep disorder is characterized by episodes where breathing stops during sleep?
a)
Narcolepsy
b)
Insomnia
c)
Restless leg syndrome
d)
Sleep apnea
39.
What is the primary difference between sensation and perception?
a)
Sensation is a psychological process, while perception is a physical process
b)
Sensation is the detection of sensory information, while perception is the organization and interpretation of that information
c)
Sensation requires attention, while perception is automatic
d)
Sensation involves bottom-up processing, while perception involves only top-down processing
40.
Which of the following best describes the concept of absolute threshold?
a)
The minimum difference in stimulus intensity that can be detected
b)
The point at which a stimulus becomes painful
c)
The minimum amount of stimulus energy required to be detected 50% of the time
d)
The difference in stimulus intensity that is just noticeable
41.
When examining visual stimuli, what physical property of light waves is associated with our perception of color?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Wavelength
c)
Timbre
d)
Frequency of neural firing
42.
The trichromatic theory of color vision proposes that:
a)
Color is coded in opponent pairs: black-white, yellow-blue, and red-green
b)
Three types of cones in the retina are each maximally sensitive to different wavelengths of light
c)
Color perception occurs primarily in the occipital lobe
d)
Color vision results from the combination of rods and cones working together
43.
Which structure in the ear converts mechanical sound waves into neural impulses?
a)
Ossicles
b)
Tympanic membrane
c)
Semicircular canals
d)
Hair cells in the basilar membrane
44.
According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, which of the following color combinations would NOT be experienced together?
a)
Red and orange
b)
Blue and purple
c)
Yellow and blue
d)
Green and yellow
45.
When you stare at a visual stimulus for an extended period and then look at a blank surface, you might see a negative afterimage. This phenomenon best supports which theory of color vision?
a)
Trichromatic theory
b)
Place theory
c)
Opponent-process theory
d)
Temporal theory
46.
Which Gestalt principle explains why we tend to perceive a complete circle even when parts of it are missing?
a)
Proximity
b)
Similarity
c)
Good continuation
d)
Closure
47.
What is the primary function of the vestibular system?
a)
Processing auditory information
b)
Maintaining balance and body posture
c)
Converting light energy to neural signals
d)
Detecting chemical signals in the environment
48.
What is the key difference between instincts and learned behaviors?
a)
Instincts are found only in humans, while learned behaviors are found in all animals
b)
Instincts involve complex patterns while learned behaviors are always simple
c)
Instincts are innate (unlearned) while learned behaviors involve change and experience
d)
Instincts require higher brain centers, while learned behaviors involve primitive brain centers
49.
In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiments with dogs, what was the unconditioned stimulus (UCS)?
a)
The sound of a bell
b)
The laboratory assistants' footsteps
c)
The salivation response
d)
The meat powder
50.
What is the term for when a conditioned stimulus is used to condition another stimulus, such as when a squeaky cabinet becomes associated with the electric can opener?
a)
Acquisition
b)
Higher-order conditioning
c)
Stimulus discrimination
d)
Spontaneous recovery
51.
The Rescorla-Wagner model helps explain:
a)
Why some associations are learned more quickly than others
b)
How to use punishment most effectively
c)
The process of operant conditioning
d)
Why observational learning occurs without reinforcement
52.
In B.F. Skinner's operant conditioning experiments, what was the primary purpose of the "Skinner box"?
a)
To demonstrate classical conditioning principles
b)
To systematically study how behaviors are strengthened or weakened by consequences
c)
To prove that cognition doesn't matter in learning
d)
To study observational learning in controlled conditions
53.
What is the difference between negative reinforcement and punishment?
a)
Negative reinforcement decreases behavior while punishment increases it
b)
Negative reinforcement involves adding something while punishment involves removing something
c)
Negative reinforcement increases behavior by removing something unpleasant, while punishment decreases behavior
d)
Negative reinforcement only works with animals, while punishment works with humans
54.
Which reinforcement schedule would be most resistant to extinction?
a)
Fixed ratio
b)
Variable ratio
c)
Fixed interval
d)
Continuous reinforcement
55.
In Albert Bandura's Bobo doll experiments, what key concept was demonstrated?
a)
That children only imitate behaviors they see rewarded
b)
That observational learning can lead to both prosocial and antisocial effects
c)
That punishment is more effective than reinforcement
d)
That classical conditioning explains most childhood fears
56.
What is cognition?
a)
The study of human development and learning
b)
The scientific study of human behavior
c)
Thinking, including perception, knowledge, problem solving, judgment, and memory
d)
The social interactions between individuals in groups
57.
What is a prototype in cognitive psychology?
a)
A mental shortcut used to solve problems
b)
The best example or representation of a concept
c)
A step-by-step formula for solving problems
d)
A set of behaviors that are performed the same way each time
58.
Which of the following is an example of an artificial concept?
a)
The concept of snow for someone living in Vermont
b)
The definition of a triangle having three angles and three sides
c)
The understanding of what constitutes a dog based on experience
d)
The concept of justice developed over many years
59.
What is the Flynn effect?
a)
The observation that intelligence decreases with each new generation
b)
The theory that intelligence is primarily determined by genetics
c)
The observation that each generation has a significantly higher IQ than the previous generation
d)
The correlation between socioeconomic status and IQ scores
60.
Which intelligence theory proposes that intelligence is comprised of practical, creative, and analytical components?
a)
Multiple Intelligences Theory
b)
Triarchic Theory of Intelligence
c)
Emotional Intelligence Theory
d)
Crystallized and Fluid Intelligence Theory
61.
What is the difference between convergent and divergent thinking?
a)
Convergent thinking is creative while divergent thinking is analytical
b)
Convergent thinking provides established answers while divergent thinking generates multiple solutions
c)
Convergent thinking is used in art while divergent thinking is used in science
d)
Convergent thinking is unconscious while divergent thinking is conscious
62.
Which of the following best describes a schema?
a)
A problem-solving formula that provides step-by-step instructions
b)
A mental shortcut that saves time when solving a problem
c)
A mental construct consisting of a cluster of related concepts
d)
The smallest unit of language that conveys meaning
63.
What was the purpose of Alfred Binet's original intelligence test?
a)
To determine which adults were suitable for military service
b)
To identify children who might have difficulty in school
c)
To measure the intelligence of university students
d)
To compare intelligence levels across different cultures
64.
What is the difference between crystallized and fluid intelligence?
a)
Crystallized intelligence declines with age while fluid intelligence improves
b)
Crystallized intelligence is innate while fluid intelligence is learned
c)
Crystallized intelligence involves acquired knowledge while fluid intelligence involves solving novel problems
d)
Crystallized intelligence is measured by IQ tests while fluid intelligence cannot be measured
65.
What is dyslexia?
a)
A learning disability that causes difficulty in mathematics
b)
A developmental disorder related to low intelligence
c)
A learning disability that causes extreme difficulty in writing legibly
d)
A learning disability where letters are not processed properly by the brain
66.
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory, what are the three stages that information passes through?
a)
Encoding, storage, and retrieval
b)
Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
c)
Visual, acoustic, and semantic encoding
d)
Automatic processing, effortful processing, and retrieval
67.
Which of the following best describes elaborative rehearsal?
a)
Repetition of information without thinking about its meaning
b)
Thinking about the meaning of new information and connecting it to existing knowledge
c)
Organizing information into smaller chunks to improve recall
d)
The process of transferring information from short-term to sensory memory
68.
A student is trying to remember a list of vocabulary words for an exam. Which memory enhancement technique involves organizing these words into meaningful groups?
a)
Self-reference effect
b)
Distributed practice
c)
Chunking
d)
Mnemonic devices
69.
What is the primary function of the hippocampus in memory processing?
a)
Processing procedural memories
b)
Determining which memories to store based on emotional response
c)
Encoding new memories and projecting information to cortical regions
d)
Controlling the flow of information through neural circuits
70.
A patient suffers brain trauma and can remember events from before the injury but cannot form new memories. This condition is called:
a)
Retrograde amnesia
b)
Anterograde amnesia
c)
Transience
d)
Blocking
71.
Flashbulb memories are:
a)
Memories that fade quickly after formation
b)
Exceptionally clear recollections of important events
c)
Memories that are stored in the cerebellum
d)
False memories created through suggestibility
72.
The misinformation effect, as demonstrated by Loftus and Palmer's car accident experiment, illustrates which memory phenomenon?
a)
How the wording of questions can alter memory recall
b)
How chunking improves memory performance
c)
The limited capacity of short-term memory
d)
The superiority of visual encoding over acoustic encoding
73.
Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for procedural memories, such as learning to play the piano?
a)
Amygdala
b)
Prefrontal cortex
c)
Hippocampus
d)
Cerebellum
74.
When new information interferes with the recall of previously learned information, this is known as:
a)
Proactive interference
b)
Retroactive interference
c)
Memory consolidation
d)
The self-reference effect
75.
According to the levels of processing theory proposed by Craik and Lockhart, which type of encoding leads to better memory retention?
a)
Acoustic encoding
b)
Visual encoding
c)
Semantic encoding
d)
Automatic encoding
76.
According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, what is the primary developmental task of adolescence?
a)
Industry versus inferiority
b)
Identity versus role confusion
c)
Intimacy versus isolation
d)
Generativity versus stagnation
77.
Which of the following best characterizes Piaget's concrete operational stage?
a)
Children can think logically about abstract ideas and hypothetical situations
b)
Children learn about the world primarily through sensory experiences and motor activities
c)
Children can think logically about concrete events and understand conservation
d)
Children use symbols to represent words and engage in pretend play
78.
The debate regarding whether development occurs in distinct stages (discontinuous) or as a gradual process (continuous) addresses which major issue in developmental psychology?
a)
Nature versus nurture
b)
Continuity versus discontinuity
c)
One course of development versus many courses
d)
Universal versus context-specific development
79.
In which stage of prenatal development does the heart begin to beat and organs start to form and function?
a)
Germinal stage
b)
Embryonic stage
c)
Fetal stage
d)
Neonatal stage
80.
The Strange Situation procedure developed by Mary Ainsworth was designed to assess:
a)
Object permanence in infants
b)
Attachment styles between caregivers and children
c)
Theory of mind in preschoolers
d)
Egocentrism in the preoperational stage
81.
Which parenting style is characterized by high demands, consistent limits, warmth, and responsiveness to the child's needs?
a)
Authoritarian
b)
Permissive
c)
Uninvolved
d)
Authoritative
82.
Which of the following best describes theory-of-mind (TOM)?
a)
The understanding that objects continue to exist even when not visible
b)
The ability to mentally manipulate information and think hypothetically
c)
The understanding that people have thoughts, feelings, and beliefs different from one's own
d)
The ability to classify objects based on their physical properties
83.
What characterizes emerging adulthood in Western cultures?
a)
The period when individuals establish their careers and start families (typically ages 30-40)
b)
An in-between time from ages 18 to mid-20s focused on identity exploration in work and love
c)
The stage when individuals experience the empty nest syndrome as children leave home
d)
The period when individuals begin to develop secondary sexual characteristics
84.
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross proposed that people who are dying typically experience which of the following sequences of emotional stages?
a)
Sadness, acceptance, anger, denial, bargaining
b)
Denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance
c)
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
d)
Shock, denial, anger, acceptance, resolution
85.
Which of the following is a characteristic of socioemotional selectivity theory regarding aging?
a)
Older adults experience a significant increase in the number of social relationships they maintain
b)
As people age, they focus more on quantity rather than quality of social connections
c)
Social support and friendships decrease in number but remain close or become closer with age
d)
Older adults show no significant changes in social preferences compared to younger adults
86.
Motivation describes:
a)
The external factors that influence our behaviors
b)
The wants or needs that direct behavior toward a goal
c)
The process of maintaining homeostasis in the body
d)
The cognitive appraisal of emotional situations
87.
Which theory suggests that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs that result in psychological drive states?
a)
Instinct theory
b)
Arousal theory
c)
Drive theory
d)
Self-efficacy theory
88.
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that:
a)
All emotions are based on physiological arousal
b)
Simple tasks are performed best with higher arousal levels while complex tasks require lower arousal levels
c)
Motivation is primarily influenced by external rewards
d)
Self-actualization can only be achieved when all lower needs are met
89.
What is the overjustification effect?
a)
The tendency to overestimate one's abilities when performing familiar tasks
b)
The diminishment of intrinsic motivation when extrinsic motivation is given
c)
The process by which individuals justify their behaviors after experiencing cognitive dissonance
d)
The overestimation of emotional responses in social situations
90.
Which hormone is released by fat cells and acts as a satiety signal?
a)
Ghrelin
b)
Orexin
c)
Leptin
d)
Insulin
91.
According to the James-Lange theory of emotion:
a)
Emotions arise from physiological arousal
b)
Emotional experience occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal
c)
Emotions are determined by cognitive appraisal of the stimulus
d)
Emotions result from a combination of arousal and cognitive labeling
92.
Which brain structure plays a critical role in fear responses and emotional memory?
a)
Thalamus
b)
Amygdala
c)
Hippocampus
d)
Hypothalamus
93.
The cognitive-mediational theory developed by Lazarus asserts that:
a)
Physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
b)
Emotions are determined by appraisal of the stimulus
c)
Emotional responses are primarily controlled by the limbic system
d)
Emotions are universal and biologically determined
94.
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs:
a)
Self-actualization is the most basic need that must be satisfied first
b)
Physiological needs must be satisfied before addressing safety needs
c)
Social needs are more important than esteem needs
d)
All needs must be completely satisfied before moving to higher levels
95.
Personality refers to:
a)
Short-term behavioral responses to specific situations
b)
Long-standing traits and patterns that propel individuals to consistently think, feel, and behave in specific ways
c)
Temporary emotional states influenced by environmental factors
d)
Conscious choices made by individuals based on rational thinking
96.
Freud's theory of personality includes three components. Which component serves as one's moral compass or conscience?
a)
The id
b)
The ego
c)
The superego
d)
The collective unconscious
97.
According to Erikson's psychosocial stages of development, what is the primary developmental task of young adults (ages 19-29)?
a)
Identity vs. confusion
b)
Intimacy vs. isolation
c)
Generativity vs. stagnation
d)
Industry vs. inferiority
98.
Carl Jung's concept of the "collective unconscious" refers to:
a)
A universal version of the personal unconscious containing ancestral memories called archetypes
b)
The conscious part of personality that is visible to others
c)
The process of integrating the shadow self with one's public persona
d)
A person's private thoughts that they choose not to share with others
99.
Which neo-Freudian theorist is known for the concept of the "inferiority complex" and founded individual psychology?
a)
Karen Horney
b)
Carl Jung
c)
Alfred Adler
d)
Erik Erikson
100.
In Bandura's social-cognitive theory, the concept of "reciprocal determinism" suggests that:
a)
Personality is determined solely by genetic factors
b)
Cognitive processes, behavior, and context all interact and influence each other
c)
Early childhood experiences determine adult personality
d)
People's behavior is primarily influenced by unconscious drives
101.
Which personality test uses inkblots to assess an individual's unconscious desires, fears, and struggles?
a)
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
b)
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
c)
Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
d)
Rorschach Inkblot Test
102.
The Five Factor Model of personality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Openness to experience
b)
Conscientiousness
c)
Dominance
d)
Neuroticism
103.
In the context of personality psychology, what is "self-efficacy"?
a)
The degree to which one's actual self matches their ideal self
b)
The level of confidence in one's own abilities
c)
The tendency to attribute success to internal factors
d)
The process of becoming self-actualized
104.
What is the difference between individualist and collectivist cultures in terms of personality development?
a)
Individualist cultures value tradition while collectivist cultures embrace change
b)
Individualist cultures emphasize independence and personal achievement, while collectivist cultures value social harmony and group needs
c)
Collectivist cultures produce more extroverted personalities than individualist cultures
d)
There are no significant differences in personality development between these cultural types
105.
Social psychology is best defined as:
a)
The study of individual personality traits and how they influence behavior
b)
The examination of how people affect one another and the power of the situation
c)
The analysis of biological factors that determine human behavior
d)
The study of mental disorders and their impact on social interactions
106.
The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to:
a)
Blame ourselves for failures and credit others for our successes
b)
Underestimate situational factors in our own behavior
c)
Overemphasize internal factors as explanations for others' behavior
d)
Make accurate judgments about the causes of human behavior
107.
What is the key difference between normative social influence and informational social influence?
a)
Normative influence is based on the desire to be liked, while informational influence is based on the desire to be correct
b)
Normative influence occurs in collectivistic cultures, while informational influence occurs in individualistic cultures
c)
Normative influence is conscious, while informational influence is unconscious
d)
Normative influence is temporary, while informational influence is permanent
108.
In Stanley Milgram's obedience experiment, what percentage of participants delivered the maximum voltage shock?
a)
23%
b)
40%
c)
48%
d)
65%
109.
What is cognitive dissonance?
a)
The inability to process conflicting information
b)
Psychological discomfort arising from inconsistent attitudes, behaviors, or cognitions
c)
The tendency to seek information that confirms existing beliefs
d)
Mental fatigue resulting from making too many decisions
110.
Which of the following is an example of the bystander effect?
a)
A person helping a stranger because others are watching
b)
A witness to an emergency not helping because they assume someone else will
c)
Someone conforming to group pressure despite knowing the group is wrong
d)
A person obeying an authority figure against their better judgment
111.
According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, consummate love consists of:
a)
Intimacy and passion, but no commitment
b)
Passion and commitment, but no intimacy
c)
Intimacy, passion, and commitment
d)
Intimacy and commitment, but no passion
112.
What is the self-serving bias?
a)
The tendency to blame external factors for failures and take credit for successes
b)
The tendency to favor people who are similar to ourselves
c)
The belief that people get what they deserve in life
d)
The tendency to conform to group norms even when they conflict with personal beliefs
113.
Which of the following statements about cyberbullying is NOT true?
a)
It is typically overt rather than covert
b)
About one in three middle and high school students report experiencing it
c)
It can lead to suicidal ideation in both victims and perpetrators
d)
LGBTQ youth are targeted at higher rates than heterosexual and cisgender youth
114.
According to social exchange theory, people maintain relationships when:
a)
The benefits outweigh the costs
b)
They have no other options available
c)
They feel obligated by social norms
d)
They have invested too much time to leave
115.
Which of the following best describes the physiological response during stress that was first identified by Walter Cannon?
a)
General adaptation syndrome
b)
Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
c)
Fight-or-flight response
d)
Psychoneuroimmunology
116.
In the general adaptation syndrome model proposed by Hans Selye, during which stage is a person most vulnerable to illness?
a)
Alarm reaction
b)
Stage of resistance
c)
Stage of exhaustion
d)
Primary appraisal
117.
Which of the following best describes a "psychophysiological disorder"?
a)
A psychological disorder caused by physical illness
b)
A physical disorder whose symptoms are brought about or worsened by stress and emotional factors
c)
A disorder that exists only in a person's mind but has no physical basis
d)
A disorder that affects both psychological and physiological systems independently
118.
Research on happiness has shown which of the following to be true?
a)
People adapt completely to all major life events, both positive and negative
b)
Happiness levels cannot be permanently changed
c)
People do not fully adapt to unemployment or severe disabilities
d)
Winning the lottery produces permanent increases in happiness
119.
Which of the following is considered a dimension of job burnout?
a)
Perfectionism
b)
Depersonalization
c)
Type A personality
d)
Social isolation
120.
What is the relationship between social support and health outcomes?
a)
Social support has no measurable effect on physical health
b)
Individuals with stronger social relationships have a 50% greater likelihood of survival compared to those with weak social relationships
c)
Social support only benefits psychological health, not physical health
d)
Social support increases susceptibility to the common cold
121.
Which concept refers to the state of being so engaged in an activity that it becomes worth doing for its own sake, often causing a person to lose track of time?
a)
Positive affect
b)
Optimism
c)
Flow
d)
Eustress
122.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct elements of happiness described by Seligman?
a)
The pleasant life
b)
The good life
c)
The meaningful life
d)
The balanced life
123.
The field of positive psychology is best described as:
a)
The study of psychiatric disorders and their treatments
b)
The science of happiness and human strengths
c)
The practice of positive thinking to overcome depression
d)
The study of how positive emotions affect brain chemistry
124.
Which of the following is a correct statement about stress and the immune system?
a)
Stress has no effect on immune functioning
b)
Stress always strengthens immune functioning
c)
Researchers have demonstrated that stress can weaken immune functioning
d)
Immune functioning is completely independent of psychological factors
125.
Which of the following disorders involves a person becoming detached from their core sense of self?
a)
Bipolar disorder
b)
Dissociative disorder
c)
Schizophrenia
d)
Generalized anxiety disorder
126.
Which of the following is a key feature of antisocial personality disorder?
a)
Persistent fear of social situations
b)
Lack of regard for others' rights and feelings
c)
Excessive worry about everyday matters
d)
Inflated sense of self-importance
127.
The DSM-5 classifies autism spectrum disorder as a:
a)
Mood disorder
b)
Personality disorder
c)
Neurodevelopmental disorder
d)
Dissociative disorder
128.
Which symptom is NOT typically associated with major depressive disorder?
a)
Feelings of worthlessness
b)
Racing thoughts and increased energy
c)
Significant weight loss or gain
d)
Difficulty concentrating
129.
The diathesis-stress model of psychological disorders suggests that:
a)
Disorders are caused solely by genetic factors
b)
Environmental factors alone determine who develops disorders
c)
A predisposition interacts with stressful events to cause disorders
d)
Disorders are the result of supernatural forces
130.
A person who experiences recurrent panic attacks and develops intense fear about having future attacks would most likely be diagnosed with:
a)
Specific phobia
b)
Panic disorder
c)
Agoraphobia
d)
Social anxiety disorder
131.
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
a)
Hallucinations
b)
Delusions
c)
Disorganized speech
d)
Diminished emotional expression
132.
The prevalence of ADHD is:
a)
Equal between males and females
b)
Higher in females than males
c)
Higher in males than females
d)
Not mentioned in the text
133.
What percentage of people with bipolar disorder attempt suicide at some point in their lifetime?
a)
15%
b)
24%
c)
36%
d)
47%
134.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three clusters into which personality disorders are organized in the DSM-5?
a)
Cluster A (odd or eccentric)
b)
Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic)
c)
Cluster C (anxious or fearful)
d)
Cluster D (impulsive or aggressive)
100 %
