WorksheetsHEMA2-24
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Russel’s Viper Venom Time
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
2.
used to detect deficiencies in fibrinogen, prothrombin, and factors V and X
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
3.
differs from the PT in that deficiencies in factor VII are NOT detected
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
4.
uses the coagulant properties of Russel’s viper venom, obtained from the snake Vipera russeli
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
5.
m is capable of bypassing the action of Factor VII and directly activating Factor X to Xa.
- may help differentiating Factor VII and Factor X deficiencies
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
6.
Normal Value: 20 to 25 seconds
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
7.
a sensitive test in detecting heparin inhibition
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
8.
s an enzyme found in the venom of the Bothrops atrox snake and is capable of converting fibrinogen to fibrin.
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
9.
Which of the following is Prolonged in hypofibrinogenemia and normal in both immunologic antithrombin and heparin therapy?
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
10.
Which of the following is Prolonged in hypofibrinogenemia, immunologic antithrombin and heparin therapy?
a)
Stypven time
b)
Thrombin time
c)
Reptilase time
d)
Clotting time
11.
Reptilase is unaffected by
a)
Heparin
b)
Warfarin
12.
Normal value of Stypven time
a)
20 to 25 seconds
b)
30 to 35 seconds
c)
15 to 18 seconds
d)
10 to 15 seconds
13.
Normal value of Dilute Russel’s Viper Venom Time (dRVVT)
a)
20 to 25 seconds
b)
30 to 35 seconds
c)
15 to 18 seconds
d)
10 to 15 seconds
14.
Normal value of Thrombin time
a)
20 to 25 seconds
b)
30 to 35 seconds
c)
15 to 18 seconds
d)
10 to 15 seconds
15.
Normal value of Reptilase time
a)
20 to 25 seconds
b)
30 to 35 seconds
c)
15 to 18 seconds
d)
10 to 15 seconds
16.
Prolonged thrombin times are found when the fibrinogen level is __, when function of fibrinogen is impaired, and in the presence of heparin, fibrin(ogen) degradation products and streptokinase
a)
Low
b)
High
17.
Normal value in slide or drop method clotting time
a)
1 to 3 minutes
b)
2 to 4 minutes
c)
5 to 7 minutes
d)
7 to 15 minutes
18.
Normal value in Lee and White (Whole Blood Clotting Time) Method
a)
1 to 3 minutes
b)
2 to 4 minutes
c)
5 to 7 minutes
d)
7 to 15 minutes
19.
In factor VII deficiency, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
20.
In Factor VIII, IX, XI, XII, Prekallikrein, deficiency, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
21.
In HMWK deficiency, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
22.
In Von Willebrand's disease, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
23.
In presence of circulating anticoagulant (lupus), what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
24.
In Vitamin K deficiency, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
25.
In Oral anticoagulants, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
26.
In Factor V, X, or II deficiency, what is prolonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
27.
In presence of large amount of heparin, what is porlonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
28.
In liver disease, what is porlonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
29.
In fibrinogen deficiency or disorder, what is porlonged?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
30.
In thrombocytopenia, what is low?
a)
Prothrombin time
b)
aPTT
c)
TT
d)
Platelet count
31.
What condition yields prolonged PT, aPTT, TT, and abnormally low plt count?
a)
Vitamin K deficiency
b)
Factor XIII deficiency
c)
Thrombocytopenia
d)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
32.
What condition yields normal PT, aPTT, TT, and plt count?
a)
Vitamin K deficiency
b)
Factor XIII deficiency
c)
Thrombocytopenia
d)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
33.
Weakens platelet function, platelet aggregation, and interaction of vWF with platelets; Increases bleeding time
a)
Penicillin G
b)
DDAVP
c)
Isoniazid
d)
Aspirin products
34.
-Increases plasma levels of VIII:C by releasing endogenous protein from body storage sites ;Can shorten the APTT
a)
Penicillin G
b)
DDAVP
c)
Isoniazid
d)
Aspirin products
35.
Can produce thrombocytopenia; increases bleeding time
a)
Penicillin G
b)
DDAVP
c)
Isoniazid
d)
Aspirin products
36.
Prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting thromboxane A2 synthesis in the platelets
a)
Penicillin G
b)
DDAVP
c)
Isoniazid
d)
Aspirin products
37.
-Stimulates the production of a “lupus anticoagulant” in circulation; Prolongs the APTT
a)
Phenothiazines
b)
Phenylbutazone
c)
Metronidazole
d)
Streptomycin
38.
-Weakens platelet function but enhances the effect of warfarin (may increase the PT in a patient on both drugs) ; May prolong the bleeding time
a)
Phenothiazines
b)
Phenylbutazone
c)
Metronidazole
d)
Streptomycin
39.
-Improves the effect of warfarin in a patient on both drugs ;Can prolong the PT
a)
Phenothiazines
b)
Phenylbutazone
c)
Metronidazole
d)
Streptomycin
40.
-Stimulates formation of inhibitors to Factor V ;Can prolong the PT and possibly the aPTT
a)
Phenothiazines
b)
Phenylbutazone
c)
Metronidazole
d)
Streptomycin
41.
activated by thrombin bound to thrombomodulin (TM)
a)
Protein C
b)
Activated protein C
c)
Protein S
42.
inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa
a)
Protein C
b)
Activated protein C
c)
Protein S
43.
co-factor to Protein C
a)
Protein C
b)
Activated protein C
c)
Protein S
44.
a plasma zymogen produced by the liver
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
45.
-stored and transported in eosinophils
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
46.
fibrin-bound plasminogen become converted into active plasmin
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
47.
fibrin-bound plasminogen become converted into active plasmin
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
48.
serine protease secreted by activated endothelium, activates plasminogen
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
49.
s bound to inhibitors such as PAI-1 and is cleared from plasma
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
50.
another intrinsic plasminogen activator secreted by urinary tract epithelial cells, monocytes, and macrophages
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
51.
does NOT bind firmly to fibrin, and has a relatively minor physiologic effect
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
52.
principal inhibitor of plasminogen activation
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
53.
-inhibits both TPA and UPA and thus preventing them from converting plasminogen to plasmin
a)
Plasminogen
b)
Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
c)
Urokinase Plasminogen Activator (UPA)
d)
Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor 1 (PAI-1)
54.
s a serine protease (bound plasmin digests clot and restores blood vessel patency)
a)
Plasmin
b)
Feee plasmin
c)
a2-antiplasmin
55.
capable of digesting plasma fibrinogen , factor V, factor VIII, and fibronectin, causing a potentially deadly primary fibrinolysis
a)
Plasmin
b)
Feee plasmin
c)
a2-antiplasmin
56.
rapidly binds and inactivates any free plasmin in the circulation
a)
Plasmin
b)
Feee plasmin
c)
a2-antiplasmin
57.
-inhibits plasmin, synthesized in the liver
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
58.
-primary inhibitor of free plasmin
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
59.
-primary inhibitor of free plasmin
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
60.
ε-aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid = antifibrinolytic (both inhibit the proteolytic activity of plasmin)
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
61.
-synthesized in the liver -becomes activated by the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex (the same complex that activates the protein C pathway; however, the two functions are independent)
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
62.
activated form functions as an antifibrinolytic enzyme
a)
a2-antiplasmin
b)
Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI)
63.
Presence indicates that a stable fibrin clot has been lysed
a)
D-dimer test
b)
Euglobulin lysis time
64.
FDP(+), D-dimer (-)
a)
Pathological fibrinolysis
b)
DIC
65.
FDP(+), D-dimer (+)
a)
Pathological fibrinolysis
b)
DIC
66.
Euglobulin lysis time is typically longer than
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
4 hours
67.
What is the normal value in Duke method?
a)
1 to 7 minutes
b)
2 to 4 minutes
c)
2 to 9 minutes
68.
What is the normal value in Ivy method?
a)
1 to 7 minutes
b)
2 to 4 minutes
c)
2 to 9 minutes
69.
What is the normal value in Template bleeding time method?
a)
1 to 7 minutes
b)
2 to 4 minutes
c)
2 to 9 minutes
70.
In the Duke bleeding time method, blood is blotted every:
a)
10 seconds
b)
20 seconds
c)
30 seconds
d)
1 minute
71.
The normal Duke bleeding time reference range is:
a)
1–2 minutes
b)
2–4 minutes
c)
4–7 minutes
d)
7–9 minutes
72.
The Ivy bleeding time method requires inflation of a sphygmomanometer to:
a)
20 mmHg
b)
30 mmHg
c)
40 mmHg
d)
60 mmHg
73.
In the Ivy method, how many skin incisions are made?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
74.
The Template Bleeding Time method is a modification of which test?
a)
Duke test
b)
Rumple-Leede test
c)
Ivy test
d)
Tourniquet test
75.
Devices such as Simplate and Surgicutt are used in which test?
a)
Duke
b)
Ivy
c)
Template Bleeding time
d)
Rumple-Leede
76.
The Rumple-Leede test is primarily used to assess:
a)
Platelet aggregation
b)
FIbrinolysis
c)
Capilary fragility
d)
Coagulation factor activity
77.
In the Rumple-Leede test, the cuff is inflated to:
a)
Systolic pressure
b)
Diastolic pressure
c)
Midway between systolic and diastolic pressure
d)
Below diastolic pressure
78.
Duration of pressure application in the Rumple-Leede test is:
a)
1 minute
b)
3 minutes
c)
5 minutes
d)
10 minutes
e)
15 minutes
79.
After releasing the cuff in the Rumple-Leede test, petechiae are counted after:
a)
1 minute
b)
3 minutes
c)
5 minutes
d)
10 minutes
e)
15 minutes
80.
A normal Rumple-Leede test result is:
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
81.
Rumple-Leede test result indicative of capillary weakness
a)
0
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
82.
The contractile protein essential for normal clot retraction is:
a)
Fibrinogen
b)
Myosin
c)
Thrombosthenin
d)
Actin
83.
Clot retraction is evaluated by measuring:
a)
Clot weight
b)
The amount of expressed serum
c)
Platelet count
d)
Hemoglobin concentration
84.
Normal clot retraction requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Normal fibrinogen
b)
Functional platelets
c)
Calcium
d)
Plasmin
e)
ATP
85.
Which of the following is also required for clot retraction?
a)
Normal fibrinogen
b)
Functional platelets
c)
Calcium
d)
Plasmin
e)
ATP
86.
In the Hirschboeck test, the first step is to:
a)
Add calcium to blood
b)
Make a skin incision
c)
Warm the sample to 37°C
d)
Add fresh blood to castor oil
87.
The endpoint of the Hirschboeck test is when you observe:
a)
“Dimpling” due to serum extrusion
b)
Fibrin strands
c)
Platelet aggregation
d)
Complete clot lysis
88.
The normal value for the Hirschboeck (Castor Oil) test is:
a)
2–9 minutes
b)
15–45 minutes
c)
1–7 minutes
d)
45–90 minutes
89.
Cloudy serum in the Hirschboeck test is seen in:
a)
Jaundice
b)
Plasma cell myeloma
c)
Diabetes
d)
After exercise
90.
A dark yellow extruded serum in the Hirschboeck test is seen in:
a)
Jaundice
b)
Plasma cell myeloma
c)
Diabetes
d)
After exercise
91.
Milky serum in the Hirschboeck test is most commonly associated with:
a)
Liver cirrhosis
b)
Vitamin K deficiency
c)
Iron deficiency anemia
d)
Diabetes, leukemia, or post-prandial state
92.
How much fresh venous blood is used in the MacFarlane method?
a)
2 mL
b)
10 mL
c)
3 mL
d)
5 mL
93.
In the MacFarlane method, clot retraction is observed:
a)
In ice water
b)
At room temperature only
c)
In a 37°C water bath initially
d)
At 56°C
94.
Clot retraction is considered to have occurred when:
a)
The clot dissolves
b)
Serum becomes cloudy
c)
The clot shrinks and adheres to the glass rod
d)
Platelets aggregate visibly
95.
The formula for % clot retraction in the MacFarlane method is:
a)
Amount of serum ÷ amount of blood × 100
b)
Blood volume ÷ serum volume × 100
c)
Platelets × fibrinogen ÷ 100
d)
Clot weight ÷ serum volume × 100
96.
The normal % clot retraction for the MacFarlane method is:
a)
10–20%
b)
25–40%
c)
44–67%
d)
70–90%
97.
Clot retraction is abnormal in all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Thrombocytopenia
b)
Low fibrinogen
c)
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
d)
Factor XII deficiency
98.
Poor clot retraction due to defective platelet–fibrin interaction is seen in:
a)
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
b)
Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
c)
Hemophilia A
d)
Von Willebrand disease
99.
Paraproteinemias interfere with clot retraction because they:
a)
Reduce platelet count
b)
Prevent fibrin formation
c)
Destroy fibrinogen
d)
Inhibit factor VIII
100 %
