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Doctopia.in Dec 26th 8pm

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a hysterectomy, the ureter is at risk of injury where it crosses under the uterine artery. This relationship is often described as "Water under the bridge." At which level does this crossing occur?

a)

At the pelvic brim

b)

At the level of the ischial spine

c)

Near the internal cervical os

d)

At the sacroiliac joint

2.

"Waiter's Tip" deformity is a result of injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Erb’s Palsy). Which nerve root segments are involved?

a)

C5, C6

b)

C8, T1

c)

C7 only

d)

C5, C6, C7

3.

Pulmonary Surfactant, which reduces surface tension in alveoli, is secreted by:

a)

Type I Pneumocytes

b)

Type II Pneumocytes

c)

Alveolar Macrophages

d)

Clara Cells

4.

The "Goldblatt Mechanism" of hypertension involves the secretion of Renin from which specialized cells?

a)

Macula Densa

b)

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

c)

Mesangial cells

d)

Podocytes

5.

A patient presents with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and lactic acidosis. Liver biopsy shows accumulation of glycogen. The deficiency of Glucose-6-Phosphatase characterizes:

a)

Pompe Disease (Type II)

b)

Cori Disease (Type III)

c)

Von Gierke Disease (Type I)

d)

McArdle Disease (Type V)

6.

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with the triad of Confusion, Ophthalmoplegia, and Ataxia (Wernicke’s Encephalopathy)?

a)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

b)

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

c)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

d)

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

7.

"Barrett's Esophagus" represents a change from stratified squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium. This is an example of:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Anaplasia

8.

"Heart Failure Cells" found in the lungs of patients with chronic left ventricular failure are actually:

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Hemosiderin-laden Macrophages

d)

Neutrophils

9.

Which organism is the most common cause of "Gas Gangrene," characterized by crepitus in the soft tissues?

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium botulinum

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Bacillus anthracis

10.

The "VDRL" test is a non-specific screening test for Syphilis. False positives can occur in all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Pregnancy

b)

SLE

c)

Malaria

d)

Secondary Syphilis

11.

A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of Enalapril (ACE Inhibitors) due to the accumulation of:

a)

Angiotensin II

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Prostaglandins

d)

Nitric Oxide

12.

Which drug is a Folate Antagonist used in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis and Ectopic Pregnancy?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Cyclophosphamide

13.

A "Ligature Mark" that is oblique, non-continuous, and high up on the neck is characteristic of:

a)

Strangulation by ligature

b)

Hanging

c)

Throttling

d)

Mugging

14.

"Burton's Line" (blue line on gums) and "Wrist Drop" are characteristic features of chronic poisoning by:

a)

Arsenic

b)

Mercury

c)

Lead

d)

Copper

15.

Which vaccine is most sensitive to heat and requires storage in the freezer compartment (-20°C)?

a)

Polio (OPV)

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

DPT

d)

TT

16.

The time interval between the entry of an infectious agent into the host and the appearance of the first symptom is called:

a)

Serial Interval

b)

Latent Period

c)

Incubation Period

d)

Communicable Period

17.

"Otomycosis" (Fungal ear infection) often presents with a "wet newspaper" appearance or black spores. The most common causative agent is:

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Aspergillus niger

c)

Mucor

d)

Rhizopus

18.

A "Quinsy" (Peritonsillar Abscess) is most often located:

a)

Between the tonsil and the anterior pillar

b)

Between the tonsil and the superior constrictor muscle

c)

Within the tonsil tissue

d)

In the retropharyngeal space

19.

A "Dendritic Ulcer" on the cornea is pathognomonic for:

a)

Fungal Keratitis

b)

Acanthamoeba Keratitis

c)

Herpes Simplex Keratitis

d)

Bacterial Keratitis

20.

Q20. "Bitot’s Spots" (foamy, triangular spots on the conjunctiva) are a sign of:

a)

Trachoma

b)

Vitamin A Deficiency

c)

Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis

d)

Pterygium

21.

Q21. Needle aspiration of a joint in Gout reveals crystals that are:

a)

Needle-shaped and Negatively birefringent

b)

Rhomboid and Positively birefringent

c)

Envelope-shaped

d)

Coffin-lid shaped

22.

Q22. Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder caused by antibodies against:

a)

Voltage-gated Calcium channels

b)

Nicotinic Acetylcholine receptors (Post-synaptic)

c)

Muscarinic receptors

d)

Presynaptic Acetylcholine release

23.

Q23. Murphy’s Sign (arrest of inspiration on deep palpation of the RUQ) is diagnostic of:

a)

Acute Appendicitis

b)

Acute Cholecystitis

c)

Acute Pancreatitis

d)

Peptic Ulcer Perforation

24.

Q24. In the "Rule of Nines" for burn assessment, the entire head and neck of an adult represents what percentage of TBSA?

a)

4.5%

b)

9%

c)

18%

d)

1%

25.

Q25. The Bishop Score is used to assess:

a)

Fetal well-being (biophysical profile)

b)

Cervical favorability for induction of labor

c)

Risk of Pre-term labor

d)

Postpartum hemorrhage risk

26.

Q26. A classic triad of Amenorrhea, Agalactorrhea (failure to lactate), and loss of axillary/pubic hair following massive postpartum hemorrhage suggests:

a)

Sheehan’s Syndrome

b)

Simmonds' Disease

c)

Cushing's Syndrome

d)

Addison's Disease

27.

Q27. Physiological Jaundice in a term newborn typically appears:

a)

Within the first 24 hours

b)

Between 24 to 72 hours

c)

After 1 week

d)

After 2 weeks

28.

Q28. A "Boot-Shaped Heart" (Coeur-en-sabot) on Chest X-ray is characteristic of:

a)

Transposition of Great Arteries

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot

c)

Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

d)

Tricuspid Atresia

29.

Q29.A fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head is called:

a)

Galeazzi Fracture

b)

Monteggia Fracture

c)

Colles Fracture

d)

Smith Fracture

30.

Q30. "Pott’s Spine" refers to:

a)

Osteoarthritis of the spine

b)

Tuberculosis of the spine

c)

Fracture of the vertebrae

d)

Scoliosis

31.

Q31. "Auspitz Sign" (pinpoint bleeding after scraping scales) is seen in:

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Lichen Planus

c)

Eczema

d)

Pityriasis Rosea

32.

Q32. A "Burrow" in the web spaces of fingers is the pathognomonic lesion of:

a)

Impetigo

b)

Scabies

c)

Tinea Manuum

d)

Warts

33.

Q33. The neurotransmitter most implicated in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

GABA

d)

Norepinephrine

34.

Q34. Delirium Tremens is a severe form of withdrawal from:

a)

Opioids

b)

Alcohol

c)

Cannabis

d)

Cocaine

35.

Q35. "Batwing" or "Butterfly" appearance of hilar opacities on Chest X-ray is seen in:

a)

Pulmonary Tuberculosis

b)

Pulmonary Edema

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Lung Cancer

36.

Q36. A "Crescent-shaped" hyperdensity on a CT scan of the brain typically indicates:

a)

Extradural Hemorrhage (EDH)

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

c)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

d)

Intraventricular Hemorrhage

37.

Q37. "Dissociative Anesthesia" is a unique property of:

a)

Propofol

b)

Ketamine

c)

Thiopental

d)

Etomidate

38.

Q38. The most common complication of Spinal Anesthesia is:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Post-Dural Puncture Headache (PDPH)

d)

Urinary Retention

39.

Q39. A patient rescued from a house fire presents with confusion and "Cherry-red" skin color. The diagnosis is:

a)

Cyanide poisoning

b)

Carbon Monoxide poisoning

c)

Methemoglobinemia

d)

Arsenic poisoning

40.

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