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Worksheetssci 114 riview quizzizz
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Which contribution by Alec Jeffreys is foundational to forensic science?
Discovery of the DNA double helix
Development of DNA fingerprinting for human identification
Invention of the PCR thermal cycler
First complete sequencing of the human genome
What is the three-dimensional shape of DNA?
Single-stranded ladder
Beta-pleated sheet
Double helix
Triple helix
Which base pairing occurs in DNA?
A–U and C–G
A–T and C–G
A–C and T–G
A–G and C–T
Which base pairing occurs in RNA?
A–T and C–G
A–U and C–G
A–C and T–G
A–G and C–T
Alternate forms of a gene are called what?
Chromatids
Alleles
Nucleosomes
Introns
What is a codon?
A single nucleotide that codes for an amino acid
A group of three base letters that specifies an amino acid or stop signal
A segment of DNA between two promoters
The complementary strand produced during replication
Which statement best describes the sense (coding) DNA strand?
It is the strand that serves as the template for RNA polymerase
It has the same nucleotide sequence as the mRNA except T replaces U
It contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose
It is the only strand transcribed during replication
What causes sickle cell anemia and differentiates it from normal red blood cells?
A frameshift deletion in the alpha-globin gene causing spherical RBCs
A point mutation in beta-globin (Glu→Val) producing rigid, sickle-shaped RBCs
A duplication of the hemoglobin gene causing enlarged, flexible RBCs
Loss of the Rh factor leading to clumped RBCs
Which DNA typing method is most commonly used in modern forensic casework?
Mitochondrial DNA sequencing
Y-chromosome haplotyping
Short tandem repeat (STR) profiling
Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
In forensic genetics, STR analysis is primarily used for which purpose?
Tracing maternal lineages
Individual identification from autosomal loci
Determining species of biological material
Dating the age of a stain
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) testing is best suited for which scenario?
Discriminating between two brothers
Analyzing highly degraded hair shafts to infer maternal lineage
Identifying the Y-chromosome haplotype of a male suspect
Typing a fresh bloodstain for CODIS entry
Y-STR testing is most useful for which application?
Establishing maternal relatedness
Individualizing mixed female DNA profiles
Tracing paternal lineages in male-specific mixtures
Detecting SNPs across autosomes
How many core loci are used for CODIS-compatible autosomal STR profiling in the United States today?
7
13
20
46
In electrophoretic separation of DNA, what is the name of the output graph produced in capillary electrophoresis?
Spectrogram
Electropherogram
Chromatogram
Manhattan plot
Which blood component is the primary source of nuclear DNA for forensic testing?
Red blood cells
Platelets
White blood cells
Plasma proteins
Who developed the ABO blood group classification system?
Alec Jeffreys
Rosalind Franklin
Karl Landsteiner
Francis Crick
Which transfusion pairing is unsafe due to ABO incompatibility?
Donor O to recipient AB
Donor A to recipient A
Donor B to recipient AB
Donor A to recipient B
Which pairing correctly identifies the universal donor and the universal recipient when considering ABO and Rh?
Universal donor: AB+; universal recipient: O−
Universal donor: O−; universal recipient: AB+
Universal donor: O+; universal recipient: AB−
Universal donor: AB−; universal recipient: O+
In blood classification, the Rh factor refers to the presence or absence of which antigen?
A antigen
B antigen
D antigen
H antigen
The lock-and-key model describes molecular specificity most directly in which interaction?
DNA and histones during packaging
Enzymes or antibodies binding specifically to their targets
Ribosomes binding mRNA for translation
Hemoglobin binding oxygen cooperatively
Which statement best distinguishes presumptive from confirmatory tests for blood at a crime scene?
Presumptive tests conclusively prove the presence of blood; confirmatory tests are screening only
Presumptive tests rapidly indicate possible blood; confirmatory tests establish blood definitively
Both presumptive and confirmatory tests are non-specific and require DNA typing for proof
Confirmatory tests are faster but less specific than presumptive tests
Which of the following is a confirmatory crystal test used to identify blood?
Kastle–Meyer test
Luminol chemiluminescence
Takayama crystal assay
Leucomalachite green color test
Upon discovering a reddish-brown stain at a crime scene, which testing sequence is most appropriate?
Perform a confirmatory crystal test first; if positive, skip presumptive tests
Begin with a presumptive test (e.g., Kastle–Meyer), then conduct a confirmatory test if indicated
Proceed directly to DNA profiling without chemical testing
Use luminol only and report as confirmed blood if it glows
Which general statement about bloodstain patterns is most accurate?
Higher impact velocity tends to create smaller droplets and fine mist spatter
Larger droplets indicate higher velocity impacts
Droplet size is unrelated to the mechanism of formation
Back spatter always produces only one large drop
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: What can be toxic?
Any substance at a sufficient dose
Only synthetic chemicals
Only substances labeled as poisons
Only substances that are ingested
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Considering routes of administration and their general speeds, which route is typically the fastest?
Intravenous injection
Oral ingestion
Transdermal absorption (patch)
Intramuscular injection
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Considering routes of administration and their general speeds, which route is typically the slowest?
Inhalation
Sublingual administration
Transdermal absorption (patch)
Intravenous injection
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Know the classification of toxic agents and the subsets. Which option correctly reflects the subsets emphasized?
Controlled substances, inorganic toxins, and organic toxins
Only controlled substances
Only organic toxins
Only inorganic toxins
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Understand what schedule of drugs means. Which schedule has a higher abuse potential and tighter controls?
Schedule II compared to Schedule IV
Schedule IV compared to Schedule II
Schedules II and IV are equivalent
Neither schedule is controlled
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Understand what schedule of drugs means. Over-the-counter drugs are generally considered what in terms of scheduling?
Unscheduled/non‑scheduled
Schedule II
Schedule IV
Schedule I
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Know presumptive testing and confirmatory testing. Which statement correctly distinguishes them?
Presumptive tests are rapid screening that indicate a possible presence; confirmatory tests specifically and definitively identify the substance
Presumptive tests provide definitive identification; confirmatory tests are only quick screens
Both presumptive and confirmatory tests always yield the same specificity
Presumptive tests require advanced instrumentation; confirmatory tests do not
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Be able to give examples of each test type. Which pairing matches the test to its typical example?
Presumptive test – color spot test; Confirmatory test – GC–MS
Presumptive test – GC–MS; Confirmatory test – color spot test
Presumptive test – IR spectroscopy; Confirmatory test – sniff test
Presumptive test – microscopic refractive index; Confirmatory test – Marquis color chart
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Understand how stereoisomers of different drugs can be inactive and active. Which is the more psychoactive form of amphetamines?
Dextroamphetamine (d‑isomer)
Levoamphetamine (l‑isomer)
Both isomers are equally psychoactive
Neither isomer is psychoactive
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Know the general effect of depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens on the body. Which statement best summarizes these effects?
Depressants decrease central nervous system activity; stimulants increase it; hallucinogens primarily alter perception and cognition
Depressants increase central nervous system activity; stimulants decrease it; hallucinogens sedate without perceptual changes
All three classes primarily slow the central nervous system
All three classes primarily increase blood pressure without affecting perception
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Know the window of detection for blood, urine, and hair. Which has the longest window of detection?
Hair
Blood
Urine
Saliva
Lecture 7 – Forensic Toxicology and Drugs: Know the window of detection for blood, urine, and hair. Which has the shortest window of detection?
Blood
Urine
Hair
Sweat
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What is needed for fire to survive (fire triangle)?
Oxygen, heat, and fuel
Heat, pressure, and friction
Fuel, pressure, and light
Oxygen, light, and electrical current
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What does the term flash point mean?
The lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to ignite in air
The temperature at which a material spontaneously ignites without an external flame
The temperature at which a liquid boils
The temperature at which flames become visible to the naked eye
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What does pyrolysis mean?
Thermal decomposition of a solid that produces flammable gases and vapors
The process of extinguishing a fire with foam
The rapid oxidation of a gas without heat
The cooling of hot gases to below their dew point
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: Who conducts a fire investigation and may enter a scene without a search warrant to determine the cause?
The Fire Marshal
A patrol officer
An insurance adjuster
The building owner
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: Point of origin, what shape is it usually?
A V-shaped pattern
A circular (O) pattern
A zigzag (Z) pattern
An S-shaped pattern
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What is an accelerant?
A substance used to promote or speed combustion
A device that detects smoke
A fire extinguisher agent
An ignition source such as a match
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: How is accelerant evidence packaged to prevent evaporation?
Sealed metal cans
Plastic zipper bags
Unlined paper bags
Open glass jars
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: Know the characteristics of low explosives. Which description is correct?
Subsonic combustion with deflagration
Supersonic combustion with detonation
Nonreactive oxidizer without combustion
Only detonates under confinement at supersonic speed
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: Know the characteristics of high explosives. Which description is correct?
Supersonic combustion with complete detonation
Subsonic combustion with deflagration
Only burns without gas production
Cannot be initiated by a detonator
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: Do shotguns have rifling?
No, standard shotguns are smoothbore
Yes, all shotguns have rifled barrels
Only double‑barrel shotguns have rifling
Yes, but only in the chamber, not the barrel
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What is rifling’s primary purpose in a firearm barrel?
To impart spin to stabilize the projectile and produce characteristic striations
To reduce barrel wear by smoothing the bore
To increase muzzle flash for visibility
To prevent the bullet from engaging the barrel
Lecture 8 – Arson, Explosives, and Firearms: What is caliber and how is it determined/measured?
The internal diameter of a firearm’s bore (measured between lands), often expressed in inches or millimeters
The length of the cartridge case measured in millimeters
The mass of the projectile measured in grains
The amount of propellant measured by volume
In ammunition terminology, what is the correct name for the complete unit that includes the bullet, casing, powder, and primer?
Cartridge
Bullet
Shell
Pellet
According to ammunition terminology, how are the bullet and the casing related within a round?
They are two separate parts
They are fused as a single part
They are interchangeable names for the same part
They are optional components that may be omitted
In shotgun terminology, what does gauge measure?
The number of lead balls of bore diameter that equal one pound
The length of the barrel in inches
The weight of the loaded shell
The number of pellets in the shell
When the shotgun gauge number increases, what happens to the bore diameter?
It decreases
It increases
It stays the same
It fluctuates unpredictably
Which component is characteristic of a shotgun shell and separates the powder from the shot?
Wad
Extractor
Rim
Choke
Which item best describes the basic anatomy of a cartridge used in firearms?
Bullet, casing, primer, propellant
Shell, barrel, stock, trigger
Pellets, choke, chamber, bead
Wad, magazine, sling, scope
Lands and grooves impressed on a bullet are indicative of what feature of a firearm?
The rifling characteristics of the barrel
The capacity of the magazine
The type of choke used
The caliber stamped on the casing head
Which type of mark is commonly found on a spent cartridge casing and results from the striking part that ignites the primer?
Firing pin impression
Lands and grooves
Choke imprint
Powder tattooing
Which mechanism most often produces extractor and ejector marks found on cartridge casings?
The cycling of the firearm during extraction and ejection
The bullet’s passage through the rifled barrel
The choke constricting the shot column
The shooter loading the magazine by hand
What does forensic anthropology primarily focus on within forensic science?
Analysis of human skeletal remains for identification and interpretation
Chemical analysis of propellant residues from firearms
Toxicological screening of bodily fluids
Ballistic trajectory reconstruction at a crime scene
Which professional difference is accurate between a forensic anthropologist and a medical examiner (ME)?
Anthropologists specialize in skeletal analysis; MEs are physicians who determine cause and manner of death
Anthropologists perform autopsies; MEs only examine bones
Anthropologists certify death certificates; MEs recover buried remains
Anthropologists collect insects; MEs analyze soil chemistry
Which skeletal region provides the most reliable indicators for determining biological sex from human remains?
Pelvis
Ribs
Humerus
Clavicle
Which skeletal assessment is commonly used to estimate adult age at death?
Morphological changes of the pubic symphysis
Counting the number of ribs
Measuring ear ossicles
Examining fingernail growth
Which method represents a scientific means of establishing a decedent’s identity?
Comparison of antemortem dental records to postmortem radiographs
Matching clothing style to missing-person descriptions
Estimating eye color from skull features
Using reported favorite foods
Which of the following are postmortem changes collectively referred to as mortises?
Livor mortis
Algor mortis
Rigor mortis
Pallor mortis
all of them
Which statement best describes rigor mortis as presented in the lecture notes
It involves muscular stiffening followed by relaxation over about 36 hours
It is immediate relaxation that lasts about 6 hours
It is permanent stiffening that never resolves
It is a temperature-only change without muscular effects
Which description of pallor mortis is most accurate?
Paleness develops within minutes and typically persists up to about 2 hours after death
A deep purple discoloration forms after 24–36 hours postmortem
Body temperature drops to ambient over several days
Muscles stiffen fully for approximately 36 hours
Which insect group typically appears first on a body and where do they most commonly colonize?
Blowflies; natural orifices and open wounds
Dermestid beetles; long bones
Ants; under the fingernails
Moths; hair shafts
Which insects are commonly present in the later stages of decomposition and help strip remaining soft tissue from bones?
Dermestid beetles
House crickets
Dragonflies
Termites
Which list correctly presents the five stages of decomposition as given in the lecture?
Fresh body, Early decomp, Advanced putrefaction, Skeletonization, Dry decay
Early decomp, Fresh body, Skeletonization, Advanced putrefaction, Dry decay
Fresh body, Skeletonization, Early decomp, Dry decay, Advanced putrefaction
Fresh body, Early decomp, Dry decay, Advanced putrefaction, Skeletonization
Which process is identified as an alternative to standard decomposition and depends on environmental factors?
Adipocere formation
Combustion by wildfire
Cremation in a mortuary
Autolysis during life
Which of the following are listed as alternatives to standard decomposition that depend on environmental factors? Select all that apply.
Bone diagenesis
Natural mummification
Adipocere formation
Active embalming fluid circulation
