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MODULE 1: ERP FUNDAMENTALS

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the acronym 'ERP' stand for?

a)

Enterprise Reporting Protocol

b)

Enterprise Resource Planning

c)

Efficient Resource Processing

d)

Electronic Resource Platform

2.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of an ERP system?

a)

To create a website for the company

b)

To integrate core business processes across the entire organization

c)

To specifically handle payroll calculations only

d)

To manage only the sales and marketing department

3.

Historically, ERP systems evolved from which type of earlier software?

a)

MRP (Material Requirements Planning)

b)

Social Media Platforms

c)

SCM (Supply Chain Management)

d)

CRM (Customer Relationship Management)

4.

What is a 'silo' in the context of enterprise information systems?

a)

An isolated system where data is not easily shared with other departments

b)

A high-security storage unit for physical servers

c)

A database that stores agricultural data

d)

A type of cloud computing architecture

5.

Which of the following is a major benefit of implementing an ERP system?

a)

Real-time visibility into business operations

b)

Reduced communication between departments

c)

Higher maintenance costs for legacy systems

d)

Increased data redundancy

6.

In the context of ERP, what is 'Master Data'?

a)

The backup of the database

b)

Core data that is essential to operations and shared across the enterprise

c)

Data that is only valid for a single day

d)

Transactional data like specific sales orders

7.

Which company is widely considered the market leader and pioneer in the ERP industry?

a)

Adobe

b)

SAP

c)

Facebook

d)

Netflix

8.

What does 'integration' mean in an ERP context?

a)

Writing code in Python

b)

Building a hardware server rack

c)

Merging two companies together

d)

Linking different functional areas so they share a common database

9.

Which business function is typically NOT considered a core component of a standard ERP?

a)

Supply Chain Management

b)

Video Game Development

c)

Human Capital Management

d)

Financial Accounting

10.

What is the 'client-server' architecture in the context of SAP ERP?

a)

A peer-to-peer network for file sharing

b)

A three-tier structure with presentation, application, and database layers

c)

A website hosting service

d)

A single mainframe computer doing all the work

11.

Which term refers to the pre-defined, best-practice workflows built into an ERP?

a)

Code Snippets

b)

Legacy Workflows

c)

User Stories

d)

Business Processes

12.

Why might a company struggle during an ERP implementation?

a)

Employees are too eager to use the new system

b)

The hardware is too fast

c)

The software is too cheap

d)

Underestimating the need for organizational change management

13.

What is the 'Presentation Layer' in SAP's R/3 architecture?

a)

The hard drive where data is stored

b)

The logic engine that calculates taxes

c)

The graphical user interface (GUI) that the user interacts with

d)

The internet connection

14.

Which of the following is a classic example of a cross-functional business process?

a)

Order-to-Cash

b)

Updating a desktop wallpaper

c)

Cleaning the office

d)

Writing a personal email

15.

Financial Accounting (FI) in an ERP system is primarily designed for:

a)

Sales forecasting

b)

Internal cost analysis

c)

Employee performance reviews

d)

External reporting (taxes, balance sheets)

16.

Management Accounting (CO) or 'Controlling' focuses on:

a)

Internal reporting for decision making

b)

Publishing annual reports for shareholders

c)

Tracking customer support tickets

d)

Compliance with government regulations

17.

What is a 'Transactional Data' in ERP?

a)

Data that defines a Customer’s name

b)

Data defining the company code

c)

Programming code

d)

Data related to everyday events like a specific Purchase Order

18.

Which module handles the hiring and payroll of employees?

a)

Materials Management (MM)

b)

Human Capital Management (HCM)

c)

Sales and Distribution (SD)

d)

Plant Maintenance (PM)

19.

The 'Procure-to-Pay' process involves which departments?

a)

HR and IT

b)

Purchasing, Warehouse, Accounting

c)

Sales and Marketing only

d)

Executive Board only

20.

What is 'Configuration' in an ERP project?

a)

Writing new code from scratch

b)

Setting parameters in the software to match the company's business rules

c)

Installing Windows on laptops

d)

Designing the company logo

21.

Which highest organizational level in SAP represents the global enterprise group?

a)

Company Code

b)

Storage Location

c)

Client

d)

Plant

22.

Which organizational unit is required to generate a set of financial statements (Balance Sheet/P&L)?

a)

Sales Organization

b)

Company Code

c)

Purchasing Group

d)

Warehouse Number

23.

A 'Plant' in SAP can represent which of the following?

a)

A single employee

b)

A manufacturing facility, warehouse, or regional office

c)

A flower

d)

A computer server

24.

What is the smallest organizational unit where stock quantities are tracked?

a)

Bin Section

b)

Storage Location

c)

Company Code

d)

Client

25.

Which software system preceded ERP II and focused on integrating internal manufacturing?

a)

Excel

b)

MRP II

c)

Notepad

d)

Quickbooks

26.

Which layer of the SAP architecture processes the business logic and transactions?

a)

Application Layer

b)

Physical Layer

c)

Presentation Layer

d)

Database Layer

27.

Which layer stores all the transactional and master data?

a)

Network Layer

b)

GUI Layer

c)

Database Layer

d)

Presentation Layer

28.

Which type of data includes 'Vendor Address' and 'Payment Terms'?

a)

Transactional Data

b)

Master Data

c)

System Data

d)

Meta Data

29.

Which type of data includes 'Purchase Order Date' and 'Order Quantity'?

a)

User Data

b)

Transactional Data

c)

Master Data

d)

Organizational Data

30.

What is the main difference between ERP and best-of-breed systems?

a)

Best-of-breed is always cloud-based

b)

There is no difference

c)

ERP integrates all functions; Best-of-breed uses separate systems

d)

ERP is cheaper

31.

What is the typical lifespan of an ERP system in a large company?

a)

1 year

b)

6 months

c)

10 to 20 years

d)

50 years

32.

Which term describes a system where data must be manually re-entered from one system to another?

a)

Disparate System

b)

Integrated System

c)

Automated System

d)

Real-time System

33.

What does 'Real-time' mean in ERP processing?

a)

Updates happen only at night

b)

Transactions assume a fake time

c)

Updates happen once a week

d)

Transactions update the database immediately

34.

Which SAP module manages stock levels and procurement?

a)

Sales and Distribution (SD)

b)

Materials Management (MM)

c)

Financial Accounting (FI)

d)

Project Systems (PS)

35.

Which SAP module manages selling, shipping, and billing?

a)

Plant Maintenance (PM)

b)

Human Resources (HR)

c)

Sales and Distribution (SD)

d)

Quality Management (QM)

36.

Which term describes the software environment used for testing configuration before moving to production?

a)

Development System

b)

Live System

c)

Production System

d)

Quality Assurance (QA) System

37.

Changes are typically made in which environment first?

a)

Training

b)

Quality Assurance

c)

Production

d)

Development

38.

The 'Production System' is used for:

a)

Testing bad code

b)

Training new employees only

c)

Live daily business operations

d)

Experimenting

39.

What is 'Transport' in an SAP context?

a)

Moving configuration/code from Development to QA to Production

b)

Shipping goods with a truck

c)

Driving to work

d)

Moving money

40.

Which 'C-Level' executive is typically most involved in approving an ERP budget?

a)

Chief HR Officer

b)

Chief Marketing Officer

c)

Chief Security Officer

d)

CIO/CFO

41.

What is the 'Single Source of Truth'?

a)

Everyone looks at the same database record

b)

The internet

c)

The CEO’s opinion

d)

Everyone has their own spreadsheet

42.

Which is NOT a benefit of integration?

a)

Improved Visibility

b)

Process Efficiency

c)

Data Consistency

d)

Data Redundancy (Duplication)

43.

What is a 'Business Scenario'?

a)

A movie plot

b)

A meeting agenda

c)

A group of related business transactions (e.g., Sell from Stock)

d)

A software bug

44.

What defines the structure of an enterprise (e.g., subsidiaries, factories) in the system?

a)

Transactional Data

b)

Master Data

c)

Rules Data

d)

Organizational Data

45.

Customer Master Data is created at which organizational level to be shared?

a)

Sales Area (but general data is at Client)

b)

Storage Location

c)

Work Center

d)

Bin

46.

Why does Master Data need to be clean before migration?

a)

It doesn’t need to be clean

b)

Garbage In, Garbage Out

c)

The system cleans it automatically

d)

It makes the file smaller

47.

The 'Supply Chain' flows:

a)

In a circle

b)

From Customer to Supplier only

c)

From Raw Materials to End Customer

d)

It doesn’t flow

48.

Which ERP trend involves connecting sensors and machines to the system?

a)

Cloud ERP

b)

Social ERP

c)

IoT (Internet of Things)

d)

Mobile ERP

49.

What is 'In-Memory Computing' (like SAP HANA)?

a)

Processing data in RAM for extreme speed

b)

Calculating on paper

c)

Using USB drives

d)

Storing data on tapes

50.

What is the primary language used for coding in SAP?

a)

Python

b)

Java

c)

C++

d)

ABAP

51.

Who is a 'Key User'?

a)

A department expert who knows the business process deeply

b)

The IT Director

c)

A locksmith

d)

A new hire

52.

What is 'Role-Based Access Control'?

a)

Everyone has admin rights

b)

Access is based on age

c)

Users only get access to transactions needed for their job

d)

Access is random

53.

A 'Transaction Code' (T-Code) in SAP is used to:

a)

Unlock the door

b)

Execute a specific function or report

c)

Write code

d)

Pay a bill

54.

Which key on the keyboard often acts as 'Enter' or 'Continue' in ERP forms?

a)

Escape

b)

Alt

c)

Enter

d)

F1

55.

F1 key in SAP typically provides:

a)

Print

b)

Help on the field

c)

Save

d)

Exit

56.

F4 key in SAP typically provides:

a)

A list of possible values (dropdown)

b)

Exit

c)

Help

d)

Delete

57.

Why are 'Mandatory Fields' important?

a)

Annoy the user

b)

Ensure critical data is not missing

c)

Make the form look full

d)

Slow down entry

58.

What happens if you enter invalid data in a field (e.g. text in a date field)?

a)

It saves anyway

b)

The computer restarts

c)

The system displays an error message

d)

It calls the police

59.

Which GUI theme is the modern web-based interface for SAP?

a)

GUI 7.2

b)

Windows 95

c)

DOS

d)

Fiori

60.

The Procurement Process covers which cycle?

a)

Plan-to-Produce

b)

Hire-to-Retire

c)

Purchase-to-Pay

d)

Order-to-Cash

61.

What is the very first document in the standard procurement cycle?

a)

Purchase Requisition

b)

Purchase Order

c)

Goods Receipt

d)

Invoice

62.

Who typically generates a Purchase Requisition?

a)

The Vendor

b)

An internal department needing goods

c)

The Customer

d)

The Truck Driver

63.

Does a Purchase Requisition represent a legal commitment to a vendor?

a)

Only if printed

b)

Only on Tuesdays

c)

No, it is internal only

d)

Yes, strictly

64.

Which department converts a Requisition into a Purchase Order?

a)

Warehouse

b)

Purchasing / Procurement

c)

Accounting

d)

Sales

65.

What is a 'Purchase Order' (PO)?

a)

A formal legal request sent to a vendor to supply goods

b)

A bill

c)

An internal note

d)

A shipping label

66.

Which master data must exist before creating a PO?

a)

Employee Master

b)

Asset Master

c)

Vendor Master and Material Master

d)

Customer Master

67.

If we buy a service instead of a product, what is different?

a)

No PO is needed

b)

We use a Sales Order

c)

No physical Goods Receipt is usually posted (Service Entry Sheet instead)

d)

We don’t pay

68.

What happens during 'Goods Receipt' (GR)?

a)

We order the goods

b)

We sell the goods

c)

We pay the vendor

d)

The warehouse confirms physical arrival and posts the stock increase

69.

What accounting posting happens at Goods Receipt?

a)

No posting

b)

Debit Cash

c)

Credit Revenue

d)

Debit Inventory, Credit GR/IR.

70.

What does 'GR/IR' stand for?

a)

General Report / Inventory Report

b)

Goods Receipt / Invoice Receipt clearing account

c)

Great Return / Internal Revenue

d)

Gross Revenue / Internal Rate

71.

Which document does the Vendor send to request payment?

a)

Requisition

b)

Delivery Note

c)

Purchase Order

d)

Invoice

72.

What is 'Three-Way Match'?

a)

Comparing PO, Goods Receipt, and Invoice for discrepancies

b)

Matching 3 colors

c)

Matching Price, Quantity, and Time

d)

Matching Vendor, Customer, and Bank

73.

If the Invoice Price is higher than the PO Price, what happens?

a)

The system deletes the PO

b)

The vendor is banned

c)

The invoice is blocked for payment (depending on tolerance limits)

d)

It is paid automatically

74.

The final step 'Payment' is handled by which department?

a)

Warehouse

b)

Sales

c)

Accounts Payable (Finance)

d)

Purchasing

75.

Which organizational element represents the negotiating team for purchasing?

a)

Storage Location

b)

Company Code

c)

Purchasing Organization

d)

Plant

76.

Which document accompanies the shipment from the vendor?

a)

Requisition

b)

Packing Slip / Delivery Note

c)

Invoice

d)

Check

77.

What is a 'Outline Agreement'?

a)

A detailed drawing

b)

A generic agreement

c)

A long-term contract with a vendor

d)

A dispute

78.

Buying office supplies usually follows which process?

a)

Production

b)

Sales

c)

Maintenance

d)

Procurement / Purchasing

79.

Stock status 'Unrestricted Use' means:

a)

Goods are available for use or sale

b)

Goods are being tested

c)

Goods are broken

d)

Goods are reserved

80.

The Sales Process covers which cycle?

a)

Purchase-to-Pay

b)

Make-to-Stock

c)

Order-to-Cash

d)

Record-to-Report

81.

What is a 'Customer Inquiry'?

a)

A firm order

b)

A bill

c)

A complaint

d)

A request from a customer for information or pricing

82.

What is a 'Quotation'?

a)

A random price

b)

A legally forming offer to a customer valid for a specific time

c)

A final bill

d)

A guess

83.

A 'Sales Order' is created when:

a)

We ship goods

b)

A customer commits to buy specific goods

c)

We receive a check

d)

We verify stock

84.

Which check normally happens automatically during Sales Order creation?

a)

Availability Check and Credit Limit Check

b)

Background Check

c)

Spell Check

d)

Drug Test

85.

The 'Delivery' document in SAP triggers which physical activities?

a)

Invoicing

b)

Manufacturing

c)

Picking and Packing

d)

Ordering

86.

What is 'Picking'?

a)

Choosing a customer

b)

Driving the truck

c)

Taking goods off the shelf in the warehouse

d)

Selecting a vendor

87.

What is 'Post Goods Issue' (PGI) in Sales?

a)

Counting inventory

b)

Issuing a quote

c)

Receiving returns

d)

The moment ownership transfers and stock is reduced

88.

What accounting impact does PGI have?

a)

Debit Cash

b)

Credit Inventory, Debit Cost of Goods Sold

c)

Debit Revenue

d)

Credit AP

89.

Can you bill (invoice) a customer before Post Goods Issue in a standard flow?

a)

Typically no, you bill what you have shipped

b)

Yes, always

c)

Yes, if they are nice

d)

Only on weekends

90.

Which document is sent to the customer to request payment?

a)

Delivery Note

b)

Quote

c)

Billing Document / Invoice

d)

Sales Order