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TS SET 2018 PAPER-2

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Central atom with sp3, sp3d2 and sp3d hybridization respectively: (A) BeCl2 and NH3, I5− and ReF7, XeF3+ and ClF4+ (B) SiO2 and BeCl2, [XeOF5]− and [FeCl6]2−, XeF3+ and SF4 (C) NH3 and SeF3+, [FeCl6]2− and [BrOF4]−, SF4 and XeOF4 (D) SOCl2 and SeF3+, [BrOF4]− and [XeOF5]−, IF5 and SF4

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

2.

The bond length and bond order values of CO and CO+ are: (A) 1.128 Å and 3.0 (CO); 1.015 Å and 3.5 (CO+) (B) 1.115 Å and 3.5 (CO); 1.128 Å and 3.0 (CO+) (C) 1.128 Å and 3.0 (CO); 1.115 Å and 3.5 (CO+) (D) 1.015 Å and 3.5 (CO); 1.128 Å and 3.0 (CO+)

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

3.

Which of the following statement is correct? (A) Best electrophiles have LUMO and best nucleophiles have HOMO (B) Best electrophiles have vacant d-orbitals and best nucleophiles have filled d-orbitals (C) Best electrophiles have LUMO and best nucleophiles have LUMO and HOMO (D) Best electrophiles have LUMO and HOMO and best nucleophiles have HOMO

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

4.

Choose the correct order of the melting points for the following compounds. (A) LiCl < NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl (B) LiCl > NaCl < KCl > RbCl > CsCl (C) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (D) LiCl < NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

5.

The statements regarding hydrides of VI group are: i. The order of volatility H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S ii. The order of boiling point H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S iii. The order of bond angles H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te The correct combination is: (A) Only i (B) ii and iii (C) i and iii (D) i, ii and iii

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

6.

Naturally occurring U contains three isotopes, they are: (A) U237 (99.3%), U235 (0.70%) and U239 (traces) (B) U238 (99.3%), U235 (0.70%) and U234 (traces) (C) U238 (0.70%), U235 (99.3%) and U234 (traces) (D) U238 (99.3%), U235 (traces) and U234 (0.70%)

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

7.

For the species UF6, choose the correct match from the following list: a. At. No. 101 b. α-particles c. At. No. 105 d. Octahedral e. Nuclear fuel

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

8.

For the isotope Am241, choose the correct match from the following list: a. At. No. 101 b. α-particles c. At. No. 105 d. Octahedral e. Nuclear fuel

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

9.

For the element Pu, choose the correct match from the following list: a. At. No. 101 b. α-particles c. At. No. 105 d. Octahedral e. Nuclear fuel

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

10.

For Un-nil-unium (Unu), choose the correct match from the following list: a. At. No. 101 b. α-particles c. At. No. 105 d. Octahedral e. Nuclear fuel

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

11.

Tanabe–Sugano diagram is constructed by taking: (A) E/B vs Δo/B (B) Molar absorbance ν/s ν (cm−1) (C) E vs Δo (D) log ε ν/s λ/nm

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

12.

The 19F NMR spectrum of WF6L shows: (A) one line only (B) two lines with 1:1 (C) three lines with 4:1:1 (D) three lines with 3:2:1

a)

(A)

b)

(B)

c)

(C)

d)

(D)

13.

What is the number of vibrational degrees of freedom in C6H5–CH2OH?

a)

25

b)

27

c)

42

d)

58

14.

In Mössbauer spectroscopy, spin-paired Fe(III) and spin-free Fe(III) complexes exhibit which symmetry types and number of signals?

a)

spherical and axial symmetry with 1, 1 signals

b)

Axial and spherical symmetry with 2, 1 signals

c)

Spherical and axial symmetry with 1, 2 signals

d)

Axial and spherical symmetry with 1, 2 signals

15.

Which of the following is isolobal with CH2− ion?

a)

CH+, Co–Cp, Ir(CO)3 and CH3

b)

CH2+, [Ir(CO)3], [Cr(CO)2Cp] and P

c)

[Co(CO)Cp], S, CH and [Cr(CO)2Cp]

d)

Mn(CO)5−, Fe(CO)5+, [Cp–Fe(CO)2] and CH3

16.

For the complex [Ni(acac)2(PPh3)2], choose the correct entry from the following list: Branched alcohols; Straight chain alcohols; Cyclo-oligomerizations; Acetic acid synthesis.

a)

Branched alcohols

b)

Straight chain alcohols

c)

Cyclo-oligomerizations

d)

Acetic acid synthesis

17.

For the complex [HCo(CO)4], choose the correct entry from the following list: Branched alcohols; Straight chain alcohols; Cyclo-oligomerizations; Acetic acid synthesis.

a)

Branched alcohols

b)

Straight chain alcohols

c)

Cyclo-oligomerizations

d)

Acetic acid synthesis

18.

For the complex [Rh(H)(CO)(PPh3)2], choose the correct entry from the following list: Branched alcohols; Straight chain alcohols; Cyclo-oligomerizations; Acetic acid synthesis.

a)

Branched alcohols

b)

Straight chain alcohols

c)

Cyclo-oligomerizations

d)

Acetic acid synthesis

19.

For the complex [Rh(CO)2I2]−, choose the correct entry from the following list: Branched alcohols; Straight chain alcohols; Cyclo-oligomerizations; Acetic acid synthesis.

a)

Branched alcohols

b)

Straight chain alcohols

c)

Cyclo-oligomerizations

d)

Acetic acid synthesis

20.

Identify the process for the reaction [L3Rh(CO)(R)] → [L3Rh–COR].

a)

Insertion

b)

Oxidative addition

c)

Isomerization

d)

Reductive elimination

21.

Identify the process for the reaction [RhCl(PPh3)3] + H2.

a)

Insertion

b)

Oxidative addition

c)

Isomerization

d)

Reductive elimination

22.

Identify the process for the reaction R–CH2–CH=CH2 → R–CH=CH–CH3.

a)

Insertion

b)

Oxidative addition

c)

Isomerization

d)

Reductive elimination

23.

Identify the process for the reaction [L4Rh(H)(R)] → [RhL4] + R–H.

a)

Insertion

b)

Oxidative addition

c)

Isomerization

d)

Reductive elimination

24.

The geometrical isomers of the type [PtA2X2] are distinguished by which test?

a)

Ring test

b)

Chromyl chloride test

c)

Silver nitrate test

d)

Kurnakov test

25.

Choose the correct order of d-orbital splitting in a trigonal bipyramidal geometry.

a)

dz2 > dx2−y2, dxy > dxz, dyz

b)

dz2 > dxz, dyz > dx2−y2, dxy

c)

dxz, dyz > dx2−y2, dxy > dz2

d)

dx2−y2, dxy > dz2 > dxz, dyz

26.

In bacterial rubredoxin, the number of iron atoms, sulphur bridges and cysteine ligands are

a)

4, 4, 4

b)

2, 2, 4

c)

2, 2, 2

d)

1, 0, 4

27.

Itai itai disease is due to

a)

Hg poison

b)

H3CHg poison

c)

Pb poison

d)

Cd poison

28.

Which of the following correctly places the ligands in their order with respect to Δo values?

a)

F− < Cl− < N3− < O2−

b)

S2− < OH− < CN− < PPh3

c)

I− < H2O < en < py

d)

I− < H2O < py < en

29.

A drunken person was asked to blow a glass tube packed with acidified potassium dichromate. The change in colour of the material from orange to green confirmed the drinking of alcohol. It is due to which of the following statements? I. The oxidation of alcohol with reduction of dichromate to chromium (III) II. Complex formation of alcohol and dichromate III. Change in the coordination number of chromium

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

30.

In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made

a)

Hydrophobic non-polar

b)

Hydrophilic polar

c)

Either non-polar or polar

d)

Polar head and non-polar tail

31.

Which reaction is an example of chain reaction? Options are written using nuclide notation: (A) 235/92 U → 4/2 He + 231/90 Th; (B) 75/34 Se → 75/35 Br + e−; (C) 123/53 I → 123/53 I + energy; (D) 235/92 U + 1/0 n → 142/56 Ba + 91/36 Kr + 3 1/0 n

a)

235/92 U → 4/2 He + 231/90 Th

b)

75/34 Se → 75/35 Br + e−

c)

123/53 I → 123/53 I + energy

d)

235/92 U + 1/0 n → 142/56 Ba + 91/36 Kr + 3 1/0 n

32.

Given the character table of the point group C3v: Irreducible representations and characters A1: E = 1, 2C3 = 1, 3σv = 1 (z) A2: E = 1, 2C3 = 1, 3σv = −1 E: E = 2, 2C3 = −1, 3σv = 0 (x, y) Consider the reducible representation Γ with characters: E = 6, 2C3 = 3, 3σv = 0. Its irreducible components are

a)

E + 2A1 + 2A2

b)

2E + A1 + A2

c)

3A1 + 3A2

d)

E2 + 2A1

33.

Find the symmetry point groups for ethane in eclipsed and staggered conformations.

a)

C3v, D3h

b)

D3h, C3h

c)

D3h, D3d

d)

D3h, D3

34.

In gas–liquid chromatography, when films are used in the interior of a capillary column, what is the Eddy diffusion?

a)

Greater than 1

b)

Less than 1

c)

Zero

d)

Less than zero

35.

The main buffer system of the human blood is

a)

NH2CONH2 – NH2CONH+

b)

H2CO3 – HCO3−

c)

CH3COOH – CH3COO−

d)

H2CO3 – CO3 2−

36.

Retention volume can be obtained by finding the product of which parameters?

a)

Dead time and total porosity

b)

Retention time and volumetric flow rate

c)

Adjusted retention time and volumetric flow rate

d)

Retention time and total porosity

37.

Which of the following oxides finally dissolve in water to cause acid rains?

a)

NO, NO2

b)

NO2, SO2

c)

NO2, SO3

d)

N2O5, SO3

38.

Which statement is correct? a. All tetrahedral complexes are high spin, p > Δt. b. Square planar complexes are usually low spin and Δsp > p. c. All tetrahedral and square planar complexes are usually high spin and p > Δt and Δsp. d. All octahedral complexes are high spin and p < Δ0.

a)

a and b are correct

b)

b and c are correct

c)

a and c are correct

d)

b and d are correct

39.

Graphene is a

a)

Wide band-gap semiconductor

b)

Gapless-band semiconductor

c)

Not a semiconductor but behaves like graphite

d)

A narrow band-gap semiconductor

40.

Potential of air pollution increases when the ventilation coefficient is

a)

11,000 m^2/s

b)

≈ 3,500 m^2/s

c)

< 6,000 m^2/s

d)

≈ 7,600 m^2/s

41.

Match the object to its typical size: Nanoshell corresponds to which size? Part B options: a. 100 nm, b. 2000 nm, c. 90 nm, d. 0.1 nm.

a)

100 nm

b)

2000 nm

c)

90 nm

d)

0.1 nm

42.

Match the object to its typical size: Hydrogen atom corresponds to which size? Part B options: a. 100 nm, b. 2000 nm, c. 90 nm, d. 0.1 nm.

a)

100 nm

b)

2000 nm

c)

90 nm

d)

0.1 nm

43.

Match the object to its typical size: E.coli bacteria corresponds to which size? Part B options: a. 100 nm, b. 2000 nm, c. 90 nm, d. 0.1 nm.

a)

100 nm

b)

2000 nm

c)

90 nm

d)

0.1 nm

44.

Match the object to its typical size: Transistor corresponds to which size? Part B options: a. 100 nm, b. 2000 nm, c. 90 nm, d. 0.1 nm.

a)

100 nm

b)

2000 nm

c)

90 nm

d)

0.1 nm

45.

Which of the following method is used to make both nano-particles and nano-powders?

a)

Chemical vapourization method

b)

Sol-gel method

c)

Ball-mill method

d)

Plasma arching

46.

According to Huckel Molecular Orbital Theory (HMO) the possible energy in terms of Coulomb (α) and exchange (β) integrals are

a)

(α + β), α, (2α + β), (2α − β)

b)

(α + 2β), 2α, (α − 2β), (2α + β)

c)

(α + 2β), α, α, (α − 2β)

d)

α, α, (α + β), (α + 2β)

47.

The ESR spectrum of Triphenyl methyl radical consists of

a)

25 lines

b)

75 lines

c)

196 lines

d)

27 lines

48.

Which of the following are intrinsic properties? 1. Specific rotation 2. Boiling point 3. Chemical potential 4. Pressure

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

49.

"For centrosymmetric molecules, any vibration which is IR active is Raman active vice-versa" represents

a)

Frank – condon principle

b)

Stark effect

c)

Mutual exclusion principle

d)

Doppler effect

50.

Assertion (A): If (dE_cell/dT)_P > 0 for a cell reaction, then ΔS is + ve. Reason (R): ΔS = nFT (dE/dT).

a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b)

Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c)

A is true but R is false

d)

A is false but R is true

51.

Only one signal is present in the PMR or NMR spectra of

a)

C3H4, C3H6

b)

C4H6, C5H12

c)

C3H8, C2H6O

d)

C4H6, C3H18

52.

Rotational Raman Spectrum is not possible for

a)

CCl4

b)

CO

c)

HCl

d)

N2

53.

Which is true among the following about colloids? 1. Smaller the gold number greater the protective power. 2. Lesser the valency of the coagulating ion, the greater the coagulation power. 3. Charge on the colloidal solution is due to preferential adsorption of either positive or negative ion which is common and present in excess. 4. Emulsion is dispersion of one liquid into another which are completely miscible.

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

3, 4

54.

At what angles for the first order diffraction, spacing between two planes respectively are λ and λ/2?

a)

0°, 90°

b)

30°, 90 Bany

c)

90°, 0°

d)

90°, 30°

55.

The X-rays of wavelength equal to 0.134 nm give a first order diffraction from the surface of a crystal when the value of θ is 10.5°. Then the distance between the adjacent planes in the crystal is (sin 10.5° = 0.1822)

a)

367 nm

b)

3.67 nm

c)

0.0367 nm

d)

0.367 nm

56.

Number average molecular mass of polymers can be determined by following method

a)

light scattering

b)

osmometry

c)

viscometry

d)

sedimentation method

57.

Standard deviation is

a)

(variance)2(\text{variance})^2

b)

(variance)1/2(\text{variance})^{1/2}

c)

(variance)1/3(\text{variance})^{1/3}

d)

variance2\dfrac{\text{variance}}{2}

58.

The number of significant figures in 0.00320 is

a)

Five

b)

Six

c)

Four

d)

Three

59.

ΔG° and ΔH° for a reaction at 300 K is −72.8 kJ mol−1 and −42.8 kJ mol−1 respectively. ΔG° for the same reaction at 320 K is

a)

−30.0 kJ mol−1

b)

+30.0 kJ mol−1

c)

11.8 kJ mol−1

d)

−74.8 kJ mol−1

60.

For a reaction A → B, E_a = 20 kJ/mol and ΔH = 10 kJ/mol. Energy of activation of B → A is

a)

25 kJ mol−1

b)

10 kJ mol−1

c)

5 kJ mol−1

d)

−25 kJ mol−1

61.

A transition for which first derivative of the chemical potential with respect to temperature is continuous, but the second derivative of the chemical potential with respect to temperature is discontinuous is classified as

a)

First order phase transition

b)

Second order phase transition

c)

Zero order transition

d)

Third order transition

62.

In a ground canonical ensemble all the systems have constant 1. Volume 2. Chemical Potential 3. Energy 4. Temperature

a)

2, 3

b)

3, 4

c)

2, 4

d)

1, 2

63.

The average position of a particle in one dimensional box of length L is

a)

LL

b)

L/2L/2

c)

2L2L

d)

12L12L

64.

For a two component system the reduced phase rule equation is

a)

F=4−PF = 4 - P

b)

F=3−PF = 3 - P

c)

F=2−PF = 2 - P

d)

F=1−PF = 1 - P

65.

Identify the correct energy order of equivalent ionic conductance of the following

a)

Li+<Na+<K+<Rb+\mathrm{Li^+ < Na^+ < K^+ < Rb^+}

b)

Li+>Na+<K+<Rb+\mathrm{Li^+ > Na^+ < K^+ < Rb^+}

c)

Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+\mathrm{Li^+ > Na^+ > K^+ > Rb^+}

d)

Li+>Na+<K+>Rb+\mathrm{Li^+ > Na^+ < K^+ > Rb^+}

66.

The point group symmetry of the free nitrate ion and BF3 molecule are

a)

C3v, C3hC_{3v},\ C_{3h}

b)

D3h, D3hD_{3h},\ D_{3h}

c)

C2v, D2hC_{2v},\ D_{2h}

d)

D2h, D3hD_{2h},\ D_{3h}

67.

Average distance for 2s orbital of He+ is

a)

1 A˚1\,\text{\AA}

b)

2 A˚2\,\text{\AA}

c)

3 A˚3\,\text{\AA}

d)

4 A˚4\,\text{\AA}

68.

The radial function ‘R’ depends on 1. n 2. l 3. m 4. s

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 3

d)

3, 4

69.

For distinguishable independent molecules, the relationship between canonical partition function (Q) and molecular partition function (q) is

a)

Q=q/NQ = q/N

b)

Q=qNQ = q^N

c)

Q=qQ = q

d)

Q=q/N!Q = q/N!

70.

Which of the following transition require the least energy?

a)

n → π*

b)

π → π*

c)

σ → σ*

d)

n → σ*

71.

Given Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V; Co2+/Co = −0.28 V; Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V; Zn2+/Zn = −0.70 V. The most reactive metal which displaces other metals from their salts in solution is

a)

Ag

b)

Cu

c)

Co

d)

Zn

72.

Collision theory of reaction rates satisfactorily explains

a)

First order reactions

b)

Any order reaction

c)

Unimolecular reactions

d)

Bimolecular reactions

73.

The entropy of all perfect crystalline substances is zero at T = 0°C represents

a)

First law of thermodynamics

b)

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

c)

Second law of thermodynamics

d)

Third law of thermodynamics

74.

Which of the following are path functions? 1. Internal energy 2. Enthalpy 3. Work 4. Heat

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

3, 4

d)

1, 4

75.

According to Lindemann mechanism of unimolecular reaction the observed order at high concentration is

a)

1

b)

0.5

c)

1.5

d)

2.0

76.

What is the indicator electrode used in the potentiometric titration of AgNO3 vs KCl?

a)

Hydrogen electrode

b)

Platinum electrode

c)

Silver electrode

d)

Calomel electrode

77.

Chain transfer reagent in the formation of polymer is

a)

CBr4

b)

CHCl3

c)

CH4

d)

CF4

78.

Match List I with List II and select the correct option from the codes given below. List I: a. D3h; b. C2h; c. C3v; d. C2v. List II: i. PCl3; ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene; iii. BF3; iv. Trans-N2F2. For item a (D3h), which is the correct match from List II?

a)

i. PCl3

b)

ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene

c)

iii. BF3

d)

iv. Trans-N2F2

79.

Match List I with List II and select the correct option from the codes given below. List I: a. D3h; b. C2h; c. C3v; d. C2v. List II: i. PCl3; ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene; iii. BF3; iv. Trans-N2F2. For item b (C2h), which is the correct match from List II?

a)

i. PCl3

b)

ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene

c)

iii. BF3

d)

iv. Trans-N2F2

80.

Match List I with List II and select the correct option from the codes given below. List I: a. D3h; b. C2h; c. C3v; d. C2v. List II: i. PCl3; ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene; iii. BF3; iv. Trans-N2F2. For item c (C3v), which is the correct match from List II?

a)

i. PCl3

b)

ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene

c)

iii. BF3

d)

iv. Trans-N2F2

81.

Match List I with List II and select the correct option from the codes given below. List I: a. D3h; b. C2h; c. C3v; d. C2v. List II: i. PCl3; ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene; iii. BF3; iv. Trans-N2F2. For item d (C2v), which is the correct match from List II?

a)

i. PCl3

b)

ii. Cis 1,2 dichloro ethylene

c)

iii. BF3

d)

iv. Trans-N2F2

82.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is

a)

(R) – 3 – (prop – 2 – enyl) hex – 5 – ynoic acid

b)

(R) – 3 – (prop – 2 – enyl) hex – 5 – enoic acid

c)

(S) – 3 – (prop – 2 – ynyl) hex – 5 – enoic acid

d)

(S) – 3 – (prop – 2 – enyl) hex – 5 – ynoic acid

83.

The IUPAC nomenclature of the following compound is

a)

(2E, 4E) – 3 – chlorohexa – 2,4 – diene – 1,6 – diol

b)

(2Z, 4E) – 3 – chlorohexa – 2,4 – diene – 1,6 – diol

c)

(2Z, 4Z) – 3 – chlorohexa – 2,4 – diene – 1,6 – diol

d)

(2E, 4Z) – 3 – chlorohexa – 2,4 – diene – 1,6 – diol

84.

Identify the following using the structures shown: I is 2,3-butanediol drawn with adjacent HO and H on opposite sides of the bond; II is a cyclohexane showing two CH3 substituents and H stereochemistry as drawn. Choose the correct characterization of I and II.

a)

I Meso; II Enantiomer

b)

I and II are Enantiomers

c)

I Enantiomer; II Meso

d)

I and II are Meso compounds

85.

The Gauche conformation of n-butane possesses which symmetry and chirality?

a)

Plane of symmetry and is achiral

b)

C2 axis of symmetry and is chiral

c)

C2 axis of symmetry and is achiral

d)

Plane of symmetry and is chiral

86.

Amongst the following non-benzenoid aromatic compounds which is π rich? I is the cyclopropenyl cation, II is the cyclopentadienyl anion, III is the tropylium cation.

a)

I

b)

III

c)

II

d)

I and III

87.

Among the following, the aromatic compounds are as depicted in the three fused-ring structures labeled I, II, and III.

a)

I, II and III

b)

I and III

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

88.

Among the following compounds, the formyl anion equivalent is

a)

1,3-Dithiane

b)

Acetylene

c)

Ethyl chloroformate

d)

Acetone

89.

Addition of BH3 to a carbon–carbon double bond results in which regiochemistry and stereochemistry?

a)

Markovnikov syn addition

b)

Anti-Markovnikov syn addition

c)

Markovnikov anti addition

d)

Anti-Markovnikov anti addition

90.

The correct order of acidity for the three compounds labeled 1, 2, and 3 as drawn (1 is a benzene ring bearing multiple CF3 groups, 2 is a cyclopropene-type structure, 3 is a 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene-type structure) is

a)

2 > 3 > 1

b)

3 > 1 > 2

c)

1 > 3 > 2

d)

1 > 2 > 3

91.

Match the following reaction names with their products: a. Beckmann Rearrangement, b. Paterno–Büchi Reaction, c. Wittig reaction, d. Stork reaction. Options for products: i. Oxetane, ii. Olefin, iii. Enamine, iv. Caprolactam. Choose the correct set.

a)

a – iv; b – i; c – iii; d – ii

b)

a – ii; b – iii; c – iv; d – i

c)

a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii

d)

a – ii; b – iii; c – i; d – iv

92.

Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction is conducted in the presence of which element?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Zinc

d)

Iron

93.

Identify the correct statements regarding the reactions labeled X and Y in the given diol rearrangement under acid, where phenyl migration occurs. Consider: a. cis form is more reactive, b. trans form is more reactive, c. anti group migration favors and thus cis form is more reactive, d. syn group migration favors and thus trans form is more reactive. Choose the correct combination.

a)

a, d

b)

b, c

c)

‘a’ is correct but ‘d’ is not the correct explanation

d)

‘b’ is correct but ‘c’ is not the correct explanation

94.

Identify the catalyst in the following reaction where an aryl bromide couples with a styrenyl aromatic alkene to form a substituted vinylarene.

a)

Na in C2H5OH

b)

Pd(OAc)2

c)

Zn in AcOH

d)

n-BuLi

95.

Predict the stereochemistry of the product in the reaction R–CH = CH–R treated with OsO4 to give the dihydroxylated product.

a)

Syn diol

b)

Anti diol

c)

Both syn and anti

d)

Epoxide

96.

In the sequence C6H5–CH = CH–CHO → C6H5–CH = CH–CH2OH, choose the reagent X that effects the transformation without hydrogenating the C=C bond.

a)

H2 | Ni

b)

Sn | HCl

c)

NaBH4

d)

K2Cr2O7 | H+

97.

Identify the intermediate (X) formed after Birch reduction and the target molecule (Y) formed after subsequent epoxidation in the sequence: anisole (methoxybenzene) → 1) Li/NH3/t-BuOH → 2) m-CPBA.

a)

X = 1-methoxy-1,4-cyclohexadiene with double bonds at C2=C3 and C5=C6; Y = epoxide formed across the C2–C3 double bond

b)

X = 1-methoxy-1,4-cyclohexadiene with double bonds at C2=C3 and C5=C6; Y = epoxide formed across the C5–C6 double bond

c)

X = 1-methoxy-1,3-cyclohexadiene with adjacent double bonds next to OMe; Y = epoxide formed across the more substituted double bond

d)

X = 1-methoxycyclohexene (single double bond); Y = epoxide formed across that double bond

98.

For the three‑step conversion of X (a 2-phenylethane-1,2-diol bearing benzylic and primary alcohols) to Y (a benzene derivative bearing a cyclic acetal protecting group and an aldehyde side chain), choose the appropriate sequence of reagents.

a)

MnO2; (CH2OH)2/p-TSA; PCC

b)

PCC; MnO2; (CH2OH)2/p-TSA

c)

Jones reagent; (CH2OH)2/p-TSA; MnO2

d)

MnO2; (CH2OH)2/p-TSA; Jones reagent

99.

Absolute asymmetric synthesis means which of the following?

a)

Synthesis of an optically active compound from an inactive one without using an optically active reagent

b)

Synthesis of an optically active compound from an inactive one using an optically active reagent

c)

Synthesis of an optically active compound from an optically active one using an optically active reagent

d)

Synthesis of an optically inactive compound from an optically active one using an optically active reagent

100.

In the thermal electrocyclic ring closure shown, determine the number of π electrons participating and the mode of cyclization.

a)

4 and conrotatory

b)

4 and disrotatory

c)

6 and conrotatory

d)

6 and disrotatory

101.

Predict the stereochemical outcome for the thermal 1,3‑sigmatropic rearrangement of a carbon substituent.

a)

Inversion of configuration

b)

Retention of configuration

c)

Both retention and inversion

d)

The reaction does not proceed

102.

Among the following heteroaromatic compounds, which undergoes a Diels–Alder reaction most readily under typical conditions?

a)

Thiophene

b)

Furan

c)

Benzene

d)

Pyrrole

103.

What is the preferable site for electrophilic substitution reaction in isoxazole?

a)

C – 3

b)

C – 4

c)

C – 3 and C – 5

d)

C – 3 and C – 4

104.

The major product formed on nitration of uridine followed by reduction with tin and HCl is

a)

Structure A

b)

Structure B

c)

Structure C

d)

Structure D

105.

Papaverine on oxidation with potassium permanganate gives a ketone, which on fusion with potassium hydroxide gives which product?

a)

Structure A

b)

Structure B

c)

Structure C

d)

Structure D

106.

Consider the following reaction sequence starting with α‑pinene; identify the correct statement. α‑pinene —(alk. KMnO4)→ pinonic acid (B) A —(NaOH/Br2)→ pinic acid (C)

a)

‘A’ has a disubstituted double bond; ‘B’ and ‘C’ are dicarboxylic acids

b)

‘A’ has a trisubstituted double bond; ‘B’ has a ketone and carboxylic acid; ‘C’ is a dicarboxylic acid

c)

‘A’ has a trisubstituted double bond; ‘B’ is a diketone and ‘C’ is a dicarboxylic acid

d)

‘A’ has a disubstituted double bond; ‘B’ is a diketone and ‘C’ is a dicarboxylic acid

107.

For estrone, among the following statements which is true? a. It has an aromatic ring b. It has two hydroxyl groups c. It has one ketone and one hydroxyl group d. It is a steroidal hormone

a)

b, c, d

b)

a, b, d

c)

a, c, d

d)

a, b, c

108.

How many stereogenic centers are present in cholesterol?

a)

Seven

b)

Six

c)

Eight

d)

Nine

109.

In the IR spectrum, the carbonyl absorption band for the following compound appears at which wavenumber?

a)

1770 cm−1

b)

1690 cm−1

c)

1810 cm−1

d)

1660 cm−1

110.

Predict the appropriate 1H NMR chemical shifts for the protons A–D for the following compound.

a)

A 5.7; B 6.8; C 3.9; D 2.1 ppm

b)

A 6.8; B 5.7; C 2.1; D 3.9 ppm

c)

A 6.8; B 5.7; C 3.9; D 2.1 ppm

d)

A 5.7; B 6.8; C 2.1; D 3.9 ppm

111.

An organic compound having the molecular formula C10H14\mathrm{C}_{10}\mathrm{H}_{14} exhibited two singlets in 1H^{1}\mathrm{H} NMR and three signals in 13C^{13}\mathrm{C} NMR. The compound is

a)

Structure A

b)

Structure B

c)

Structure C

d)

Structure D

112.

Select the medicinal activity of 5‑fluorouracil.

a)

Anticancer

b)

Anti‑inflammatory

c)

Antibacterial

d)

Cholesterol lowering

113.

Select the medicinal activity of Amoxicillin.

a)

Anticancer

b)

Anti‑inflammatory

c)

Antibacterial

d)

Cholesterol lowering

114.

The heterocyclic compounds present in the drug omeprazole are

a)

Benzimidazole and pyridine

b)

Benzopyrazole and imidazole

c)

Benzoxazole and furan

d)

Benzisoxazole and pyridine

115.

A non‑haem iron‑containing protein is

a)

Hemerythrin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Hemocyanin

d)

Hemoglobin

116.

Which one of the following is not a green solvent?

a)

Ionic liquid

b)

H2O\mathrm{H}_2\mathrm{O}

c)

MeOH

d)

EtOH

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