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COA CHAP 1.2

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the role of a transistor in digital circuits?

a)

It measures analog voltages continuously

b)

It amplifies audio for output speakers

c)

It switches states to represent 0 and 1

d)

It stores long-term programs and instructions

2.

Integrated circuits are primarily built from which basic component?

a)

Transistors combined together

b)

Inductors for magnetic storage

c)

Resistors forming voltage dividers

d)

Capacitors arranged in arrays

3.

What mathematical system underpins the operation of digital logic gates?

a)

Vector calculus and matrices

b)

Numerical methods calculus

c)

Probability theory models

d)

Boolean algebra principles

4.

Who proposed the basic principles of Boolean algebra in 1854?

a)

Gottfried Leibniz in 1703

b)

Claude Shannon in 1948

c)

George Boole in 1854

d)

Alan Turing in 1936

5.

Which researcher connected Boolean algebra to relay-switching circuit design?

a)

Herman Hollerith suggested punched cards

b)

Claude Shannon suggested relay use

c)

Norbert Wiener proposed cybernetics

d)

John von Neumann built stored programs

6.

Why is Boolean algebra considered a convenient tool in digital design?

a)

It eliminates the need for timing diagrams

b)

It provides economical analysis and design

c)

It ensures analog linearity in circuits

d)

It replaces hardware with optical fibers

7.

In Boolean logic, what values can a variable take?

a)

Complex numbers with phases

b)

Binary values 0 or 1

c)

Only positive real numbers

d)

Any integer from −1 to 1

8.

Which condition makes the AND operation yield true?

a)

Both inputs are false

b)

Either input is true

c)

Exactly one input is true

d)

Both inputs are true

9.

When parentheses are omitted, which operation takes precedence in Boolean expressions?

a)

OR takes precedence by default

b)

NOT takes lowest precedence

c)

XOR overrides all others

d)

AND takes precedence by default

10.

Which statement about representing the AND operation is correct when no ambiguity occurs?

a)

It must use a plus sign symbol

b)

It can be shown by simple concatenation

c)

+ denotes dot-free concatenation

d)

It requires the exclusive OR mark

11.

What is the defining behavior of the OR operation in Boolean logic?

a)

True exactly when inputs are unequal

b)

True only when both inputs are false

c)

True when either or both inputs are true

d)

True only when both inputs are true

12.

What effect does the NOT operation have on its operand?

a)

It inverts the operand’s value

b)

It leaves the operand unchanged

c)

It compares two operand values

d)

It doubles the operand’s value

13.

Which Boolean operator yields 1 only when both inputs P and Q are 1?

a)

XOR operator with inputs P and Q

b)

AND operator with inputs P and Q

c)

OR operator with inputs P and Q

d)

NOR operator with inputs P and Q

14.

For inputs P=0 and Q=1, what is the output of P XOR Q?

a)

0 because inputs are different

b)

1 because inputs are different

c)

1 because inputs are same

d)

0 because inputs are same

15.

Which gate outputs 0 only when both inputs are 1?

a)

XOR gate with two inputs

b)

NOR gate with two inputs

c)

NAND gate with two inputs

d)

AND gate with two inputs

16.

The output of a two-input NOR gate is 1 when:

a)

Any input is 1

b)

Both inputs are 1

c)

Both inputs are 0

d)

Inputs are different

17.

Extend XOR to more than two inputs. When is the multi-input XOR equal to 1?

a)

When an odd number of inputs are 1

b)

When all inputs are 1

c)

When no inputs are 1

d)

When any input is 1

18.

Which identity matches the statement: A + B = B + A?

a)

Identity Law for addition

b)

Associative Law for addition

c)

Distributive Law for addition

d)

Commutative Law for addition

19.

Which identity states that A • (B + C) = (A • B) + (A • C)?

a)

DeMorgan's Theorem

b)

Commutative Law of multiplication

c)

Distributive Law of multiplication over addition

d)

Associative Law of multiplication

20.

What is the value of A • Ā according to basic postulates?

a)

1 by inverse elements

b)

0 by inverse elements

c)

A by identity elements

d)

Ā by inverse elements

21.

Using identity elements, what is 1 • A equal to?

a)

1 by identity element

b)

A by identity element

c)

0 by identity element

d)

Ā by identity element

22.

According to DeMorgan's Theorem, what is the complement of A • B?

a)

A + B̄

b)

Ā + B̄

c)

Ā • B̄

d)

Ā + B

23.

Evaluate P NAND Q when P=1 and Q=0.

a)

0 because both are 1

b)

1 because not both are 1

c)

0 because inputs differ

d)

1 because both are 0

24.

Which statement correctly describes the multi-input AND operation?

a)

Output is 1 if all inputs are 0

b)

Output is 1 if inputs are different

c)

Output is 1 if all inputs are 1

d)

Output is 1 if any inputs are 1

25.

Choose the correct associative law for OR.

a)

(A + B) = B + (A • C)

b)

A + (B • C) = (A + B) + C

c)

A • (B • C) = (A + B) • C

d)

A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C

26.

Which operation yields 0 when any input is 1 for all inputs?

a)

XOR with multiple inputs

b)

NAND with multiple inputs

c)

NOR with multiple inputs

d)

OR with multiple inputs

27.

If P=1 and Q=1, what is the output of P XOR Q?

a)

0 because inputs are identical

b)

1 because inputs are opposite

c)

1 because inputs are identical

d)

0 because inputs are opposite

28.

Which gate outputs 1 only when both inputs A and B are 1?

a)

XOR gate

b)

AND gate

c)

OR gate

d)

NOR gate

29.

For a NOT gate, if input A = 0, what is the output F?

a)

F = A + 1

b)

F = 1

c)

F = A

d)

F = 0

30.

Which algebraic expression matches the NOR gate output shown in the table?

a)

F = (A + B)'

b)

F = AB

c)

F = A + B

d)

F = A ⊕ B

31.

According to the XOR truth table, when A = 1 and B = 0, what is F?

a)

F = 0

b)

F = B'

c)

F = 1

d)

F = A

32.

From the NAND uses diagram, which single gate is created by tying both inputs of a NAND together to input A?

a)

XOR gate

b)

OR gate

c)

NOT gate

d)

Buffer gate

33.

In the NAND implementation where two NANDs feed a final NAND, what function does the overall circuit perform?

a)

A + B

b)

(A • B)'

c)

A • B

d)

A ⊕ B

34.

Which truth table row for NAND is correct based on the basic gate panel?

a)

A=1, B=1 ⇒ F=1

b)

A=0, B=0 ⇒ F=0

c)

A=1, B=0 ⇒ F=1

d)

A=0, B=1 ⇒ F=0

35.

On the NOR uses page, connecting both inputs of a NOR to A realizes which function?

a)

A

b)

A + B

c)

A'

d)

AB

36.

The NOR-only circuit that first NORs A and B together, then NORs with a second gate implements what overall function?

a)

A + B

b)

(A + B)'

c)

A • B

d)

(A • B)'

37.

Which statement best explains why NAND and NOR are called universal gates?

a)

They can implement any logic function

b)

They only output 1 for unique inputs

c)

They are faster than XOR in all cases

d)

They have the fewest inputs always

38.

Which statement best defines a combinational circuit?

a)

Output depends only on current inputs

b)

Output depends on stored past inputs

c)

Output toggles at fixed clock edges

d)

Output cycles through preset sequence

39.

In a combinational circuit, what primarily causes delay between input change and output change?

a)

Clock distribution delays

b)

Wire inductance resonance

c)

Gate propagation delays

d)

Flip-flop setup delays

40.

A combinational block is described as having n binary inputs and m binary outputs. What does this imply?

a)

There are n inputs mapping to m outputs

b)

There are m inputs mapping to n outputs

c)

Each output feeds back to inputs

d)

Each input stores m past values

41.

Which is NOT one of the three common ways to specify a combinational circuit?

a)

State transition diagram

b)

Truth table representation

c)

Graphical gate symbols

d)

Boolean equation form

42.

For a truth table with three inputs A, B, C, how many possible input combinations exist?

a)

Nine combinations total

b)

Eight combinations total

c)

Four combinations total

d)

Six combinations total

43.

Given a truth table for F(A,B,C), the sum-of-products (SOP) implementation is built by summing which terms?

a)

Minterms where F equals 1

b)

Maxterms where F equals 0

c)

All possible minterms

d)

Maxterms of each input

44.

In product-of-sums (POS) form, F is expressed as a product of which items?

a)

Differences of binary inputs

b)

Exclusive sums of inputs

c)

Maxterms corresponding to zeros

d)

Minterms corresponding to ones

45.

Which representation directly lists F for every input combination without algebraic symbols?

a)

Timing waveform diagram

b)

Gate-level schematic

c)

Boolean equation form

d)

Truth table representation

46.

Which advantage is typical of algebraic simplification before implementing SOP or POS?

a)

Reduces gate count and inputs

b)

Increases fan-in requirements

c)

Forces unique circuit layout

d)

Eliminates need for truth tables

47.

In the shown SOP network for F(A,B,C), multiple AND gates feed an OR gate. What do the inputs to each AND gate represent?

a)

A specific minterm of A,B,C

b)

A specific maxterm of A,B,C

c)

A parity of the variables

d)

A half-sum of two variables

48.

If a truth table for F has ones at minterms m1, m3, m6, m7 only, which is the correct canonical SOP?

a)

F = Σ m(1,3,6,7)

b)

F = Π M(1,3,6,7)

c)

F = Σ M(1,3,6,7)

d)

F = Π m(1,3,6,7)

49.

A designer chooses POS instead of SOP for a function with many zeros and few ones. Which reason best supports this choice?

a)

POS ensures hazard-free outputs automatically

b)

POS avoids needing any inverters entirely

c)

POS uses fewer terms when zeros dominate

d)

POS guarantees minimal gate depth always

50.

In a product-of-sums implementation, which gate type typically combines the outputs of several OR gates to produce the final function F?

a)

A single AND gate after OR stages

b)

A single OR gate after AND stages

c)

A single NAND gate after OR stages

d)

A single XOR gate after OR stages

51.

The simplified implementation shown uses inputs A̅ and C̅ feeding one gate whose output and B feed a second gate to produce F. Which Boolean form best matches this circuit?

a)

F = (A̅ + C̅) + B

b)

F = (A̅ · C̅) + B

c)

F = (A̅ + C̅) · B

d)

F = (A̅ · C̅) · B

52.

Algebraic simplification aims to do which of the following when reducing a Boolean expression?

a)

Introduce XOR operators for brevity

b)

Enumerate all minterms exhaustively

c)

Use identities to reduce elements

d)

Convert to Gray code before mapping

53.

In the product-of-sums network for three variables A, B, C feeding multiple OR gates whose outputs are combined, each OR gate most likely represents which of the following?

a)

A Karnaugh map adjacency group

b)

A minterm corresponding to F=1 case

c)

A consensus term added for hazard

d)

A maxterm corresponding to F=0 case

54.

For a one-digit packed decimal incrementer, the inputs A, B, C, D represent a BCD digit. Which input combination is considered a “don’t care” in standard BCD?

a)

0000 to 1111 inclusive

b)

0101 to 1000 inclusive

c)

0000 to 1001 inclusive

d)

1010 to 1111 inclusive

55.

Suppose a BCD input 0111 (7) is applied to the incrementer. Which binary-coded output should represent the incremented value?

a)

0110 for eight

b)

1000 for eight

c)

0111 for eight

d)

1001 for eight

56.

Which step distinguishes the Quine–McCluskey method from purely algebraic simplification when minimizing Boolean functions?

a)

Tabulating and combining minterms by bit count

b)

Using XOR-based parity groupings primarily

c)

Drawing only gate-level schematics first

d)

Applying DeMorgan’s laws exclusively

57.

When implementing F = (A̅ + C̅) · B in gates, what is the minimum two-level structure that realizes F?

a)

One NAND of A and C feeding an OR with B

b)

One NOR of A and C feeding an AND with B

c)

One AND gate for A̅ and C̅ feeding an OR with B

d)

One OR gate for A̅ and C̅ feeding an AND with B

58.

In a 4-to-1 multiplexer, which data input is routed to the output when S2=0 and S1=1?

a)

D0

b)

D1

c)

D2

d)

D3

59.

How many select lines are required for an n-to-1 multiplexer when n=8?

a)

1 select line

b)

2 select lines

c)

3 select lines

d)

4 select lines

e)

8 select lines

60.

Which statement best describes a decoder in digital logic?

a)

Converts binary code into one active output line

b)

Combines many outputs into a single input line

c)

Stores binary words for later retrieval

d)

Converts multiple inputs into one output line

61.

A 3-to-8 decoder has inputs A2 A1 A0. When A2A1A0=101, which output is active (assuming active-high outputs)?

a)

Y3 becomes high

b)

Y5 becomes high

c)

Y7 becomes high

d)

Y6 becomes high

62.

Which component can implement a demultiplexer function most directly?

a)

Register with parallel load

b)

Decoder with enable used as data

c)

Encoder with priority disabled

d)

Multiplexer with enable tied low

63.

In address decoding for memory-mapped I/O, what is the purpose of the decoder?

a)

Stores the current address permanently

b)

Selects one device for a given address

c)

Generates clock signals for buses

d)

Converts data to serial format

64.

According to the 4-to-1 multiplexer truth table, which selection maps input D3 to output F?

a)

S2S1 = 00

b)

S2S1 = 01

c)

S2S1 = 10

d)

S2S1 = 11

65.

Which is a correct comparison between a multiplexer and a decoder?

a)

Multiplexer stores data; decoder transmits data

b)

Multiplexer selects one input; decoder selects one output

c)

Multiplexer decodes binary code; decoder encodes inputs

d)

Multiplexer increases outputs; decoder reduces outputs

66.

A 4-to-1 MUX is used to route sensor data. If S2S1 toggles through 00,01,10,11, what sequence appears at F? Assume stable inputs D0..D3.

a)

D0, D0, D2, D2

b)

D1, D0, D3, D2

c)

D0, D1, D2, D3

d)

D3, D2, D1, D0

67.

For address decoding using a 4-to-16 decoder with active-high outputs, which condition ensures only one memory chip is enabled at a time?

a)

Drive decoder with data bus lines

b)

Short all outputs together directly

c)

Use unique address ranges on inputs

d)

Tie all enables low and share outputs

68.

Which statement best defines Read-Only Memory (ROM) in digital logic?

a)

A register that updates on every clock

b)

A sequential circuit with feedback loops

c)

A device for temporary arithmetic storage

d)

A memory storing permanent binary information

69.

Why is ROM considered a combinational circuit rather than a sequential circuit?

a)

Its outputs depend only on present inputs

b)

It continuously changes with clock edges

c)

It stores data using flip-flop feedback

d)

It requires refresh cycles like DRAM

70.

What does the read operation in ROM involve?

a)

Selecting an address to produce stored bits

b)

Writing new data into chosen locations

c)

Shifting bits through a serial port

d)

Clearing all contents before accessing

71.

Which phrase best characterizes the contents of ROM?

a)

Permanent binary information

b)

Volatile cache-based patterns

c)

Analog calibration waveforms

d)

Frequently updated micro-ops

72.

When modeled as a combinational circuit, a ROM maps:

a)

Address inputs to fixed output words

b)

Clock pulses to changing states

c)

Enable lines to internal latches

d)

Data inputs to writable registers

73.

Which outcome is expected if the same ROM address is applied repeatedly?

a)

The same fixed word appears each time

b)

Different words cycle on each attempt

c)

No output until a write completes

d)

An analog level gradually drifts

74.

Which is a valid reason to use ROM in a system design?

a)

To provide volatile working memory

b)

To buffer high-speed analog signals

c)

To store firmware that must not change

d)

To implement counters needing clocks

75.

Consider a ROM with 10 address lines and 8 data output lines. Which statement is correct?

a)

It holds 2048 words of 4 bits each

b)

It holds 512 words of 16 bits each

c)

It holds 8 words of 1024 bits each

d)

It holds 1024 words of 8 bits each

76.

Which statement best defines a sequential circuit?

a)

Output depends only on clock frequency

b)

Output depends only on current inputs

c)

Output depends on current and past inputs

d)

Output depends only on internal power

77.

Why are flip-flops considered the simplest sequential circuits?

a)

They produce multiple parallel outputs

b)

They implement pure combinational logic

c)

They store one bit using two stable states

d)

They require no input signals at all

78.

A flip-flop is described as a bistable device. What does bistable mean in this context?

a)

It has one stable state only

b)

It has two stable states

c)

It has three transient states

d)

It never reaches a stable state

79.

Which feature of flip-flops enables them to act as 1-bit memory elements?

a)

Dependence on past inputs exists

b)

Asynchronous propagation delays occur

c)

Two complementary outputs exist

d)

Multiple input lines are used

80.

In the absence of further input, what does a flip-flop do?

a)

It resets automatically to zero state

b)

It remains in its current stable state

c)

It outputs undefined metastable state

d)

It toggles continuously between states

81.

Which pair correctly describes the outputs of a flip-flop?

a)

Both outputs equal the same value

b)

One output is random noise

c)

Outputs are complements of each other

d)

Outputs are independent analog levels

82.

Which characteristic distinguishes sequential circuits from combinational circuits most clearly?

a)

Generation of analog instead of digital signals

b)

Dependence on present and past inputs

c)

Use of only logic gates without memory

d)

Requirement of no power for operation

83.

A system uses combinational logic plus a 1-bit memory element to control state transitions. Which component most appropriately provides that 1-bit memory?

a)

Half adder without storage

b)

Flip-flop with complementary outputs

c)

Decoder with enable input

d)

Priority encoder module

84.

In the S-R latch characteristic table, what is the next state Q(n+1) when inputs S=0 and R=0, assuming current state Q(n)=1?

a)

Undefined due to invalid inputs

b)

1 because set is active

c)

1 because state is held

d)

0 due to reset dominance

85.

For an S-R latch, which input combination leads to an undefined or invalid next state?

a)

S=1, R=1

b)

S=0, R=0

c)

S=0, R=1

d)

S=1, R=0

86.

Using the S-R latch response table, if S pulses high at t=1 while R=0 and initial Q was 0, what is Q after the pulse?

a)

Q becomes undefined then resets

b)

Q toggles each clock

c)

Q becomes 0 and stays 0

d)

Q becomes 1 and stays 1

87.

In the J-K flip-flop diagram, which statement best describes the role of the cross-coupled feedback to the inputs of the OR/NOR-like gates at the outputs?

a)

It converts the device into a D latch

b)

It enables toggling when J=K=1

c)

It forces level-sensitive latching only

d)

It disables the clocked gating path

88.

When clock is active on the J-K flip-flop and J=1, K=0, what is the next state Q? Assume standard behavior.

a)

Q becomes indeterminate

b)

Q holds previous state

c)

Q sets to 1

d)

Q resets to 0

89.

For the J-K flip-flop, what happens when J=K=1 during the active clock edge?

a)

Q toggles to the opposite state

b)

Q becomes high-impedance

c)

Q becomes forced to 1

d)

Q becomes forced to 0

90.

In the 5-bit shift register diagram, what is the primary function of the chain of D flip-flops with a shared clock?

a)

Parallel load of multiple words

b)

Serial-to-parallel data shifting

c)

Combinational decoding logic

d)

Asynchronous memory refresh

91.

If the serial input is 1,0,1,1,0 applied over five consecutive clock pulses to the 5-bit shift register initially cleared, what is the serial output after the fifth pulse?

a)

1 because first bit has reached out

b)

0 because register length is variable

c)

1 because outputs always mirror inputs

d)

0 because last stage just loaded 0

92.

Which statement correctly distinguishes an S-R latch from the J-K flip-flop shown?

a)

J-K cannot store previous state

b)

J-K resolves S=R=1 by toggling

c)

Latch requires a clock signal

d)

Both are edge-triggered devices

93.

A 5-bit shift register like the one shown is best used to implement which operation in digital systems?

a)

Priority encoding of events

b)

Analog-to-digital conversion

c)

Time-delayed bit pipeline

d)

Bitwise AND over five inputs

94.

Which statement best defines a counter in digital logic?

a)

A combinational circuit generating parity from inputs

b)

A device that multiplies clock frequency using dividers

c)

A memory that stores arbitrary binary words indefinitely

d)

A register that increments by one modulo its capacity

95.

What happens to the count value when a counter reaches its maximum capacity?

a)

It resets to zero on the next increment

b)

It holds the maximum until power is cycled

c)

It decrements back to zero automatically

d)

It pauses counting until a load signal

96.

Why are asynchronous counters relatively slow compared with synchronous counters?

a)

Each flip‑flop triggers the next, causing ripple delay

b)

They depend on analog propagation through wires

c)

They require higher clock frequencies to operate

d)

They use more gates per flip‑flop than others

97.

Which feature characterizes a synchronous counter?

a)

All flip‑flops change state on the same clock

b)

Only the first flip‑flop receives the clock input

c)

The count resets only with asynchronous clear

d)

Outputs toggle solely from combinational logic

98.

In a CPU, which component is a practical example of a counter?

a)

Status register storing condition code bits

b)

Program counter advancing through instruction addresses

c)

Arithmetic logic unit executing micro‑operations

d)

General‑purpose register holding operand values

99.

In the 8‑bit parallel register diagram labeled Ripple Counter, what do the lines labeled D01–D08 represent?

a)

Parallel output lines from each flip‑flop stage

b)

Individual clock inputs for each flip‑flop

c)

Asynchronous clear lines daisy‑chained together

d)

Data inputs tied to a serial shift register

100.

Considering propagation delays, which design generally achieves higher maximum counting frequency?

a)

Synchronous counter with common clocking

b)

Asynchronous ripple counter chaining stages

c)

Program counter using microcoded control

d)

Ring oscillator built from inverters

101.

Which term refers to any integrated circuit that can be configured by the end user to implement digital hardware designs?

a)

Programmable Logic Device (PLD)

b)

Programmable Logic Array (PLA)

c)

Logic Block

d)

Programmable Array Logic (PAL)

102.

Which device has two programmable logic levels—an AND-plane and an OR-plane—both programmable?

a)

Field-Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

b)

Programmable Array Logic (PAL)

c)

Programmable Logic Array (PLA)

d)

Complex PLD (CPLD)

103.

Which device features a programmable AND-plane followed by a fixed OR-plane?

a)

Programmable Array Logic (PAL)

b)

Logic Block

c)

Simple PLD (SPLD)

d)

Programmable Logic Array (PLA)

104.

A Simple PLD (SPLD) is best described as which of the following?

a)

A multi-chip CPLD

b)

A full FPGA fabric

c)

A single logic block

d)

A PLA or PAL device

105.

Which statement best contrasts CPLDs and FPGAs in terms of logic resources?

a)

Neither CPLDs nor FPGAs use input planes for resources

b)

Both CPLDs and FPGAs offer equally wide input resources

c)

FPGAs offer wider input resources; CPLDs offer narrower resources

d)

CPLDs offer wider input resources; FPGAs offer narrower resources

106.

Which device typically offers a higher ratio of flip-flops to logic resources?

a)

Field-Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

b)

Complex PLD (CPLD)

c)

Programmable Array Logic (PAL)

d)

Programmable Logic Array (PLA)

107.

In the context of FPGAs, what is a logic block most accurately described as?

a)

A fixed OR-plane with gates

b)

A complete microprocessor subsystem

c)

A dedicated memory macrocell

d)

A small circuit unit replicated in an array