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Post Test Refreshment PPDS Kardiologi

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of sudden onset palpitations associated with diaphoresis and lightheadedness that started 30 minutes ago while he was resting. He has a history of hypertension and previous anterior myocardial infarction treated relatively five years ago. On arrival, he appears pale and anxious. Blood pressure is 82/54 mmHg, heart rate 186 beats/min, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on room air. The ECG shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 186 beats/min with a QRS duration of 160 ms. P waves are not clearly visible, and careful inspection suggests atrioventricular dissociation. Carotid sinus massage produces no change in heart rate or rhythm.

a)

Intravenous adenosine bolus

b)

Intravenous amiodarone infusion

c)

Immediate synchronized electrical cardioversion

d)

Intravenous metoprolol

e)

Observation with continuous cardiac monitoring

2.

A 27-year-old woman with no known structural heart disease presents to the outpatient clinic because of recurrent episodes of sudden-onset palpitations over the past year. Each episode begins and ends abruptly, lasts 10–30 minutes, and is sometimes associated with mild dizziness but no syncope. She reports that the episodes can occasionally be terminated by holding her breath and bearing down. During one episode recorded in the emergency department, her ECG demonstrates a narrow-complex tachycardia at 190 beats/min. P waves are not clearly discernible during tachycardia. After a modified Valsalva maneuver, the rhythm abruptly converts to normal sinus rhythm. Her baseline ECG shows no pre-excitation or conduction abnormalities. What is the most likely underlying electrophysiological mechanism responsible for this arrhythmia?

a)

Macro–re-entrant circuit involving the atrial myocardium

b)

Multiple re-entrant wavelets in the atria

c)

Re-entry within the atrioventricular node

d)

Automatic focus originating from the right ventricle

e)

Enhanced sinus node automaticity

3.

A 73-year-old man is evaluated after two episodes of unexplained syncope over the last three months. Both episodes occurred at rest and were preceded by brief lightheadedness without chest pain or palpitations. His medications include amlodipine for hypertension. Physical examination is unremarkable. Baseline ECG shows sinus rhythm at 62 beats/min with no AV block. A 48-hour Holter monitor reveals multiple sinus pauses, the longest lasting 6.8 seconds, occurring predominantly during daytime hours and correlating with symptoms recorded in the patient diary. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

a)

Initiation of oral theophylline therapy

b)

Intermittent atropine administration as needed

c)

Implantation of a dual-chamber permanent pacemaker

d)

Implantation of a single-chamber ICD

e)

Reassurance and observation

4.

A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit for recurrent episodes of syncope. Telemetry shows runs of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Her ECG demonstrates a prolonged QT interval of 540 ms. Laboratory tests reveal potassium 3.1 mmol/L and magnesium 1.4 mg/dL. She was started on sotalol three days earlier for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?

a)

Discontinuation of sotalol and intravenous lidocaine

b)

Intravenous amiodarone bolus

c)

Intravenous magnesium sulfate administration

d)

Immediate implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

e)

Oral beta-blocker therapy

5.

A 41-year-old man presents after a witnessed syncopal episode while walking. He has no prior medical history. His brother died suddenly at the age of 29 during sleep. ECG shows coved ST-segment elevation ≥2 mm in leads V1–V3 followed by negative T waves. Echocardiography shows no structural heart disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for this patient?

a)

Long-term beta-blocker therapy

b)

Oral quinidine therapy alone

c)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

No treatment with reassurance

6.

A 69-year-old woman with a history of long-standing hypertension and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction presents with acute onset dyspnea and orthopnea that started 2 hours ago. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

a)

Acute pulmonary edema

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Acute asthma exacerbation

7.

A 62-year-old man is admitted for evaluation of recurrent presyncope. He reports several episodes of near-fainting over the past month, often occurring without warning. He denies chest pain or palpitations. His medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is normal. Baseline ECG shows sinus rhythm with alternating right and left bundle branch block on serial tracings. Echocardiography reveals normal left ventricular systolic function and no structural heart disease.

a)

Reassurance and outpatient follow-up

b)

Initiation of beta-blocker therapy

c)

Implantation of a permanent pacemaker

d)

Implantation of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

e)

Tilt-table testing

8.

A 58-year-old man with a known history of Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome presents with sudden-onset palpitations and dizziness. On arrival, his blood pressure is 105/70 mmHg. ECG shows an irregular wide-complex tachycardia with varying QRS morphology and a ventricular rate of approximately 220 beats/min.

a)

Procainamide

b)

Ibutilide

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Electrical cardioversion

e)

Synchronized cardioversion

9.

A 74-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 30%) presents after an episode of sudden cardiac arrest at home. He was successfully resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation by emergency medical services. Coronary angiography shows no acute culprit lesion. After stabilization, he is neurologically intact.

a)

Long-term amiodarone therapy

b)

Optimization of beta-blocker dose alone

c)

Implantation of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

d)

Catheter ablation of ventricular arrhythmia substrate

e)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

10.

A 45-year-old man with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with worsening exertional dyspnea and presyncope. Echocardiography demonstrates asymmetric septal hypertrophy and a resting left ventricular outflow tract gradient of 90 mmHg. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg.

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Verapamil

c)

Disopyramide

d)

Sublingual nitrates

e)

Adequate oral hydration

11.

A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department 90 minutes after the onset of severe retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left arm. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V2–V5. He is hemodynamically stable. The hospital has 24-hour PCI capability with an experienced interventional team available immediately.

a)

Intravenous fibrinolytic therapy

b)

Primary percutaneous coronary intervention

c)

Delayed coronary angiography within 72 hours

d)

Medical therapy with antiplatelets and anticoagulation only

12.

A 67-year-old woman presents with chest discomfort and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V4–V6. High-sensitivity troponin is elevated. Her GRACE risk score is calculated at 165. Blood pressure is stable. According to current guidelines, when should coronary angiography be performed?

a)

Only if recurrent ischemia occurs

b)

Within 72 hours

c)

Within 24 hours

d)

After noninvasive stress testing

e)

Only if left ventricular ejection fraction is reduced

13.

A 59-year-old man with acute chest pain has ECG showing horizontal ST-segment depression in leads V1–V3 with tall R waves. Posterior leads V7–V9 show ST elevation. This ECG pattern is most consistent with which diagnosis?

a)

Anterior STEMI

b)

Inferior STEMI

c)

Posterior myocardial infarction

d)

Acute pericarditis

e)

Early repolarization

14.

A 64-year-old man develops hypotension and cool extremities following a large anterior myocardial infarction. Pulmonary artery catheterization reveals a cardiac index of 1.9 L/min/m² and elevated filling pressures. Which of the following findings is most strongly associated with poor short-term prognosis?

a)

Sinus rhythm

b)

Preserved urine output

c)

Cardiac index below 2.2 L/min/m²

d)

Mild pulmonary congestion

e)

Normal serum lactate

15.

A patient with acute coronary syndrome undergoes drug-eluting stent implantation. He has a history of gastrointestinal bleeding one year ago. Which antiplatelet strategy is most appropriate to reduce bleeding risk while maintaining ischemic protection?

a)

Indefinite dual antiplatelet therapy

b)

Aspirin monotherapy immediately

c)

Shortened dual antiplatelet therapy followed by single antiplatelet therapy

d)

Triple antithrombotic therapy

e)

No antiplatelet therapy

16.

A 55-year-old woman presents with chest pain and elevated troponin levels. Coronary angiography reveals non-obstructive coronary arteries. Cardiac MRI later demonstrates subendocardial late gadolinium enhancement.

a)

Unstable angina

b)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

c)

Myocarditis

d)

Myocardial infarction with non-obstructive coronary arteries (MINOCA)

e)

Chronic coronary syndrome

17.

A 72-year-old man develops acute hypotension and new harsh holosystolic murmur 4 days after an inferior myocardial infarction. Pulmonary edema rapidly ensues.

a)

Free wall rupture

b)

Ventricular septal rupture

c)

Acute papillary muscle rupture

d)

Left ventricular aneurysm

e)

Acute pericarditis

18.

A patient with inferior STEMI becomes hypotensive shortly after admission. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and lung fields are clear on auscultation. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

a)

Right ventricular infarction

b)

Acute pericarditis

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Tension pneumothorax

19.

Which diagnosis best explains this presentation?

a)

Left ventricular failure

b)

Ventricular septal rupture

c)

Right ventricular infarction

d)

Acute severe mitral regurgitation

e)

Cardiogenic shock from extensive LV infarction

20.

A 60-year-old man presents with NSTEMI and newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation. He undergoes PCI with drug-eluting stent implantation. He has moderate bleeding risk. Which antithrombotic regimen is preferred?

a)

Long-term triple therapy with aspirin, P2Y12 inhibitor, and warfarin

b)

Aspirin plus P2Y12 inhibitor only

c)

Short-term triple therapy followed by DOAC plus single antiplatelet therapy

d)

Warfarin monotherapy

e)

No anticoagulation

21.

A 68-year-old man presents with cardiogenic shock complicating acute myocardial infarction. Despite adequate fluid resuscitation, hypotension persists. Which vasopressor is recommended as first-line therapy?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Vasopressin

22.

A 72-year-old man with known ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%) presents to the emergency department with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and decreased urine output over the past 24 hours. On examination, he is confused and diaphoretic. Blood pressure is 88/56 mmHg, heart rate 112 beats/min, respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 91% on nasal cannula. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, lungs reveal diffuse crackles, and extremities are cold and clammy. Pulmonary artery catheterization shows: • Cardiac index: 1.6 L/min/m² • Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 28 mmHg • Systemic vascular resistance: elevated. Which hemodynamic profile best describes this patient?

a)

Warm and dry

b)

Warm and wet

c)

Cold and dry

d)

Cold and wet

e)

Distributive shock

23.

In the patient described above, which initial management strategy is most appropriate?

a)

High-dose intravenous vasodilator therapy

b)

Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation

c)

Intravenous inotropic support with cautious diuresis

d)

Immediate initiation of beta-blocker therapy

e)

Observation with supplemental oxygen only

24.

A 64-year-old woman with acute decompensated heart failure is started on intravenous nitrates for severe pulmonary congestion. Shortly after initiation, she develops hypotension. Bedside echocardiography shows a small left ventricular cavity with near-complete inferior vena cava collapse.

a)

Increase nitrate infusion rate

b)

Stop nitrates and administer a cautious fluid bolus

c)

Initiate high-dose vasopressors

d)

Proceed directly to mechanical circulatory support

e)

Add intravenous beta-blocker

25.

Which therapy provides early mortality benefit and should be initiated before hospital discharge?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Ivabradine

c)

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor

d)

Long-acting nitrates

e)

Amiodarone

26.

A 61-year-old man with anterior STEMI complicated by cardiogenic shock remains hypotensive despite adequate volume status, norepinephrine infusion, and dobutamine. Lactate is rising and cardiac index remains 1.5 L/min/m². What is the most evidence-based next step?

a)

Further escalation of vasopressor doses

b)

Initiation of intravenous nitroprusside

c)

Early initiation of temporary mechanical circulatory support

d)

High-dose loop diuretics

e)

Immediate initiation of ACE inhibitor

27.

A patient with acute decompensated heart failure develops a rise in serum creatinine from 1.3 mg/dL to 2.1 mg/dL during aggressive diuretic therapy. Clinical examination still shows marked congestion. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

a)

Diuretics must be stopped immediately

b)

Renal failure excludes heart failure as the primary diagnosis

c)

This represents cardiorenal syndrome and decongestion should continue with close monitoring

d)

Immediate renal replacement therapy is required

e)

ACE inhibitors must be permanently discontinued

28.

A 68-year-old man presents with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Despite high-flow oxygen, he remains hypoxemic. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, PaO₂ 58 mmHg. What is the most appropriate ventilatory strategy?

a)

Immediate endotracheal intubation in all cases

b)

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

c)

Sedation and observation

d)

Oxygen therapy alone

e)

Prone positioning

29.

A 33-year-old woman presents 2 weeks postpartum with progressive dyspnea and lower extremity edema. Echocardiography reveals LVEF 30% with global hypokinesia and left ventricular dilation. She is breastfeeding.

a)

Beta-blocker

b)

Loop diuretic

c)

ACE inhibitor

d)

Bromocriptine

e)

Anticoagulation if LV thrombus is present

30.

A 70-year-old man with chronic HFrEF (EF 28%) remains NYHA class III despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. ECG shows QRS duration 96 ms with non–left bundle branch block morphology. Which of the following therapies is NOT indicated?

a)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator for primary prevention

b)

Cardiac resynchronization therapy

c)

Referral to an advanced heart failure center

d)

Evaluation for heart transplantation

e)

Continued optimization of medical therapy

31.

A 65-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy has severe secondary mitral regurgitation despite optimized guideline-directed medical therapy. He has had multiple hospitalizations for heart failure. Surgical risk is deemed prohibitive. Which intervention has been shown to improve outcomes in appropriately selected patients?

a)

Continued medical therapy alone

b)

Surgical mitral valve replacement

c)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge mitral repair

d)

Balloon mitral valvotomy

32.

A 58-year-old man presents with fulminant myocarditis complicated by cardiogenic shock. Coronary angiography is normal. He requires escalating doses of inotropes and vasopressors to maintain perfusion.

a)

Immediate immunosuppression in all cases

b)

Avoidance of mechanical circulatory support

c)

Temporary mechanical circulatory support as a bridge to recovery

d)

Early beta-blocker therapy

e)

Systemic thrombolysis

33.

A patient presents with hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, hepatomegaly, and clear lung fields. Echocardiography shows severely reduced right ventricular function with preserved left ventricular systolic function.

a)

Acute left ventricular failure

b)

Isolated right ventricular shock

c)

Acute pulmonary edema

d)

Distributive shock

e)

Hypovolemic shock

34.

A 75-year-old man with end-stage heart failure has been hospitalized four times in the past six months despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. He reports poor quality of life and frequent dyspnea at rest. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Further escalation of loop diuretic dose

b)

Discontinuation of disease-modifying therapy

c)

Integration of palliative care alongside heart failure management

d)

Delay discussion until transplantation is feasible

e)

No further intervention

35.

A patient with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction develops sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia during hospitalization. He is successfully cardioverted and stabilized. Which long-term strategy is most appropriate to prevent recurrence and reduce mortality?

a)

Chronic lidocaine infusion

b)

Oral amiodarone alone

c)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

d)

Temporary pacing

e)

Observation only

36.

A hospitalized patient suddenly collapses. Telemetry shows ventricular fibrillation. What is the single most important immediate action?

a)

Intravenous epinephrine

b)

Immediate defibrillation

c)

Endotracheal intubation

d)

Chest radiography

e)

Synchronized cardioversion

37.

During high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation, end-tidal CO2 persistently remains below 10 mmHg. This finding most strongly indicates:

a)

Adequate cardiac output

b)

Return of spontaneous circulation

c)

Poor perfusion and poor prognosis

d)

Hyperventilation artifact

e)

Equipment malfunction

38.

Which of the following rhythms is classified as non-shockable in advanced cardiac life support algorithms?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

39.

A patient with symptomatic bradycardia remains hypotensive and confused despite atropine administration. What is the next recommended intervention?

a)

Observation

b)

Oral theophylline

c)

Transcutaneous pacing

d)

Synchronized cardioversion

e)

Defibrillation

40.

A patient with septic shock develops new-onset atrial fibrillation and becomes hemodynamically unstable. What is the best immediate management?

a)

Intravenous beta-blocker

b)

Intravenous digoxin

c)

Immediate synchronized cardioversion

d)

Observation

e)

Aspirin

41.

A patient survives out-of-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation. Coronary angiography shows no obstructive coronary disease. LVEF is 35%. What is the most appropriate secondary prevention strategy?

a)

Long-term amiodarone therapy

b)

Observation alone

c)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Lifestyle modification only

42.

A 76-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and two recent episodes of exertional presyncope. A harsh late-peaking systolic murmur is heard at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids. Echocardiography shows: AVA 0.7 cm², mean gradient 34 mmHg, LVEF 40%, stroke volume index 28 mL/m².

a)

Moderate aortic stenosis

b)

Classical low-flow, low-gradient severe aortic stenosis

c)

Paradoxical low-flow, low-gradient severe aortic stenosis with preserved EF

d)

Pseudosevere aortic stenosis

e)

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

43.

In the patient above, which diagnostic test is most appropriate to differentiate true severe aortic stenosis from pseudosevere aortic stenosis?

a)

Exercise treadmill testing

b)

Dobutamine stress echocardiography

c)

Coronary angiography

d)

Cardiac MRI with late gadolinium enhancement

e)

Serum BNP measurement

44.

A 69-year-old woman with long-standing atrial fibrillation presents with worsening dyspnea. Echocardiography reveals severe mitral stenosis (valve area 0.9 cm²), marked leaflet calcification, and Wilkins score 11. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

a)

Percutaneous balloon mitral valvotomy

b)

Continued medical therapy only

c)

Surgical mitral valve replacement

d)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

e)

Electrical cardioversion

45.

A 71-year-old man with severe degenerative mitral regurgitation due to a flail posterior leaflet presents with NYHA class III symptoms. LVEF is 60% with LVESD 36 mm. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

a)

Watchful waiting

b)

Medical therapy alone

c)

Early surgical mitral valve repair

d)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

e)

Surgical mitral valve replacement without repair attempt

46.

Which echocardiographic finding most strongly supports the diagnosis of severe primary mitral regurgitation?

a)

Regurgitant volume 45 ml

b)

Effective regurgitant orifice area 0.45 cm²

c)

Left atrial diameter 40 mm

d)

Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 35 mmHg

e)

Mild left ventricular dilation

47.

A 66-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 30%) has severe secondary mitral regurgitation despite maximally tolerated guideline-directed medical therapy. He has had two hospitalizations for heart failure in the past year. Echocardiographic parameters fulfill COAPT trial criteria. Which intervention has been shown to improve outcomes in this patient population?

a)

Surgical mitral valve replacement

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge mitral repair plus GDMT

c)

Balloon mitral valvotomy

d)

Coronary artery bypass grafting alone

e)

Medical therapy alone

48.

A 73-year-old woman with severe tricuspid regurgitation presents with ascites and peripheral edema. Echocardiography shows severe annular dilation and preserved right ventricular systolic function. She is scheduled to undergo mitral valve surgery. What is the most appropriate management of the tricuspid valve?

a)

No intervention, as TR often resolves after mitral surgery

b)

Medical therapy only

c)

Concomitant tricuspid valve repair at the time of mitral surgery

d)

Delayed tricuspid valve replacement if symptoms persist

e)

Transcatheter tricuspid repair as first-line therapy

49.

A 62-year-old man develops sudden pulmonary edema and hypotension three days after an inferior myocardial infarction. A new loud holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex. Echocardiography suggests acute severe mitral regurgitation.

a)

Intravenous diuretics alone

b)

Vasodilator therapy and observation

c)

Urgent surgical intervention with hemodynamic stabilization

d)

Elective transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

e)

Initiation of beta-blocker therapy

50.

A 50-year-old woman with repaired tetralogy of Fallot presents with progressive exercise intolerance. Echocardiography shows severe pulmonary regurgitation and progressive right ventricular dilation, but preserved right ventricular systolic function. What is the most appropriate timing for pulmonary valve intervention?

a)

Only after development of right ventricular failure

b)

When severe pulmonary regurgitation with progressive RV dilation is present

c)

Only after sustained ventricular arrhythmias occur

d)

Medical therapy alone

e)

Emergency valve replacement

51.

A 67-year-old man with a mechanical mitral valve presents with acute dyspnea and hypotension. His INR is 1.5. Echocardiography suggests obstructive prosthetic valve thrombosis.

a)

Increase oral warfarin dose

b)

Intravenous unfractionated heparin alone

c)

Urgent surgery or fibrinolytic therapy depending on clinical context

52.

A 79-year-old man with symptomatic severe aortic stenosis is evaluated for valve replacement. He has high surgical risk due to frailty and chronic kidney disease. CT imaging shows favorable vascular access. Which treatment strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Surgical aortic valve replacement

b)

Balloon aortic valvuloplasty as definitive therapy

c)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

d)

Medical therapy only

e)

No intervention

53.

A patient with severe aortic stenosis has recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding from angiodysplasia (Heyde syndrome). What effect does aortic valve replacement most commonly have on bleeding risk?

a)

No effect

b)

Worsens bleeding

c)

Often reduces or resolves bleeding

d)

Requires lifelong anticoagulation

e)

Contraindicated

54.

A 34-year-old woman with an unrepaired secundum atrial septal defect presents with exertional dyspnea and cyanosis. Echocardiography shows bidirectional shunting and severe pulmonary hypertension.

a)

Immediate closure of the ASD

b)

Pulmonary vasodilator therapy; ASD closure contraindicated

c)

Surgical closure regardless of pulmonary pressure

d)

Percutaneous closure as soon as possible

e)

Observation only

55.

A 29-year-old woman with repaired ventricular septal defect presents for pre-pregnancy counseling. She is asymptomatic with normal ventricular function. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Pregnancy is contraindicated

b)

Pregnancy carries extremely high maternal mortality

c)

Pregnancy is generally well tolerated with low risk

d)

Pregnancy requires termination

e)

Pregnancy is only allowed after valve replacement

56.

A 56-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows concentric LV hypertrophy, biatrial enlargement, and restrictive filling pattern. Cardiac MRI shows diffuse subendocardial late gadolinium enhancement.

a)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Cardiac amyloidosis

d)

Constrictive pericarditis

e)

Ischemic cardiomyopathy

57.

Which echocardiographic feature most strongly favors constrictive pericarditis over restrictive cardiomyopathy?

a)

Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction

b)

Severe biatrial enlargement

c)

Respiratory variation in mitral inflow velocities

d)

Elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure

e)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

58.

A 61-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain. Coronary angiography shows a 60% stenosis in the mid-LAD. Fractional flow reserve (FFR) is measured at 0.84. What is the most appropriate management?

a)

Medical therapy only

b)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

c)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

d)

Observation

59.

Which is the correct answer?

a)

Immediate PCI

b)

CABG

c)

Defer revascularization and optimize medical therapy

d)

Balloon angioplasty only

e)

Repeat angiography in 1 week

60.

A 63-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease requires ischemia evaluation. Minimizing contrast and radiation exposure is a priority. Which test is most appropriate?

a)

Invasive coronary angiography

b)

CT coronary angiography

c)

Stress echocardiography

d)

PET myocardial perfusion imaging with contrast

e)

Cardiac MRI with adolinium

61.

A patient develops a new holosystolic murmur and acute pulmonary edema following myocardial infarction. Transthoracic echocardiography is suboptimal. What is the best next diagnostic step?

a)

Repeat transthoracic echocardiography later

b)

Transesophageal echocardiography

c)

Cardiac MRI

d)

Exercise stress testing

e)

Chest CT

62.

A 60-year-old man undergoes right heart catheterization. Which parameter best reflects preload?

a)

Mean arterial pressure

b)

Systemic vascular resistance

c)

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

d)

Cardiac output

e)

Heart rate

63.

A 70-year-old man with a long history of smoking and diabetes mellitus presents with progressively worsening pain in his left foot over the past two weeks. He reports rest pain at night that is relieved only when he dangles his leg over the side of the bed. Physical examination reveals a non-healing ulcer on the left great toe. Femoral pulse is palpable, but distal pulses are absent. Ankle-brachial Index is 0.32.

a)

Initiation of supervised exercise therapy

b)

Oral antiplatelet therapy alone

c)

Urgent vascular imaging with a plan for revascularization

d)

Observation with wound care

e)

Primary amputation

64.

A 65-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe pain, pallor, and numbness in her right leg that began 3 hours ago. On examination, the leg is cold, pulseless, and she has reduced motor function of the foot. What is the most important immediate management step?

a)

Immediate catheter-directed thrombolysis

b)

Intravenous unfractionated heparin administration

c)

CT angiography prior to any treatment

d)

Oral antiplatelet therapy

e)

Observation and analgesia

65.

A 59-year-old man presents with abrupt onset of tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Blood pressure is 180/95 mmHg. CT angiography reveals a Stanford type B aortic dissection extending from the distal left subclavian artery to the abdominal aorta, without evidence of rupture or malperfusion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

a)

Emergency surgical repair

b)

Endovascular repair in all cases

c)

Optimal medical therapy with aggressive blood pressure and heart rate control

d)

Systemic thrombolysis

66.

Which finding in a patient with acute Stanford type B aortic dissection mandates urgent endovascular or surgical intervention?

a)

Controlled pain and blood pressure

b)

Stable uncomplicated dissection

c)

Evidence of malperfusion, rupture, or persistent pain

d)

Age greater than 70 years

e)

Chronic hypertension

67.

A 54-year-old woman presents with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and syncope. Blood pressure is 78/48 mmHg, heart rate 128 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 86% on room air. CT pulmonary angiography confirms massive pulmonary embolism.

a)

Anticoagulation alone

b)

Catheter-directed thrombolysis only

c)

Systemic thrombolytic therapy

d)

Observation

e)

Inferior vena cava filter placement

68.

Which patient with pulmonary embolism is most likely to benefit from catheter-directed thrombolytic therapy?

a)

Low-risk PE with normal RV function

b)

Intermediate-high risk PE with RV dysfunction and high bleeding risk

c)

Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension

d)

Massive PE with cardiac arrest

e)

Incidental asymptomatic PE

69.

A 62-year-old man with a history of deep vein thrombosis presents months later with progressive exertional dyspnea and reduced exercise tolerance. Ventilation–perfusion scanning reveals multiple mismatched segmental perfusion defects.

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension

c)

Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension

d)

Left-sided heart failure

e)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

70.

In eligible patients with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension, which intervention offers the greatest potential for cure?

a)

Lifelong anticoagulation alone

b)

Pulmonary endarterectomy

c)

Lung transplantation in all cases

d)

Long-term diuretic therapy

e)

Systemic thrombolysis

71.

A 66-year-old man with atrial fibrillation on inconsistent anticoagulation presents with acute onset of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination reveals minimal abdominal tenderness despite severe pain. Laboratory testing shows metabolic acidosis and elevated lactate. CT angiography demonstrates an embolus in the superior mesenteric artery.

a)

Observation with anticoagulation

b)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics alone

c)

Urgent revascularization combined with systemic anticoagulation

d)

Delay intervention until bowel necrosis is confirmed

e)

Oral antiplatelet therapy

72.

A 71-year-old woman presents with transient right-sided weakness and aphasia lasting 20 minutes. She has a history of atrial fibrillation but declined anticoagulation. Brain MRI shows no acute infarction.

a)

A. Aspirin monotherapy

b)

B. Dual antiplatelet therapy

c)

C. Oral anticoagulation

73.

A 58-year-old man with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation has recurrent embolic events despite therapeutic anticoagulation. Transesophageal echocardiography reveals a large thrombus in the left atrial appendage. Which additional strategy may be considered in selected patients?

a)

Discontinue anticoagulation

b)

Switch to aspirin alone

c)

Intensify anticoagulation and consider left atrial appendage occlusion

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Rate control only

74.

A patient develops painful blue discoloration of the toes, livedo reticularis, and acute kidney injury several days after coronary angiography. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Acute arterial thrombosis

b)

Cholesterol crystal embolization

c)

Deep vein thrombosis

d)

Systemic vasculitis

e)

Septic embolization

75.

A 63-year-old man with intermittent claudication continues to have lifestyle-limiting symptoms despite optimal medical therapy and supervised exercise. Imaging shows a focal iliac artery stenosis. What is the most appropriate revascularization strategy?

a)

Surgical bypass grafting

b)

Endovascular therapy

c)

Observation only

d)

Primary amputation

e)

Systemic thrombolysis

76.

A 60-year-old woman presents with acute chest pain. CT angiography reveals an intramural hematoma of the ascending aorta. What is the most appropriate management?

a)

Optimal medical therapy only

b)

Endovascular repair

c)

Urgent surgical intervention

d)

Observation without blood pressure control

e)

Thrombolysis

77.

A 55-year-old man presents with acute tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Imaging shows Stanford type A aortic dissection. What is the recommended management?

a)

Aggressive medical therapy only

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgical repair

d)

Endovascular stent grafting only

e)

Observation

78.

A patient with pulmonary embolism is hemodynamically stable but has right ventricular dilation on echocardiography and elevated cardiac biomarkers. How should this PE be classified?

a)

Low-risk PE

b)

Intermediate-low risk PE

c)

Intermediate-high risk PE

d)

High-risk PE

e)

Chronic PE

79.

Which laboratory or imaging finding best reflects right ventricular dysfunction in acute pulmonary embolism?

a)

Elevated D-dimer

b)

Elevated troponin

80.

A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with acute unilateral visual loss. Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Central retinal vein occlusion

b)

Central retinal artery occlusion

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Retinal detachment

e)

Vitreous hemorrhage

81.

A 64-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5 refuses long-term oral anticoagulation. Which evidence-based alternative may reduce stroke risk?

a)

A. Aspirin therapy

b)

B. Dual antiplatelet therapy

c)

C. Left atrial appendage occlusion

d)

D. Rate control alone

e)

E. No therapy

82.

A 67-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea. Echocardiography shows preserved LVEF, enlarged left atrium, and elevated E/e' ratio. Right heart catheterization shows mean pulmonary artery pressure 28 mmHg and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure 20 mmHg.

a)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension

c)

Pulmonary hypertension due to left heart disease

d)

Acute pulmonary embolism

e)

Restrictive lung disease

83.

A 66-year-old man presents with exertional dyspnea. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 50%. Tissue Doppler imaging demonstrates reduced systolic velocities, while conventional measures appear borderline normal. Which echocardiographic parameter is most sensitive for detecting early left ventricular systolic dysfunction?

a)

Fractional shortening

b)

Left ventricular end-diastolic volume

c)

Global longitudinal strain

d)

Mitral E/A ratio

e)

Left ventricular mass index

84.

A 58-year-old man with suspected infective endocarditis has persistent fever and positive blood cultures for Staphylococcus aureus. Transthoracic echocardiography does not reveal vegetations. What is the most appropriate next imaging study?

a)

Repeat transthoracic echocardiography in one week

b)

Cardiac MRI

c)

Transesophageal echocardiography

d)

CT coronary angiography

e)

Chest radiography

85.

A 70-year-old woman presents with unexplained exertional dyspnea. Echocardiography shows preserved LVEF, enlarged left atrium, and an E/e' ratio of 19. BNP is mildly elevated. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?

a)

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

b)

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

c)

Constrictive pericarditis

d)

Acute pulmonary embolism

e)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

86.

A patient presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain and hypotension. Bedside echocardiography reveals a dilated right ventricle with interventricular septal flattening creating a "D-shaped" left ventricle. Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

a)

Acute myocardial infarction

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Massive pulmonary embolism

d)

Acute severe mitral regurgitation

e)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

87.

A 62-year-old man undergoes coronary angiography. A visually estimated 55% stenosis is found in the mid-left anterior descending artery. He has stable angina symptoms. Which invasive physiologic assessment best guides the need for revascularization?

a)

TIMI flow grade

b)

Coronary artery calcium score

c)

Fractional flow reserve

d)

SYNTAX score

e)

Visual estimation alone

88.

In a patient with stable coronary artery disease, which fractional flow reserve (FFR) value supports deferral of percutaneous coronary intervention?

a)

≤0.70

b)

≤0.75

c)

<0.80

d)

>0.80

e)

Any value if angina is present

89.

A 64-year-old man with chronic kidney disease requires ischemia evaluation. Minimizing contrast exposure and radiation is a priority. Which diagnostic modality is most appropriate?

a)

Invasive coronary angiography

b)

CT coronary angiography

c)

Stress echocardiography

d)

PET myocardial perfusion imaging with contrast

e)

Cardiac MRI with gadolinium

90.

A patient develops a new loud holosystolic murmur and acute pulmonary edema two days after myocardial infarction. Transthoracic echocardiography is suboptimal. What is the best next diagnostic step?

a)

Repeat transthoracic echocardiography after stabilization

b)

Transesophageal echocardiography

c)

Cardiac MRI

d)

Exercise stress testing

e)

Chest CT scan

91.

A 32-year-old woman with a mechanical mitral valve becomes pregnant. She presents at 8 weeks' gestation and is concerned about anticoagulation management. Which anticoagulation strategy is most appropriate during the first trimester?

a)

Warfarin throughout pregnancy

b)

No anticoagulation

c)

Dose-adjusted low-molecular-weight heparin with anti-Xa monitoring

d)

Aspirin alone

e)

Direct oral anticoagulant therapy

92.

A pregnant woman presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Pulmonary embolism is suspected. She is hemodynamically stable, and chest X-ray is normal. Which imaging test is preferred to balance diagnostic accuracy and fetal radiation exposure?

a)

CT pulmonary angiography in all cases

b)

Chest X-ray only

c)

Ventilation-perfusion scan

d)

Cardiac MRI

93.

A 45-year-old woman with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy reports syncope and has a family history of sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography shows marked septal hypertrophy. Which intervention most effectively reduces mortality?

a)

Beta-blocker therapy alone

b)

Septal myectomy in all patients

c)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Observation

94.

A 57-year-old man presents with chest pain following a viral upper respiratory infection. ECG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation with PR depression. Cardiac biomarkers are mildly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

ST-elevation myocardial infarction

b)

Acute pericarditis

c)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

d)

Pulmonary embolism

e)

Aortic dissection

95.

Which feature most strongly favors myocarditis over acute coronary syndrome?

a)

Regional wall motion abnormality

b)

Elevated troponin level

c)

Normal coronary angiography

d)

Typical chest pain

e)

ST-segment elevation

96.

A patient with constrictive pericarditis is evaluated. Which echocardiographic finding is most characteristic?

a)

Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction

b)

Severe left ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Respiratory variation of mitral inflow velocities

d)

Global hypokinesia

e)

Apical ballooning

97.

A patient with heart failure and chronic kidney disease experiences a transient rise in serum creatinine during aggressive diuresis, but clinical congestion improves. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

a)

Stop diuretics immediately

b)

Accept transient creatinine rise while achieving decongestion

c)

Initiate early dialysis

d)

Permanently discontinue RAAS inhibitors

e)

Liberal fluid administration

98.

According to current guidelines, what is the recommended LDL-cholesterol target for very high-risk atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease patients?

a)

<130 mg/dL

b)

<100 mg/dL

c)

<70 mg/dL

d)

<55 mg/dL

e)

<40 mg/dL for all patients

99.

A 60-year-old man enters a structured cardiac rehabilitation program after myocardial infarction. Which component provides the greatest mortality benefit?

a)

Dietary counseling alone

b)

Supervised exercise training

c)

Vitamin supplementation

d)

Routine stress testing

100.

Which of the following is a contraindication to exercise stress testing?

a)

Stable angina

b)

Controlled hypertension

c)

Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis

d)

Previous myocardial infarction

e)

Mild mitral regurgitation