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Cancer and Lymph Node Metastases Quiz

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of cancer is associated with mediastinal lymph node metastases as shown in the image?

a)

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

b)

Testicular carcinoma

c)

Breast cancer

d)

Sarcoma

2.

Which type of lymph node metastases is most typical of mucinous adenocarcinoma and sarcomas?

a)

Calcified lymph node metastases

b)

Necrotic lymph node metastases

c)

Rim-enhancing lymph node metastases

d)

Low-attenuation lymph node metastases

3.

What type of lymph node metastases is commonly seen in testicular carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast cancer, and lung cancer?

a)

Necrotic, rim-enhancing, or low-attenuation lymph nodes

b)

Calcified lymph node metastases

c)

Enlarged lymph nodes without distinguishing characteristics

d)

Superior mediastinal lymph nodes

4.

Which cancers are associated with enhancing lymph nodes secondary to metastases?

a)

Renal cell carcinoma, papillary thyroid carcinoma, lung cancer, sarcomas, and melanoma

b)

Breast cancer, testicular carcinoma, and mucinous adenocarcinoma

c)

Thyroid carcinoma, sarcomas, and adenocarcinoma

d)

Lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, and testicular carcinoma

5.

What type of lymph node metastasis is shown in FIG. 5.23, and what is its characteristic feature?

a)

Enhancing lymph node metastasis with metastatic paraganglioma; densely enhancing left paraaortic lymph node.

b)

Calcified lymph node metastasis in thyroid carcinoma; faintly calcified pretracheal lymph node.

c)

Enlarged lymph node metastasis in lung carcinoma; enlarged hilar lymph node.

d)

Non-enhancing lymph node metastasis in breast carcinoma; non-enhancing axillary lymph node.

6.

What type of lymph node metastasis is shown in FIG. 5.24, and what is its characteristic feature?

a)

Calcified lymph node metastasis in thyroid carcinoma; faintly calcified pretracheal lymph node.

b)

Enhancing lymph node metastasis with metastatic paraganglioma; densely enhancing left paraaortic lymph node.

c)

Enlarged lymph node metastasis in lung carcinoma; enlarged hilar lymph node.

d)

Non-enhancing lymph node metastasis in breast carcinoma; non-enhancing axillary lymph node.

7.

What type of lymph nodes are visible following the treatment of metastatic gastric cancer?

a)

Necrotic lymph nodes

b)

Calcified lymph nodes

c)

Enlarged lymph nodes

d)

Inflamed lymph nodes

8.

What characteristic is observed in the pretracheal lymph node in metastatic renal cell carcinoma?

a)

High-attenuation center

b)

Low-attenuation center and rim enhancement

c)

Dense calcification

d)

Uniform texture

9.

Which type of lymph node involvement suggests a head and neck tumor?

a)

Superior mediastinal lymph node involvement

b)

Posterior mediastinal lymph node involvement

c)

Retrocrural lymph node involvement

d)

Paracardiac lymph node involvement

10.

What does posterior mediastinal or paravertebral lymph node enlargement typically suggest about the primary tumor location?

a)

Head and neck tumor

b)

Abdominal tumor

c)

Breast carcinoma

d)

Colon carcinoma

11.

Internal mammary lymph node metastases are most likely due to which type of cancer?

a)

Lung cancer

b)

Breast carcinoma

c)

Colon carcinoma

d)

Ovarian cancer

12.

Paracardiac lymph node enlargement may occur as a result of metastasis from which types of tumors?

a)

Head and neck tumors

b)

Abdominal or thoracic tumors

c)

Testicular carcinoma

d)

Retroperitoneal tumors

13.

What does the presence of multiple pleural nodules in a CT scan suggest?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pleural metastases

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Pulmonary embolism

14.

Which type of cancer is most commonly associated with pleural metastases?

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Small cell carcinoma

d)

Basal cell carcinoma

15.

What are the possible routes through which pleural metastases can spread?

a)

Direct invasion, hematogenous spread, lymphatic spread

b)

Airborne transmission, hematogenous spread, lymphatic spread

c)

Direct invasion, airborne transmission, lymphatic spread

d)

Hematogenous spread, lymphatic spread, airborne transmission

16.

Which of the following is a finding that strongly suggests pleural metastasis in a patient with known malignancy?

a)

Concentric pleural thickening

b)

Pleural effusion, nonspecific

c)

Nodular pleural thickening

d)

Lymphatic obstruction

17.

What is the most typical symptom of metastatic sarcoma involving the pleura?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Concentric pleural thickening

d)

Lymphatic spread

18.

Which mechanism is responsible for nonspecific pleural effusion in patients with neoplasm?

a)

Local spread of tumor

b)

Hematogenous spread

c)

Lymphatic obstruction

d)

Concentric pleural thickening

19.

What is Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) primarily derived from?

a)

Primitive vascular tissues

b)

Bone marrow cells

c)

Neural tissues

d)

Muscular tissues

20.

Which virus is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma (KS)?

a)

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

b)

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

c)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

d)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

21.

What percentage of AIDS patients with Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) experience pulmonary involvement?

a)

10%–30%

b)

20%–50%

c)

40%–60%

d)

50%–70%

22.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pulmonary involvement in Kaposi's sarcoma (KS)?

a)

Coarse reticular opacities at the lung bases

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Interlobular septal thickening

d)

Enlarged heart

23.

What is the typical radiographic finding in Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) involving the lungs?

a)

Bilateral diffuse abnormalities

b)

Unilateral localized abnormalities

c)

Normal lung appearance

d)

Enlarged bronchi

24.

What percentage of patients exhibit the chest radiographic appearance analogous to lymphangitic spread of carcinoma?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

25.

What radiographic features are typical of Kaposi Sarcoma (KS) in AIDS patients as seen in the perihilar regions and lower lobes?

a)

Coarse, ill-defined opacities and consolidation

b)

Streaky opacities and hilar lymph node enlargement

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

26.

Which radiographic feature is visible in the lower lobes of AIDS patients with Kaposi Sarcoma (KS)?

a)

Coarse, ill-defined opacities

b)

Streaky opacities

c)

Consolidation

d)

Enlarged hilar lymph nodes

27.

What additional feature is visible in the radiographic appearance of Kaposi Sarcoma (KS) in AIDS patients besides opacities and nodules?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Hilar lymph node enlargement

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Atelectasis

28.

What is a typical CT feature of Kaposi Sarcoma (KS) in advanced cases?

a)

Irregular and ill-defined spiculated nodules

b)

Ground-glass opacity

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Normal lung appearance

29.

Which area of the lung is typically affected by early CT findings of KS in AIDS patients?

a)

Lung apices

b)

Lung bases

c)

Middle lobes

d)

Pleural cavity

30.

What does the presence of ground-glass opacity in KS patients potentially represent?

a)

Pulmonary hemorrhage

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Normal lung tissue

d)

Bronchial obstruction

31.

Which feature allows KS to be distinguished from other thoracic complications in AIDS patients?

a)

Perihilar distribution of irregular nodules larger than 1 cm

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Ground-glass opacity

d)

Interlobular septal thickening

32.

What year did the World Health Organization (WHO) classify neoplasms of hematopoietic and lymphoid tissues, as mentioned in the text?

a)

2005

b)

2008

c)

2010

d)

2015

33.

Which classification is included in the WHO classification of lymphomas primary to the lung, as mentioned in the text?

a)

Lymphomas, leukemias, and lymphoproliferative diseases

b)

Lymphomas and sarcomas

c)

Leukemias and carcinomas

d)

Lymphomas and melanomas

34.

What percentage of non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL) are mature B-cell neoplasms?

a)

50%

b)

85%

c)

15%

d)

70%

35.

Which type of lymphoma is associated with HHV-8 and multicentric Castleman disease?

a)

Follicular lymphoma

b)

Large B-cell lymphoma

c)

Mantle cell lymphoma

d)

Primary effusion lymphoma

36.

Which of the following is a type of mature T-cell and NK-cell neoplasm?

a)

Mantle cell lymphoma

b)

Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma

c)

Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

d)

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

37.

Which subtype of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by nodular lymphocyte predominance?

a)

Classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b)

Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c)

Mixed cellularity classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma

d)

Lymphocyte-depleted classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma

38.

Which of the following is a histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasm?

a)

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

b)

Erdheim-Chester disease

c)

Primary effusion lymphoma

d)

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

39.

What does PTLD stand for in the context of posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorders?

a)

Posttransplantation lymphocyte disorder

b)

Polymorphic T-cell lymphocyte disorder

c)

Posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder

d)

Primary T-cell lymphocyte disease

40.

What is the primary basis for the classification of neoplasms in the WHO classification system?

a)

Geographic location of the patient

b)

Cell type and genetic differences

c)

Patient's age and gender

d)

Environmental factors

41.

Which of the following infectious agents has been linked to the development of lymphomas and lymphoproliferative diseases?

a)

Influenza virus

b)

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

c)

Rhinovirus

d)

Streptococcus bacteria

42.

What staging system is commonly used for lymphomas, including its modifications for NHLs?

a)

TNM staging system

b)

Ann Arbor staging system

c)

Lugano staging system

d)

Cotswolds staging system

43.

In the Ann Arbor staging system, what does stage IV lymphoma indicate?

a)

Single lymph node group involvement

b)

Multiple lymph node groups, ipsilateral to the diaphragm

c)

Involvement of lymph node groups above and below the diaphragm

d)

Noncontiguous extranodal involvement, such as liver, lung, or bone marrow

44.

What revisions to the staging system for lymphomas were recommended at the 11th International Conference on Malignant Lymphoma in Lugano, Switzerland?

a)

Introduction of a new staging system

b)

Recognition of extranodal involvement in staging

c)

Removal of subcategories A and B

d)

Inclusion of genetic mutations in staging criteria

45.

What imaging technique is commonly used in the initial evaluation and staging of most lymphomas, improving accuracy compared to CT?

a)

MRI

b)

PET

c)

Ultrasound

d)

X-ray

46.

Which lymphoma type is excluded from FDG-avid NHL in PET imaging?

a)

Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)

b)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

c)

Marginal zone NHL

d)

Mycosis fungoides

47.

What is the primary benefit of using PET-CT in staging lymphomas compared to CT alone?

a)

Reduced imaging time

b)

Improved staging accuracy

c)

Lower radiation exposure

d)

Enhanced patient comfort

48.

In the Lugano Classification, what does Stage I indicate?

a)

Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm

b)

Involvement of a single lymph node region or a single extralymphatic organ or site

c)

Additional noncontiguous extralymphatic involvement

d)

Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm

49.

What distinguishes Stage II bulky from Stage II in the Lugano Classification?

a)

Presence of fever and night sweats

b)

Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm

c)

Presence of bulky disease

d)

Additional noncontiguous extralymphatic involvement

50.

What suffix is used in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) to denote the absence or presence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, or unexplained weight loss?

a)

X or Y

b)

A or B

c)

I or II

d)

M or N

51.

What is the current definition of "bulky" disease in Hodgkin's Lymphoma (HL)?

a)

A mass greater than 5 cm in diameter

b)

A mass greater than 10 cm or 1/3 of the transthoracic diameter

c)

A mass visible on CT with modifiers X and A

d)

A mass greater than 15 cm in diameter

52.

What is the primary goal of the Lugano Classification in lymphoma follow-up and assessment?

a)

To eliminate the use of CT scans in staging

b)

To simplify and standardize response assessment and reporting

c)

To focus solely on FDG-PET/CT for all lymphoma types

d)

To replace the Deauville criteria with new guidelines

53.

Which of the following is NOT a category of lymph node response using CT as defined in the Lugano Classification?

a)

Complete radiologic response

b)

Partial response

c)

Progressive disease

d)

Residual disease

54.

What is the male-to-female ratio prevalence of Hodgkin's Lymphoma (HL)?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

55.

What is the significance of FDG uptake in response assessment for lymphoma?

a)

It determines the size of the lymph nodes

b)

It serves as a marker of metabolic activity

c)

It eliminates the need for CT scans

d)

It categorizes lymphomas into histological subtypes

56.

What is the peak incidence age range for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

a)

First and second decades

b)

Third and eighth decades

c)

Fifth and sixth decades

d)

Ninth and tenth decades

57.

Which cell type is characteristic of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

a)

Reed-Sternberg cells

b)

T-cells

c)

B-cells

d)

Plasma cells

58.

What percentage of adult Hodgkin's Lymphoma cases are accounted for by the nodular sclerosis cell type?

a)

20%-40%

b)

50%-80%

c)

10%-30%

d)

70%-90%

59.

Which staging system is used for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

a)

TNM system

b)

Ann Arbor system

c)

WHO classification system

d)

Lugano system

60.

What percentage of Hodgkin's Lymphoma cases show thoracic involvement at diagnosis?

a)

50%

b)

85%

c)

70%

d)

95%

61.

What is the most common mediastinal node enlargement percentage in Hodgkin's Lymphoma cases?

a)

75%

b)

85%

c)

98%

d)

65%

62.

What percentage of Hodgkin's Lymphoma cases show lung involvement at diagnosis?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

63.

What is the most common cause of pleural effusion in Hodgkin's Lymphoma cases?

a)

Lung infection

b)

Lymphatic obstruction

c)

Thoracic injury

d)

Pulmonary embolism

64.

Which histologic type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma accounts for 50%-80% of adult cases?

a)

Mixed cellularity HL

b)

Nodular sclerosis HL

c)

Lymphocyte-depleted HL

d)

Lymphocyte-predominant HL

65.

What percentage of patients with Hodgkin's Lymphoma have mediastinal lymph node enlargement at diagnosis?

a)

75%

b)

85%

c)

98%

d)

65%

66.

Which lymph node groups are most often involved in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)?

a)

Prevascular, paratracheal, and aortopulmonary lymph nodes

b)

Cervical, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes

c)

Mesenteric, iliac, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes

d)

Submandibular, occipital, and supraclavicular lymph nodes

67.

What percentage of patients with thoracic involvement in HL show abnormal lymph nodes in imaging studies?

a)

75%

b)

85%

c)

98%

d)

65%

68.

If lymph nodes appear normal on CT imaging, what is unlikely to represent HL?

a)

Intrathoracic adenopathy

b)

Mediastinal mass

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis

69.

Which imaging technique shows prevascular anterior mediastinal lymph node enlargement and pretracheal lymph node enlargement in HL?

a)

PA chest radiograph

b)

Lateral view radiograph

c)

Contrast-enhanced CT scan

d)

MRI scan

70.

What is typical of HL in the regions of superior mediastinal lymph nodes?

a)

Lymph node enlargement

b)

Mass formation

c)

Fluid accumulation

d)

Tissue calcification

71.

Based on the diagram, which region has the highest percentage indicated for lymph node involvement?

a)

Superior Mediastinal (Paratracheal)

b)

Subcarinal

c)

Hilar

d)

Paracardiac

72.

What is the percentage of lymph node involvement in the Subcarinal region as shown in the diagram?

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

10%

73.

Which region has the lowest percentage of lymph node involvement according to the diagram?

a)

Paracardiac

b)

Subcarinal

c)

Posterior Mediastinal

d)

Superior Mediastinal (AP Window)

74.

What is the percentage of lymph node involvement in the Hilar region as indicated in the diagram?

a)

35%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

98%

75.

Which lymph node group is involved in 98% of patients with thoracic disease according to the diagram?

a)

Subcarinal nodes

b)

Superior mediastinal (prevascular) nodes

c)

Paracardiac nodes

d)

Internal mammary nodes

76.

What percentage of patients with thoracic disease have involvement of the subcarinal lymph nodes?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

5%

d)

35%

77.

Which lymph node group is involved in 5% of patients with thoracic disease?

a)

Internal mammary nodes

b)

Subcarinal nodes

c)

Paracardiac nodes

d)

Hilar nodes

78.

What is the percentage of involvement of paracardiac lymph nodes in patients with thoracic disease?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

35%

79.

Which lymph node group is involved in 35% of patients with thoracic disease?

a)

Hilar nodes

b)

Subcarinal nodes

c)

Posterior mediastinal nodes

d)

Internal mammary nodes

80.

What does the PA chest radiograph show in patients with HL involving multiple lymph node groups?

a)

Superior mediastinal widening, hilar enlargement, and nodules in the left upper lobe

b)

Normal lymph node appearance

c)

Enlarged lymph nodes only in the prevascular anterior mediastinum

d)

No visible abnormalities

81.

Which lymph node groups are visible in the prevascular anterior mediastinum in HL patients?

a)

Prevascular anterior mediastinum, pretracheal space, aortopulmonary window, subcarinal space, and both hila

b)

Only pretracheal space and subcarinal space

c)

Only aortopulmonary window and hila

d)

None of the above

82.

What percentage of HD patients with thoracic node involvement have multiple node groups affected?

a)

85%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

95%

83.

What is visible at a lower level on CT in HL patients?

a)

Paracardiac lymph node enlargement

b)

Normal lymph nodes

c)

Enlarged lymph nodes in the prevascular anterior mediastinum

d)

Subcarinal space abnormalities

84.

What is the most common lymph node group involved as a single group in nodular sclerosis HD?

a)

Paratracheal lymph nodes

b)

Prevascular lymph nodes

c)

Aortopulmonary window nodes

d)

Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes

85.

What percentage of cases with nodular sclerosis HD involve enlargement of a single node group?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

86.

What does poor definition of mediastinal masses in HL indicate?

a)

Benign growth

b)

Invasion or extension into adjacent lung

c)

Normal lymph node enlargement

d)

Absence of abnormality

87.

What is the typical contour of mediastinal masses in HL when multiple lymph nodes are involved?

a)

Spherical

b)

Elongated or lobulated

c)

Flat and smooth

d)

Irregular and spiked