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Ujian Chief Kardiologi UNAIR A

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 66-year-old man with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and active smoking presents to the emergency department with severe retrosternal chest pain lasting 2 hours. The pain radiates to the left shoulder and jaw and is associated with diaphoresis and nausea. On arrival, his vital signs are: blood pressure 84/56 mmHg, heart rate 48 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Physical examination reveals cool extremities, markedly elevated jugular venous pressure, clear lung fields, and no audible pulmonary crackles. Electrocardiography shows 3–4 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL. ST elevation is greater in lead III than in lead II.

a)

Immediate intravenous nitroglycerin infusion

b)

Intravenous loop diuretics

c)

Rapid isotonic saline bolus

d)

Immediate intravenous beta-blocker

e)

Intravenous morphine followed by noninvasive ventilation

2.

A 58-year-old woman with no prior history of coronary artery disease presents with chest tightness at rest for 45 minutes. High-sensitivity troponin I is elevated. ECG demonstrates horizontal ST-segment depression in leads V4–V6. She is hemodynamically stable, pain-free after initial medical therapy, and has no signs of heart failure. Her GRACE score is calculated at 158. According to contemporary ESC guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate timing for invasive coronary angiography?

a)

Immediate (<2 hours)

b)

Early (<24 hours)

c)

Within 72 hours

d)

Within 72 hours

e)

Only if ischemia recurs

3.

A 72-year-old man presents 4 days after an untreated anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He suddenly develops acute pulmonary edema, hypotension, and a new harsh holosystolic murmur best heard at the cardiac apex with radiation to the axilla. Bedside echocardiography reveals severe acute mitral regurgitation with a hyperdynamic, nondilated left ventricle. Which mechanical complication is MOST likely responsible for this presentation?

a)

Ventricular free wall rupture

b)

Papillary muscle rupture

c)

Ventricular septal rupture

d)

Acute fibrinous pericarditis

e)

Reinfarction

4.

A 60-year-old man with inferior STEMI receives sublingual nitrates shortly after arrival. Within minutes, his blood pressure falls from 120/75 mmHg to 80/50 mmHg. Lung fields remain clear, and jugular venous pressure is elevated. Which pathophysiologic mechanism BEST explains this hemodynamic deterioration?

a)

A. Acute papillary muscle dysfunction

b)

B. Anaphylactoid reaction to nitrates

c)

C. Right ventricular infarction with preload dependence

d)

D. Acute aortic regurgitation

e)

E. Pulmonary embolism

5.

A 63-year-old man presents 36 hours after the onset of chest pain that resolved spontaneously. The ECG shows pathological Q waves in leads V1–V4 without ongoing ST elevation. He is asymptomatic, hemodynamically stable, and has no evidence of ongoing ischemia.

a)

Primary PCI

b)

Rescue PCI

c)

Late fibrinolytic therapy

d)

No reperfusion therapy

e)

Emergency CABG

6.

A 55-year-old woman with NSTEMI is planned for invasive management. She has a prior history of spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage 3 years ago with full neurological recovery. Which antiplatelet agent is CONTRAINDICATED in this patient?

a)

A. Aspirin

b)

B. Clopidogrel

c)

C. Ticagrelor

7.

A 61-year-old man with stable multivessel coronary artery disease undergoes stress imaging that demonstrates moderate-to-severe ischemia. He reports minimal angina (CCS class I) while on optimal medical therapy. Based on the ISCHEMIA trial, which statement is MOST accurate?

a)

Routine PCI reduces all-cause mortality.

b)

Early invasive strategy prevents myocardial infarction.

c)

Invasive strategy improves quality of life in symptomatic patients.

d)

CABG is superior in all stable CAD patients.

e)

Medical therapy increases sudden cardiac death.

8.

An ECG obtained in a patient with chest pain shows diffuse ST-segment depression in multiple leads with ST-segment elevation in lead aVR. This pattern MOST strongly suggests:

a)

Acute pericarditis

b)

Proximal LAD occlusion

c)

Left main or severe multivessel coronary disease

d)

Inferior STEMI

e)

Early repolarization

9.

A 57-year-old woman presents with chest pain and elevated troponin. Coronary angiography reveals no obstructive coronary lesions. Cardiac MRI demonstrates subendocardial late gadolinium enhancement in the inferior wall. Which diagnosis BEST explains these findings?

a)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

b)

Acute myocarditis

c)

Myocardial infarction with non-obstructive coronary arteries (MINOCA)

d)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

e)

Coronary vasospasm without infarction

10.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of early (<30 days) stent thrombosis?

a)

Late stent malapposition

b)

Neoatherosclerosis

c)

Premature discontinuation of dual antiplatelet therapy

d)

Hypersensitivity reaction

e)

Drug resistance

11.

A 45-year-old man presents with recurrent palpitations and dizziness. An ECG shows irregular wide-complex tachycardia with varying QRS morphologies. Blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg.

a)

IV adenosine

b)

IV verapamil

c)

IV digoxin

d)

IV procainamide

e)

Immediate synchronized cardioversion

12.

A patient with Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome develops atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Which drug is MOST appropriate for acute rate control?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Verapamil

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Procainamide

e)

Adenosine

13.

Which antiarrhythmic drug exhibits reverse use-dependence and increases the risk of torsades de pointes at low heart rates?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Flecainide

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Sotalol

14.

A 70-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 30%) remains symptomatic (NYHA II) despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. Which additional therapy provides a mortality benefit regardless of diabetic status?

a)

Ivabradine

b)

Digoxin

c)

Hydralazine–nitrate

d)

SGLT2 inhibitor

e)

Loop diuretics

15.

A patient with restrictive cardiomyopathy is MOST likely to demonstrate which echocardiographic feature?

a)

Markedly dilated ventricles

b)

Reduced ejection fraction early

c)

Normal ventricular size with impaired diastolic filling

d)

Dynamic LVOT obstruction

e)

Severe functional mitral regurgitation

16.

Which physical maneuver increases the murmur intensity in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

a)

Squatting

b)

Passive leg raise

c)

Handgrip

d)

Valsalva maneuver

e)

Afterload increase

17.

A patient with constrictive pericarditis is MOST likely to exhibit which echocardiographic sign?

a)

Apical ballooning

b)

Septal bounce

c)

Reduced E/e’ ratio

d)

Severe LV dilation

e)

Systolic anterior motion

18.

Which echocardiographic parameter BEST reflects left ventricular filling pressure?

a)

E/A ratio

b)

Deceleration time

c)

Left atrial volume index

d)

Mitral E/e’ ratio

e)

Isovolumic relaxation time

19.

A 34-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnea. Physical examination reveals fixed splitting of the second heart sound. Echocardiography shows right atrial and right ventricular enlargement with a Qp/Qs ratio of 2.2. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Ventricular septal defect

b)

Ostium primum atrial septal defect

c)

Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

d)

Patent ductus arteriosus

e)

Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return

20.

A patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension undergoes vasoreactivity testing during right heart catheterization and demonstrates a positive response. Which therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Endothelin receptor antagonist

b)

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor

c)

Prostacyclin analog

d)

High-dose calcium channel blocker

e)

Beta-blocker

21.

A 69-year-old man with a history of anterior myocardial infarction presents with progressive dyspnea and lower-extremity edema. Blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg, heart rate 96 bpm. Physical examination reveals bibasilar crackles and an S3 gallop. Echocardiography shows LVEF 28%, LV end-diastolic diameter 70 mm, and moderate functional mitral regurgitation. He is receiving maximally tolerated doses of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which additional intervention is MOST appropriate at this stage?

a)

Add digoxin for mortality benefit

b)

Upgrade therapy to sacubitril/valsartan

c)

Immediate mitral valve surgery

d)

Discontinue beta-blocker

e)

Start high-dose loop diuretics only

22.

A 74-year-old woman with chronic atrial fibrillation presents for elective electrical cardioversion. She has been anticoagulated with apixaban for 3 weeks but admits to missing several doses. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Proceed with cardioversion immediately

b)

Switch to warfarin and cardioversion in 1 week

c)

Perform transesophageal echocardiography before cardioversion

d)

Cancel cardioversion permanently

e)

Administer IV heparin and cardiovert

23.

A 62-year-old man presents with syncope. An ECG shows complete atrioventricular block with a junctional escape rhythm at 35 bpm. Blood pressure is stable, and he is asymptomatic at rest. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Observation only

b)

IV atropine

c)

Temporary transvenous pacing

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Isoproterenol infusion

24.

A 54-year-old woman presents with episodic chest pain occurring at rest, often in the early morning hours. Coronary angiography reveals angiographically normal coronary arteries. During acetylcholine provocation, focal coronary spasm is induced with ST elevation. What is the MOST appropriate long-term therapy?

a)

High-dose beta-blocker

b)

Long-acting nitrate and calcium channel blocker

c)

Aspirin alone

d)

Statin monotherapy

e)

Coronary stent implantation

25.

A 48-year-old man with no prior cardiac history presents with acute heart failure following a viral prodrome. Echocardiography shows global hypokinesia with LVEF of 25%. Coronary angiography is normal. Cardiac MRI shows subepicardial late gadolinium enhancement in the lateral wall. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Ischemic cardiomyopathy

b)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

c)

Acute myocarditis

d)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

e)

Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

26.

A patient with long-standing hypertension presents with concentric LV hypertrophy on echocardiography. Global longitudinal strain shows relative apical sparing. Which diagnosis should be MOST strongly suspected?

a)

Hypertensive heart disease

b)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

Cardiac amyloidosis

d)

Athlete's heart

e)

Fabry disease

27.

A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease undergoes coronary angiography for NSTEMI. Which strategy MOST effectively reduces the risk of contrast-induced acute kidney injury?

a)

High-dose loop diuretics

b)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion only

c)

Adequate isotonic saline hydration

d)

Prophylactic dialysis

e)

Use of low-osmolar contrast alone

28.

A 71-year-old woman with severe aortic stenosis presents with exertional syncope. Echocardiography shows a valve area of 0.7 cm², a mean gradient of 38 mmHg, and an LVEF of 55%. Which finding would MOST strongly indicate the need for urgent valve intervention?

a)

Mild left atrial enlargement

b)

Asymptomatic status

c)

Symptoms with exertion

d)

Normal BNP

e)

Sinus rhythm

29.

A patient with a mechanical mitral valve replacement presents for routine follow-up. Which INR target is MOST appropriate?

a)

1.5–2.0

b)

2.0–2.5

c)

2.0–3.0

d)

2.5–3.5

e)

3.5–4.5

30.

A 60-year-old man presents with acute pericarditis. He has pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward and diffuse ST elevation with PR depression.

a)

High-dose corticosteroids

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Colchicine

d)

Anticoagulation

e)

Beta-blockers

31.

A 56-year-old woman with pulmonary arterial hypertension undergoes right heart catheterization. The mean pulmonary artery pressure is 32 mmHg, the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is 9 mmHg, and the pulmonary vascular resistance is 5 Wood units. This condition is BEST classified as:

a)

Group 1 pulmonary hypertension

b)

Group 2 pulmonary hypertension

c)

Group 3 pulmonary hypertension

d)

Group 4 pulmonary hypertension

e)

Group 5 pulmonary hypertension

32.

A patient with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) is deemed operable. What is the treatment of choice?

a)

Lifelong anticoagulation alone

b)

Pulmonary endarterectomy

c)

Balloon pulmonary angioplasty as first-line

d)

Lung transplantation

e)

Oral pulmonary vasodilators only

33.

A 35-year-old man with repaired tetralogy of Fallot presents with reduced exercise tolerance. Cardiac MRI shows severe pulmonary regurgitation and an RV end-diastolic volume index of 170 mL/m². What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Observation only

b)

Beta-blocker therapy

c)

Pulmonary valve replacement

d)

ICD implantation

e)

Pulmonary vasodilator therapy

34.

A 7-year-old child presents with exertional syncope and a harsh systolic murmur. Echocardiography shows asymmetric septal hypertrophy. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Innocent murmur

b)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

e)

Endocarditis

35.

A 78-year-old man with multiple comorbidities presents with NSTEMI. He is frail with limited functional reserve. What is the MOST important factor guiding management decisions?

a)

Chronological age

b)

Troponin level

c)

Frailty and functional status

d)

Coronary anatomy alone

e)

ECG changes only

36.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has persistently elevated lactate levels despite the normalization of blood pressure. What does this MOST likely indicate?

a)

Adequate tissue perfusion

b)

Ongoing global hypoperfusion

c)

Measurement error

d)

Primary liver disease

e)

Excess oxygen delivery

37.

Which mechanical circulatory support device provides direct left ventricular unloading?

a)

Intra-aortic balloon pump

b)

VA-ECMO

c)

Impella

d)

VV-ECMO

e)

Pulmonary artery catheter

38.

A patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5 is scheduled for elective surgery. What is the MOST appropriate perioperative anticoagulation strategy?

a)

Stop anticoagulation permanently

b)

Continue full-dose anticoagulation

c)

Interrupt anticoagulation with appropriate bridging if indicated

d)

Switch to aspirin

e)

No change needed

39.

Which lifestyle intervention provides the GREATEST reduction in cardiovascular mortality?

a)

Vitamin supplementation

b)

Low-fat diet alone

c)

Smoking cessation

d)

Antioxidant therapy

e)

Genetic screening

40.

The MOST important goal of advanced cardiovascular care is:

a)

Procedural success

b)

Strict guideline adherence

c)

Prolongation of life at all costs

d)

Improvement of patient-centered outcomes and quality of life

e)

Maximizing technology use

41.

A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure (LVEF 32%) and left bundle branch block presents with persistent exertional dyspnea (NYHA III) despite optimal guideline-directed medical therapy. An ECG shows a QRS duration of 168 ms with typical LBBB morphology. Which intervention is MOST likely to improve survival and symptoms?

a)

Upgrade to dual-chamber pacemaker

b)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) only

c)

Cardiac resynchronization therapy with defibrillator (CRT-D)

d)

Ivabradine initiation

e)

Digoxin up-titration

42.

A 59-year-old woman presents with palpitations and lightheadedness. An ECG shows narrow-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm. Vagal maneuvers transiently terminate the arrhythmia. She remains hemodynamically stable. What is the MOST appropriate next step to prevent recurrence?

a)

Chronic beta-blocker therapy only

b)

Oral amiodarone

c)

Catheter ablation of the slow pathway

d)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

e)

Observation without therapy

43.

A 72-year-old man with known coronary artery disease presents with syncope. Telemetry reveals sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia at 160 bpm. He is hemodynamically stable after termination. Which strategy is the MOST appropriate for secondary prevention of sudden cardiac death?

a)

Beta-blocker therapy alone

b)

Antiarrhythmic drug therapy only

c)

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation

d)

Observation after revascularization

e)

Pacemaker implantation

44.

A 50-year-old man presents with exertional dyspnea. The ECG shows right axis deviation and tall R waves in V1. Echocardiography reveals right ventricular dilation and dysfunction. CT pulmonary angiography shows no acute thrombus.

a)

Acute pulmonary embolism

b)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

c)

Left-sided heart failure

d)

Acute coronary syndrome

e)

Constrictive pericarditis

45.

A patient with suspected infective endocarditis undergoes transesophageal echocardiography, which reveals a mobile vegetation measuring 12 mm on the anterior mitral leaflet. Which factor MOST strongly supports early surgical intervention?

a)

Absence of fever

b)

Vegetation size > 10 mm

c)

Negative blood cultures

d)

Mild mitral regurgitation

e)

Preserved LV function

46.

A 64-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation and heart failure has difficulty achieving adequate rate control despite maximally tolerated beta-blockers and digoxin. Which strategy is MOST appropriate to improve symptoms and ventricular function?

a)

Increase digoxin dose

b)

Switch to amiodarone

c)

AV node ablation with permanent pacing

d)

Observation only

e)

Electrical cardioversion once

47.

A 70-year-old woman with hypertension presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows concentric LV hypertrophy, preserved EF, enlarged left atrium, and elevated E/e' ratio. Which diagnosis BEST explains these findings?

a)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

b)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)

e)

Cardiac amyloidosis

48.

A 55-year-old man presents with chest pain. An ECG shows diffuse ST elevation with PR depression. Troponin levels are mildly elevated. Echocardiography shows no regional wall motion abnormality. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

a)

STEMI

b)

Acute pericarditis

c)

Myocarditis

d)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

e)

Pulmonary embolism

49.

A patient with nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 28%) and no prior arrhythmic events is evaluated for primary prevention. Which criterion supports ICD implantation?

a)

LVEF ≤35% after ≥3 months of optimal medical therapy

b)

Presence of nonsustained VT only

c)

Age >70 years

d)

NYHA class I symptoms

e)

Normal QRS duration

50.

A 62-year-old man presents with acute pulmonary edema and hypertension. His blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the MOST appropriate immediate therapy?

a)

High-dose beta-blocker

b)

IV nitroglycerin infusion

c)

Oral ACE inhibitor

d)

IV fluids

e)

Immediate intubation without therapy

51.

A 58-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis presents with progressive dyspnea. Right heart catheterization shows mPAP 36 mmHg, PCWP 8 mmHg, and PVR 6 Wood units. Which pulmonary hypertension classification applies?

a)

Group 1 pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Group 2 pulmonary hypertension

c)

Group 3 pulmonary hypertension

d)

Group 4 pulmonary hypertension

e)

Group 5 pulmonary hypertension

52.

A patient with long-standing atrial fibrillation undergoes successful catheter ablation. Sinus rhythm is restored. Which statement regarding anticoagulation is MOST accurate?

a)

Anticoagulation can be stopped immediately.

b)

Anticoagulation depends on the CHA2DS2-VASc score.

c)

Anticoagulation is no longer required.

d)

Aspirin alone is sufficient.

e)

Anticoagulation is required only if AF recurs.

53.

A patient with severe symptomatic mitral regurgitation and high surgical risk is referred for transcatheter intervention. Which condition BEST predicts the benefit from transcatheter edge-to-edge repair?

a)

Primary MR with normal LV size

b)

Secondary MR with optimized GDMT and LV not excessively dilated

c)

End-stage dilated cardiomyopathy

d)

Severe pulmonary hypertension

e)

Active endocarditis

54.

A 60-year-old man with diabetes is found to have asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis of 75%. The MOST appropriate management is:

a)

Carotid endarterectomy

b)

Carotid artery stenting

c)

Observation only

d)

Immediate thrombolysis

55.

Which is the correct intervention?

a)

Immediate carotid endarterectomy

b)

Carotid stenting

c)

Optimal medical therapy and risk factor modification

d)

Anticoagulation

e)

No therapy required

56.

A patient presents with syncope during exertion. An ECG shows a prolonged QT interval. Which intervention MOST reduces the risk of sudden cardiac death?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Beta-blocker therapy

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

Catheter ablation

e)

Digoxin

57.

A patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis develops severe calcific aortic stenosis. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Balloon aortic valvuloplasty

b)

Medical therapy only

c)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

d)

Surgical AVR contraindicated

e)

No intervention

58.

A 45-year-old man presents with chest pain after emotional stress. An ECG shows ST elevation in the precordial leads. Coronary angiography is normal. An echocardiogram shows apical ballooning.

a)

Acute MI

b)

Myocarditis

c)

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

d)

Coronary vasospasm

e)

Pericarditis

59.

A patient with persistent atrial flutter undergoes catheter ablation. Which anatomic structure is the typical ablation target?

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

AV node

c)

Cavotricuspid isthmus

d)

Left atrial appendage

e)

His bundle

60.

A patient with severe tricuspid regurgitation presents with ascites and peripheral edema. Which physical finding is MOST characteristic?

a)

Pulsus paradoxus

b)

Wide pulse pressure

c)

Giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse

d)

Decreased JVP

e)

Pericardial knock

61.

Which population-based intervention has produced the LARGEST decline in cardiovascular mortality over the past decades?

a)

Advanced imaging

b)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

c)

Risk factor modification and preventive strategies

d)

Cardiac surgery

e)

Novel pharmacotherapy only

62.

A 67-year-old man with long-standing hypertension and diabetes presents with exertional dyspnea and decreased exercise tolerance. Echocardiography reveals concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (60%), enlarged left atrium, and elevated E/e' ratio. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is mildly elevated.

4 lines
63.

Which pathophysiologic mechanism MOST strongly explains his symptoms?

a)

Reduced myocardial contractility

b)

Impaired left ventricular relaxation and increased stiffness

c)

Acute volume overload

d)

Dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction

e)

Primary pulmonary vascular disease

64.

A 59-year-old woman presents with sudden onset pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. CT pulmonary angiography confirms acute pulmonary embolism. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 105 bpm. Troponin is mildly elevated, and echocardiography shows right ventricular (RV) dilation. How should this pulmonary embolism be BEST classified?

a)

Low-risk PE

b)

Intermediate-low risk PE

c)

Intermediate-high risk PE

d)

High-risk (massive) PE

e)

Chronic thromboembolic disease

65.

A 72-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%) and NYHA class III symptoms is evaluated for advanced therapies. Peak VO2 on cardiopulmonary exercise testing is 10 mL/kg/min despite optimal therapy. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Continue current medical therapy

b)

Initiate digoxin

c)

Refer for heart transplantation evaluation

d)

Implant CRT-P

e)

Start pulmonary vasodilators

66.

A 54-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with chest pain and fever. An ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. Echocardiography reveals a moderate pericardial effusion without tamponade physiology. What is the MOST appropriate initial therapy?

a)

High-dose corticosteroids immediately

b)

NSAIDs plus colchicine

c)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

d)

Pericardiocentesis

e)

Anticoagulation

67.

A 61-year-old man with known coronary artery disease presents with recurrent angina despite optimal medical therapy. Stress PET imaging shows balanced ischemia with globally reduced myocardial blood flow reserve. Which coronary pathology is MOST likely?

a)

Single-vessel disease

b)

Epicardial coronary spasm

c)

Severe multivessel or left main disease

d)

Myocarditis

e)

Pericardial constriction

68.

A 70-year-old woman undergoes TAVR for severe aortic stenosis. Post-procedure ECG shows new-onset left bundle branch block. Which complication is she at INCREASED risk for?

a)

Acute coronary occlusion

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

High-grade atrioventricular block requiring pacemaker

d)

Stroke within 24 hours

e)

Aortic annular rupture

69.

A 48-year-old man presents with syncope during exercise. An ECG shows bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Genetic testing confirms a RyR2 mutation. Which diagnosis BEST explains this presentation?

a)

Long QT syndrome

b)

Brugada syndrome

c)

Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

d)

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

e)

Idiopathic VT

70.

A 63-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and a prior ischemic stroke is on warfarin with subtherapeutic INR values. He reports difficulty with frequent monitoring. Which anticoagulation strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

A. Aspirin monotherapy

b)

B. Continue warfarin without monitoring

c)

C. Switch to a direct oral anticoagulant

d)

D. Discontinue anticoagulation

e)

E. Add clopidogrel

71.

A patient with severe chronic mitral regurgitation remains asymptomatic. Echocardiography shows LVEF 55% and LV end-systolic diameter of 42 mm. Which management strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Immediate mitral valve surgery

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

c)

Continue close surveillance

d)

Initiate diuretics

e)

Start anticoagulation

72.

A 58-year-old man presents with acute decompensated heart failure and severe hypertension (BP 200/120 mmHg). He is dyspneic with pulmonary edema. Which therapy MOST rapidly improves symptoms?

a)

IV beta-blocker

b)

IV nitroprusside or nitroglycerin

c)

Oral ACE inhibitor

d)

IV fluids

e)

Immediate dialysis

73.

A 46-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows RV hypertrophy and dilation. Right heart catheterization demonstrates mPAP 38 mmHg and PCWP 22 mmHg. Which etiology of pulmonary hypertension is MOST likely?

a)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Chronic thromboembolic disease

c)

Lung parenchymal disease

d)

Left heart disease

e)

Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension

74.

A patient with nonischemic cardiomyopathy and LVEF of 30% has a QRS duration of 110 ms. Which device therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

CRT-D

b)

CRT-P

c)

ICD only

d)

Dual-chamber pacemaker

e)

No device indicated

75.

A 60-year-old man with severe symptomatic tricuspid regurgitation presents with fatigue and edema. He is deemed high surgical risk. Which transcatheter therapy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Balloon tricuspid valvotomy

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge tricuspid repair

c)

Valve-in-valve TAVR

d)

Surgical annuloplasty

e)

Observation only

76.

A patient with suspected cardiac amyloidosis undergoes nuclear scintigraphy with technetium-99m pyrophosphate. Which result MOST strongly supports transthyretin amyloidosis?

a)

A. No myocardial uptake

b)

B. Mild myocardial uptake, less than bone

77.

A 52-year-old man presents with recurrent syncope. An ECG shows alternating bundle branch block. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Observation only

b)

Beta-blocker therapy

c)

Permanent pacemaker implantation

d)

ICD implantation

e)

Catheter ablation

78.

A patient with acute inferior MI develops hypotension, clear lungs, and elevated JVP. Which additional ECG lead would MOST likely show ST elevation?

a)

V1

b)

V2

c)

V3

d)

V4R

e)

V6

79.

A patient with atrial fibrillation undergoes left atrial appendage occlusion. Which patient profile MOST benefits from this strategy?

a)

Low CHA2DS2-VASc score

b)

No bleeding risk

c)

Contraindication to long-term anticoagulation

d)

Young age

e)

Paroxysmal AF only

80.

A 65-year-old man with chronic heart failure presents with worsening renal function after the initiation of an ACE inhibitor. Which interpretation is MOST appropriate?

a)

ACE inhibitor should be stopped immediately

b)

Mild creatinine rise is acceptable and expected

c)

This indicates acute tubular necrosis

d)

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in HF

e)

Switch to NSAIDs

81.

A 55-year-old woman presents with acute chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5–V6. Which coronary artery is MOST likely occluded?

a)

Right coronary artery

b)

Proximal LAD

c)

Left circumflex artery

d)

Posterior descending artery

e)

Acute marginal branch

82.

A patient with advanced heart failure has persistent symptoms despite maximal therapy and expresses concern about quality of life. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

a)

Escalate all therapies indefinitely

b)

Focus solely on survival extension

c)

Integrate palliative care alongside disease-directed therapy

d)

Discontinue all cardiac medications

e)

Immediate hospice referral without discussion

83.

A 64-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with exertional chest discomfort. Stress echocardiography demonstrates inducible ischemia in the anterior wall at moderate workload. Resting echocardiography shows concentric LV hypertrophy with preserved EF. Which mechanism MOST likely explains his exertional ischemia?

a)

Increased myocardial oxygen demand due to left ventricular hypertrophy

b)

Decreased myocardial oxygen supply

c)

Coronary artery spasm

d)

Myocardial infarction

84.

Which is the correct answer?

a)

Fixed epicardial coronary stenosis

b)

Dynamic LV outflow tract obstruction

c)

Coronary microvascular dysfunction

d)

Coronary vasospasm at rest

e)

Acute plaque rupture

85.

A 70-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation presents with progressive dyspnea. Echocardiography shows severe tricuspid regurgitation, a dilated right atrium, and preserved RV systolic function. Which mechanism MOST likely underlies her tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Rheumatic valve disease

b)

Primary leaflet degeneration

c)

Functional annular dilation due to atrial enlargement

d)

Infective endocarditis

e)

Carcinoid heart disease

86.

A 58-year-old man presents with syncope. An ECG shows a Brugada type 1 pattern. He has no structural heart disease. Which management strategy is MOST appropriate?

a)

Observation only

b)

Quinidine therapy in all patients

c)

ICD implantation for primary prevention

d)

Pacemaker implantation

e)

Catheter ablation of RVOT

87.

A patient with chronic heart failure (LVEF 30%) is initiated on sacubitril/valsartan. Two weeks later, serum potassium is 5.6 mmol/L. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Discontinue sacubitril/valsartan immediately

b)

Reduce the dose and address contributing factors

c)

Ignore the finding

d)

Switch to NSAIDs

e)

Add potassium supplementation

88.

A 62-year-old man with chest pain has an ECG showing ST depression in V1–V3 with tall R waves. Posterior leads demonstrate ST elevation.

a)

Inferior STEMI

b)

Anterior STEMI

c)

Posterior myocardial infarction

d)

Acute pericarditis

e)

Right ventricular infarction

89.

A 47-year-old woman presents with episodic palpitations. An ECG during symptoms shows narrow-complex tachycardia with a short RP interval. Which arrhythmia is MOST likely?

a)

Atrial tachycardia

b)

Typical AVNRT

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Sinus tachycardia

e)

Junctional tachycardia

90.

A patient with advanced chronic kidney disease presents with acute coronary syndrome. Coronary angiography is planned. Which strategy MOST reduces contrast exposure?

a)

Use of radial access

b)

Intravascular ultrasound–guided PCI

c)

Prophylactic dialysis

d)

High-dose diuretics

e)

Sodium bicarbonate infusion alone

91.

A 71-year-old man with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis undergoes TAVR. One month later, echocardiography shows paravalvular aortic regurgitation. What is the MOST appropriate management?

a)

Repeat balloon dilation of the valve

b)

Immediate surgical valve replacement

c)

Observation only

d)

Initiation of anticoagulation therapy

92.

Which factor MOST strongly predicts worse long-term outcomes?

a)

Mild paravalvular leak

b)

Moderate-to-severe paravalvular leak

c)

Valve size selection

d)

Access route

e)

Type of anesthesia

93.

A patient with suspected infective endocarditis has persistently negative blood cultures. Which organism is MOST likely?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Viridans streptococci

c)

Enterococcus faecalis

d)

Coxiella burnetii

e)

Escherichia coli

94.

A 60-year-old woman with nonischemic cardiomyopathy presents with worsening dyspnea. Cardiac MRI shows patchy mid-wall late gadolinium enhancement. What does this finding MOST strongly predict?

a)

Acute myocarditis

b)

Favorable prognosis

c)

Increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias

d)

Complete reversibility of LV dysfunction

e)

Absence of fibrosis

95.

A 55-year-old man presents with chest pain. The ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with ST depression in V1–V3.

a)

Proximal LAD

b)

Left circumflex artery

c)

Right coronary artery with posterior extension

d)

Diagonal branch

e)

Left main coronary artery

96.

A patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension is treated with dual oral therapy. He remains at intermediate-high risk on follow-up. What is the MOST appropriate next escalation?

a)

Increase diuretics only

b)

Add parenteral prostacyclin therapy

c)

Observation

d)

Lung transplantation referral only

e)

Switch PDE-5 inhibitor

97.

A 65-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy and LVEF 28% undergoes successful CRT implantation. Which parameter BEST predicts response to CRT?

a)

Age

b)

Sex

c)

QRS morphology and duration

d)

NYHA class

e)

Baseline BNP

98.

A patient with suspected constrictive pericarditis undergoes echocardiography. Which finding MOST supports this diagnosis?

a)

Global LV hypokinesia

b)

Septal bounce with respiratory variation

c)

Severe mitral regurgitation

d)

Apical ballooning

e)

Reduced EF

99.

A 52-year-old woman presents with exertional syncope. Echocardiography shows severe hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. The most likely underlying cause is:

a)

Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Aortic stenosis

100.

Which maneuver would REDUCE the murmur intensity?

a)

Valsalva maneuver

b)

Standing suddenly

c)

Squatting

d)

Dehydration

e)

Nitrate administration