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S.E.M CHAP 2

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which set best represents the core constraints that a project must consider?

a)

Hardware, software, networks, data

b)

Ideas, morale, culture, ethics

c)

Quality, marketing, sales, HR

d)

Performance, cost, time, scope

2.

Which statement most accurately defines a project in software management?

a)

A multitask job done once with defined constraints

b)

A single small task with flexible resources

c)

A brainstorming session without formal plans

d)

An ongoing operation repeated with no end date

3.

A manager plans work that has a clear start and finish, a fixed budget, and a defined scope. What is the best classification?

a)

It is a routine task with variable ends

b)

It is a program of indefinite duration

c)

It is an operation without boundaries

d)

It is a project with bounded parameters

4.

A team proposes to extend work indefinitely to add features after delivery. Which constraint is primarily violated?

a)

Cost constraint only

b)

Performance constraint only

c)

Scope constraint remains unchanged

d)

Time constraint and defined end date

5.

Which statement best defines project management in an IT context?

a)

Buying hardware to increase team productivity

b)

Writing code for all software features alone

c)

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques

d)

Following a fixed plan without any changes

6.

Which sequence lists core project management process groups in the correct order?

a)

Initiating, executing, planning, closing, monitoring and controlling

b)

Executing, planning, initiating, closing, monitoring and controlling

c)

Planning, initiating, executing, closing, monitoring and controlling

d)

Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing

7.

Who is primarily responsible for accomplishing project objectives?

a)

Technical writer

b)

Finance officer

c)

Product customer

d)

Project manager

8.

What is the main responsibility of a project manager working with the team?

a)

Eliminating all risks before project start

b)

Determining appropriate processes and their degree

c)

Completing every technical task personally

d)

Selecting tools based only on lowest cost

9.

Which activity is part of managing a project?

a)

Identifying requirements and clear objectives

b)

Building the product without specifications

c)

Freezing the plan after initial approval

d)

Skipping stakeholder expectations entirely

10.

Project managers often refer to a triple constraint. Which set correctly names it?

a)

Quality, people, and tools

b)

Scope, time, and cost

c)

Risk, budget, and resources

d)

Schedule, quality, and morale

11.

A stakeholder demands extra features late in development without changing time or cost. Which constraint is most directly affected first?

a)

Scope

b)

Risk

c)

Quality

d)

Time

12.

A project is behind schedule but must still meet the same scope. Which is a plausible managerial response within the triple constraint?

a)

Increase cost to add resources

b)

Ignore time and keep current plan

c)

Reduce scope without customer input

d)

Delay closing without addressing causes

13.

Which statement best defines Project Scope Management?

a)

Processes for maximizing team size and budget use

b)

Processes ensuring all required work is completed only

c)

Methods to select vendors for procurement contracts

d)

Techniques to monitor only schedule performance

14.

What is the primary purpose of Scope Planning?

a)

Sequence tasks to optimize critical path duration

b)

Estimate costs for each project activity precisely

c)

Recruit resources to cover specialized roles

d)

Define and manage scope to influence success

15.

Product scope is best described as

a)

The staffing plan for project human resources

b)

All organizational policies affecting the project

c)

Features and functions of the product result

d)

The network diagram of task dependencies

16.

Project scope primarily refers to

a)

Standards used for assuring product quality

b)

Work needed to deliver specified outputs

c)

Expected market share for the final product

d)

Risks that might affect organizational strategy

17.

Which deliverable is typically created during Scope Definition?

a)

Detailed project scope statement document

b)

Procurement contract terms and conditions

c)

Comprehensive earned value baseline charts

d)

Risk response plans for technical issues

18.

During Scope Verification, the key outcome is

a)

Adjustment of the schedule to remove slack time

b)

Identification of new stakeholders and sponsors

c)

Creation of the detailed WBS dictionary entries

d)

Formal acceptance of completed deliverables

19.

Which activity belongs to Scope Control?

a)

Training users on operational procedures

b)

Negotiating prices with external suppliers

c)

Inspecting code modules for defect density

d)

Influencing factors that create scope changes

20.

Which statement correctly contrasts scope verification and quality control?

a)

Verification builds schedules; quality sequences tasks

b)

Verification assigns resources; quality hires contractors

c)

Verification accepts deliverables; quality checks requirements

d)

Verification measures cost variance; quality fixes budgets

21.

A project is terminated early. What should Scope Verification establish?

a)

Elimination of all remaining project risks

b)

Revised procurement strategy for vendors

c)

Documented level and extent of completion

d)

Immediate reallocation of all team members

22.

Which factor balance is emphasized during Scope Planning?

a)

Tools, data sources, methods, processes, procedures

b)

Office space, travel budgets, benefits, cafeteria quality

c)

Programming languages, IDE brands, keyboard layouts

d)

Marketing channels, pricing tiers, promotional calendars

23.

Which statement illustrates a common misconception about product versus project scope?

a)

Project scope equals the work to deliver the product

b)

Product scope equals the features and functions delivered

c)

Product scope and project scope are identical concepts

d)

Both scopes require planning, definition, and control

24.

When more information becomes known during planning, scope should be

a)

Defined and described with greater specificity

b)

Frozen permanently to prevent any modifications

c)

Expanded to include desirable stretch objectives

d)

Shifted from product features to team structure

25.

Which statement best defines Project Time Management in software projects?

a)

Ensuring product quality through testing standards

b)

Focusing on the timely completion of the project

c)

Coordinating scope changes and stakeholder approvals

d)

Managing procurement contracts and vendor selection

26.

What is the primary purpose of Activity Definition in a project schedule?

a)

Controlling baselines after execution

b)

Sequencing tasks according to dependencies

c)

Identifying the specific schedule activities

d)

Estimating durations for work packages

27.

During Activity Sequencing, a project manager mainly aims to:

a)

Approve change requests formally

b)

Assign people to each activity

c)

Calculate total project budget

d)

Document dependencies among activities

28.

Activity Resource Estimating is best described as:

a)

Mapping critical path float values

b)

Determining who approves resource usage

c)

Balancing risks with quality standards

d)

Estimating types and quantities of resources

29.

Schedule Development typically involves which combined analysis?

a)

Stakeholder power and communication plans

b)

Risk registers and defect logs

c)

Activity sequences, durations, resources, constraints

d)

Scope baselines and procurement statements

30.

Which process focuses on controlling changes to the project schedule after it is baselined?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Scope Control

c)

Schedule Control

d)

Cost Control

31.

A task list is complete, dependencies are mapped, and resource needs are estimated. What should the project manager do next to build a realistic timeline?

a)

Start executing highest-priority tasks

b)

Develop the schedule using the inputs

c)

Request additional funding first

d)

Freeze the baseline immediately

32.

Which statement best defines a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

a)

A network-based sequencing of dependent project activities

b)

A time-phased allocation of project resource hours

c)

A budget-oriented categorization of cost accounts

d)

A deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of project work

33.

What is the primary purpose of a WBS in project management?

a)

Organize and define the total scope of the project

b)

Detail the critical path and slack for activities

c)

List every possible risk and mitigation plan

d)

Assign team roles and communication channels

34.

At each descending level of a WBS, what increases?

a)

Detail of the project work definition

b)

Uncertainty about deliverable ownership

c)

Calendar duration of each activity

d)

Estimated budget for each component

35.

What are the lowest-level components in a WBS commonly called?

a)

Work packages

b)

Milestone gates

c)

Activity nodes

d)

Control accounts

36.

In the example WBS for a garage build, which option correctly orders levels from top to lower detail?

a)

Build Garage Project → Design → Drawings → Interior

b)

Design → Build Garage Project → City → Permits

c)

Construction → Electrical → Build Garage Project → HVAC

d)

Build Garage Project → Permits → City → Meetings

37.

Which statement explains why work packages are useful for control?

a)

They can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled

b)

They ensure the project finishes faster than planned

c)

They are always completed by a single individual resource

d)

They eliminate the need for any risk analysis or change control

38.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of PERT and CPM in project management?

a)

Document stakeholder communication preferences

b)

Manage team performance and human conflicts

c)

Estimate project budgets using cost baselines

d)

Model activities and sequences to schedule projects

39.

In a project network, what do arcs represent?

a)

Risks linked to critical activities

b)

Milestones that mark completion events

c)

Individual jobs or activities within the project

d)

Resource pools assigned to tasks

40.

What is indicated by the direction on an arc in a project network?

a)

The budget variance for the work

b)

The risk impact rating for the task

c)

The resource capacity for the activity

d)

The required job sequence between activities

41.

A project manager wants to foresee potential delays and plan ahead. Which technique directly supports this goal?

a)

Holding daily stand-ups with the entire team

b)

Contracting external auditors for compliance checks

c)

Using PERT and CPM to build a project network

d)

Purchasing additional hardware early in the project

42.

Which statement about nodes in a project network is correct?

a)

Nodes show the duration distribution for each activity

b)

Nodes mark points in time when one or more jobs finish

c)

Nodes represent cost centers that fund each task

d)

Nodes store documents for configuration control

43.

Activity A must finish before Activity B can start. How is this precedence captured in a project network?

a)

A node placed between A and B labeled resource

b)

Two parallel arcs drawn between A and B without direction

c)

An arc directed from the node after A to the node before B

d)

A bidirectional arc indicating simultaneous execution

44.

In a project network, the critical path is defined as the path that has which characteristic?

a)

Smallest total duration across paths

b)

Longest total duration across paths

c)

Greatest number of dummy activities

d)

Fewest nodes from start to finish

45.

What is the purpose of a dummy job (dummy activity) in a project network diagram?

a)

To shorten the longest project path

b)

To allocate unused team resources

c)

To avoid ambiguity in job sequencing

d)

To add buffer time between tasks

46.

What is the usual completion time assigned to a dummy job in PERT/CPM?

a)

Always zero duration

b)

Exactly one day duration

c)

Same as average duration

d)

Equal to predecessor duration

47.

Jobs A, B, C, D, and E have durations 3, 1, 4, 2, and 5 days respectively. Which sequence is a feasible path from start to finish given that A precedes C and D, B precedes D, and C and D precede E?

a)

Start→A→C→E→Finish

b)

Start→B→C→E→Finish

c)

Start→A→D→C→E→Finish

d)

Start→B→D→E→Finish

48.

In earliest event time analysis, the earliest time of node j (Uj) is best described as:

a)

Slack time available at node j

b)

Average time event j may occur

c)

Earliest time event j can occur

d)

Latest time event j can begin

49.

Given U1 = 0 and t12 = 3, what is U2 in the example network?

a)

U2 equals one day

b)

U2 equals three days

c)

U2 equals five days

d)

U2 equals four days

50.

For node 3 in the example, U3 is computed as max(U2 + t23, U1 + t13). If U2 + t23 = 3 and U1 + t13 = 1, what is U3?

a)

U3 equals one day

b)

U3 equals three days

c)

U3 equals four days

d)

U3 equals five days

51.

Using U4 = max(U2 + t24, U3 + t34) with values 7 and 5 respectively, what is U4?

a)

U4 equals five days

b)

U4 equals seven days

c)

U4 equals ten days

d)

U4 equals twelve days

52.

If U4 = 7 and t45 = 5, what is U5 and what project measure does it represent?

a)

U5 = 7, earliest start of project

b)

U5 = 10, maximum slack available

c)

U5 = 5, earliest finish of E only

d)

U5 = 12, minimum project duration

53.

Three possible paths from start to finish have total durations 12 days, 10 days, and 8 days. Which path determines the project’s critical path and why?

a)

None, because durations are inconsistent

b)

The 12-day path, as it is the longest path

c)

The 10-day path, as it is average length

d)

The 8-day path, as it finishes earliest

54.

In PERT, which trio best represents the three time estimates gathered for each activity?

a)

Average, modal, extreme

b)

Optimistic, most likely, pessimistic

c)

Shortest, average, longest

d)

Nominal, typical, worst case

55.

Which statement best describes the purpose of PERT in project scheduling?

a)

Compute costs for resources with high precision

b)

Estimate probabilities when activity times are uncertain

c)

Replace critical path with deterministic durations

d)

Eliminate risk by fixing optimistic assumptions

56.

Given an activity with optimistic time to = 3 days, most likely time tm = 5 days, and pessimistic time tp = 9 days, what is the expected time te using the PERT formula?

a)

(3 + 5 + 9) ÷ 3 = 5.7 days

b)

(9 + 4×5 + 3) ÷ 6 = 5.8 days

c)

(3 + 4×9 + 5) ÷ 6 = 7.3 days

d)

(3 + 4×5 + 9) ÷ 6 = 5.3 days

57.

Which formula correctly computes the variance V of a PERT activity time?

a)

V = (tp − tm) ÷ 6

b)

V = (to + 4tm + tp) ÷ 6

c)

V = (to − tm)² ÷ 6

d)

V = ((tp − to) ÷ 6)²

58.

A task has to = 2, tm = 3, tp = 14 (days). Which statement is the best interpretation of the large variance this implies?

a)

There is high uncertainty in the task duration

b)

The task will definitely finish within five days

c)

The most likely time outweighs all uncertainty

d)

The optimistic time is a reliable single estimate

59.

Which label pairing is correct for PERT notations used on the slides?

a)

to = optimistic time, tm = most likely time, tp = pessimistic time

b)

tp = optimistic time, tm = average time, to = pessimistic time

c)

tm = optimistic time, tp = most likely time, to = deterministic time

d)

to = typical time, tm = pessimistic time, tp = optimistic time

60.

Two tasks A and B both have te = 6 days. Task A has tp − to = 12; Task B has tp − to = 6. Which choice identifies the higher scheduling risk and why?

a)

Task A, because larger spread increases variance

b)

Task B, because equal te reduces accuracy

c)

Task B, because to dominates the expectation

d)

Task A, because smaller spread lowers confidence

61.

In PERT, the expected time te for an activity with optimistic (to), most likely (tm), and pessimistic (tp) estimates is computed using which formula?

a)

(to + tm + 2tp) ÷ 4

b)

(2to + 3tm + tp) ÷ 6

c)

(to + tm + tp) ÷ 3

d)

(to + 4tm + tp) ÷ 6

e)

(to + 2tm + tp) ÷ 4

62.

For an activity with to = 6 days, tm = 9 days, and tp = 12 days, what is the expected time te using the PERT formula?

a)

11 days

b)

10 days

c)

9 days

d)

8 days

e)

7 days

63.

Which PERT expression correctly gives the variance of an activity’s duration from its three estimates?

a)

((tp − tm) ÷ 3)²

b)

((tp − tm) ÷ 6)²

c)

((tp − to) ÷ 3)²

d)

((tp − to) ÷ 6)²

e)

((tm − to) ÷ 6)²

64.

Given to = 2 days, tm = 5 days, and tp = 14 days for an activity, which statement is most accurate about its variability under PERT?

a)

Variance is medium because tm dominates weighting

b)

Variance is undefined without crash duration

c)

Variance is zero because tm is the midpoint

d)

Variance is small because tm is near to

e)

Variance is large because tp is far from to

65.

A project’s critical path in PERT is best described as which of the following?

a)

Path with the greatest expected total duration

b)

Path with the fewest activities in sequence

c)

Path with the highest average variance overall

d)

Path with the smallest expected total duration

e)

Path with maximum slack among all network paths

66.

Which statement best defines Earliest Start Time (EST) for an activity in a PERT network?

a)

Average of optimistic and pessimistic activity start times

b)

Latest time an activity can begin without delaying project

c)

Earliest time an activity can begin considering predecessors

d)

Estimated midpoint of the activity’s planned execution window

67.

In a forward pass through a project network, what is primarily determined for each activity?

a)

The latest permissible start and finish times

b)

The critical path slack distribution values

c)

The variance of each activity’s duration

d)

The earliest feasible start and finish times

68.

Which formula correctly calculates Earliest Finish Time (EFT)?

a)

EFT = EST + duration

b)

EFT = LST + duration

c)

EFT = LFT − duration

d)

EFT = EST − duration

69.

Latest Start Time (LST) is computed during which type of pass and why?

a)

Monte Carlo pass to model risk scenarios

b)

Simultaneous pass to minimize resource peaks

c)

Forward pass to propagate earliest times

d)

Backward pass to honor deadline constraints

70.

Which expression gives Latest Finish Time (LFT) when activity duration is known?

a)

LFT = LST + duration

b)

LFT = EST + duration

c)

LFT = EFT − duration

d)

LFT = LST − duration

71.

Total Float (TF) for an activity is defined as the amount of time it can be delayed without:

a)

Delaying the project’s completion date

b)

Increasing its optimistic duration estimate

c)

Changing resource assignment matrices

d)

Modifying predecessor relationships entirely

72.

Which formula matches the Total Float definition provided?

a)

TF = Duration − EST

b)

TF = EFT − EST

c)

TF = LFT − EFT

d)

TF = LST − EST

73.

An activity has EST = 0 and duration = 9. What is its EFT?

a)

18 time units

b)

9 time units

c)

0 time units

d)

4 time units

74.

Given an activity with LFT = 9 and duration = 9, what is its LST?

a)

0 time units

b)

9 time units

c)

4 time units

d)

18 time units

75.

If an activity has EST = 0 and LST = 4, what is its Total Float?

a)

5 time units

b)

9 time units

c)

0 time units

d)

4 time units

76.

A noncritical activity shows TF = 15 in the table. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

It indicates 15 units of free float, not total

b)

It may start up to 15 units late without impact

c)

It must start exactly at time 15 to avoid delay

d)

It will reduce project duration by 15 units

77.

Why do critical path activities typically have zero Total Float in PERT scheduling?

a)

Any delay directly shifts the project finish

b)

Their durations are always fixed by law

c)

They have the shortest expected durations

d)

They are calculated only during the forward pass

78.

In PERT, which formula computes a project’s Z-score for a target completion time t?

a)

Z = (t − tcp) / σ

b)

Z = (tcp − t) × σ

c)

Z = (t + tcp) / σ

d)

Z = (t − σ) / tcp

79.

A project has target time t = 26 days, critical path mean tcp = 24 days, and standard deviation σ = 2.6034 days. What is the Z-score (rounded to four decimals)?

a)

0.8260

b)

0.6768

c)

1.2603

d)

0.7682

80.

After finding Z = 0.7682, you look up Z = 0.76 and Z = 0.77 in the normal table with ψ(z) values 0.7764 and 0.7794. What probability is obtained by linear interpolation to Z = 0.768?

a)

0.7794

b)

0.7779

c)

0.7764

d)

0.7786

81.

What does ψ(z) from the Z-table represent in this PERT context?

a)

Complement probability beyond Z

b)

Cumulative probability up to Z

c)

Probability density at Z

d)

Two-tailed probability of Z

82.

If ψ(z) = 0.7779 for a target time, what is the probability (in percent) of completing the project by that time?

a)

77.8%

b)

22.1%

c)

88.9%

d)

55.6%

83.

Which step correctly describes using the Z-table to estimate completion probability when Z is between tabulated values?

a)

Average or interpolate adjacent ψ(z)

b)

Choose the larger ψ(z) only

c)

Ignore ψ(z) and use σ directly

d)

Use the nearest lower ψ(z) only

84.

Which statement best defines risk management in software projects?

a)

A systematic process to identify, assess, and mitigate risks

b)

A budgeting method to reduce overall project costs

c)

A casual review of past issues after project closure

d)

An ad‑hoc list of problems without prioritization

85.

What is the primary goal of risk identification?

a)

List events that could adversely impact objectives

b)

Assign probabilities to each known risk

c)

Execute actions to reduce the likelihood of risks

d)

Report risks to external stakeholders only

86.

Which pair correctly classifies risk sources?

a)

Internal: employee turnover; External: regulatory changes

b)

Internal: natural disasters; External: operational issues

c)

Internal: economic downturns; External: team conflicts

d)

Internal: market collapse; External: financial misreporting

87.

During risk assessment, what activity is essential?

a)

Assign probability and impact ratings to risks

b)

Solicit insurance quotes for every risk

c)

Draft final mitigation plans for all risks

d)

Archive all identified risks for future audits

88.

Which option best describes risk mitigation?

a)

Monitor risks without taking any corrective action

b)

Develop strategies to reduce likelihood or impact

c)

Document risks without prioritizing them

d)

Measure residual risk after acceptance only

89.

Which is NOT a typical risk mitigation strategy?

a)

Risk amplification to test system limits

b)

Risk transfer using insurance coverage

c)

Risk reduction via additional controls

d)

Risk avoidance through changing scope

90.

Why is risk monitoring and control necessary throughout a project?

a)

To ensure strategies remain effective and new risks are addressed

b)

To eliminate the need for periodic assessments

c)

To finalize documentation before project kickoff

d)

To guarantee zero risks will ever materialize

91.

Which practice best supports ongoing risk monitoring?

a)

Communication only with senior management

b)

Mitigation only after project completion

c)

One‑time analysis during initiation

d)

Regular assessments and plan adjustments

92.

Effective risk communication primarily ensures that

a)

Stakeholders are informed about risks and responses

b)

Legal teams manage all risk messages alone

c)

Only developers are briefed on internal defects

d)

Information is hidden to avoid public concern

93.

Which group should be considered in risk communication efforts?

a)

End users after product release

b)

Only project managers and the sponsor

c)

Employees, investors, regulators, and the public

d)

Third‑party insurers exclusively

94.

What is a key purpose of risk documentation?

a)

Guarantee compliance without any assessments

b)

Provide a clear record for future reference or audits

c)

Replace the need for active monitoring and control

d)

Store data that must never be revisited

95.

A project team rates a risk as high probability and high impact, then chooses insurance to offset financial loss. Which sequence of steps is illustrated?

a)

Communication, acceptance, and archival

b)

Identification, assessment, and transfer mitigation

c)

Monitoring, communication, and documentation

d)

Assessment, avoidance, and evaluation

96.

Which statement best defines risk categories in an organization?

a)

Groupings used to organize different risk types

b)

A list of mandatory controls for all risks

c)

A sequence of steps to eliminate all risks

d)

A budget template for financial risk only

97.

Which risk type is primarily linked to long‑term goals and competitive positioning?

a)

Legal risks about disputes

b)

Financial risks about liquidity

c)

Operational risks about processes

d)

Strategic risks related to direction

98.

A sudden shift in customer preferences most directly fits which category?

a)

Strategic risks about market shifts

b)

Operational risks about equipment

c)

Legal risks about contracts

d)

Compliance risks about standards

99.

Which example aligns BEST with operational risk?

a)

Carbon tax increase announced

b)

Patent infringement lawsuit filed

c)

System outage disrupting daily work

d)

Share price decline from rumors

100.

Operational risks typically include issues with processes, technology, supply chain, and what else?

a)

Human resources and compliance

b)

Investor relations only

c)

Only marketing and sales

d)

External lobbying efforts

101.

Currency fluctuations, credit risk, and liquidity risk are grouped under which category?

a)

Reputational risks affecting image

b)

Strategic risks affecting vision

c)

Financial risks affecting stability

d)

Operational risks affecting tasks

102.

Failure to meet laws and industry standards primarily creates which risk?

a)

Compliance and regulatory risks

b)

Project execution schedule risks

c)

Environmental sustainability risks

d)

Human resources workforce risks

103.

Negative media coverage after an ethical misconduct incident is best classified as what?

a)

Legal risk enforcing contracts

b)

Reputational risk harming image

c)

Financial risk reducing cash

d)

Operational risk slowing work

104.

Which item is most associated with environmental and sustainability risks?

a)

Team stand‑up meeting delays

b)

New sales commission plan

c)

Software license renewal terms

d)

Carbon emissions policy changes

105.

High employee turnover and succession gaps are primarily what type of risk?

a)

Human resources workforce risks

b)

Environmental climate change risks

c)

Financial market volatility risks

d)

Compliance regulatory penalty risks

106.

Intellectual property issues and contractual obligations fall under which category?

a)

Legal risks involving disputes

b)

Project risks involving scope

c)

Strategic risks involving goals

d)

Operational risks involving systems

107.

Cost overruns, scope changes, and resource constraints are examples of which risk category?

a)

Project risks affecting delivery

b)

Compliance risks affecting audits

c)

Reputational risks affecting brand

d)

Financial risks affecting liquidity

108.

Which benefit is a primary purpose of categorizing risks?

a)

Improves understanding and assessment

b)

Eliminates all uncertainties permanently

c)

Transfers every risk to insurers

d)

Guarantees immediate profit growth

109.

An equipment failure causing production delays would MOST likely be categorized as what?

a)

Legal risk within obligations

b)

Strategic risk within direction

c)

Operational risk within processes

d)

Reputational risk within image

110.

Protecting brand image to support long‑term success primarily addresses which risk area?

a)

Environmental risks and emissions

b)

Operational risks and workflows

c)

Financial risks and liquidity

d)

Reputational risks and perception