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SDH and NMS True/False Worksheet

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When R_LOF alarm is reported on the SDH line board, it indicating that signals on the receive end of the line are lost.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

If 15-minute or 24-hour performance monitoring is not enabled for an NE, the NE cannot report optical-layer alarms.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The hardware version of the boards can be query on site or through the NMS.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

After a Client service trail is created in end-to-end mode on the NMS, an electrical-layer ODUk trail is automatically generated.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

When commissioning the optical power of the OSC channel, if the receiving optical power of the optical port on the OSC board is too high, fixed optical attenuators can be added to the TM port and RM port at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

If the physical fiber is not connected or is incorrectly connected, the logical fiber cannot be manually created on the NMS.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

When commissioning optical power for SDH link, ensure that the receive optical power is higher than the receiver sensitivity is enough. No margin is required.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

When there are logical fiber connections and services on the optical ports of an SDH line board that supports multiple rates, you can directly change the optical port rates on the NMS.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The cable labels should be filled in correctly and stuck reliably. They should be aligned and face to the same direction.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

If you feel resistance when installing a board, you should use ejector levers on both sides of the board to forcibly insert the board into a slot.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When installing and routing cables of transmission devices, power cables and signal cables must be routed separately.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The OTM site is an optical terminal multiplexing site. It has only one optical direction, and can add or drop multiple wavelengths.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

All boards are installed horizontally in the front of an OSN 1800 V Pro or E6616 chassis.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Twelve ODU1 signals can be multiplexed into one ODU2 signal.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Erbium-doped fiber amplifiers (EDFAs) are the commonly used amplifier in WDM systems.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

TU-12 is short for tributary unit 12. It is the standard information structure corresponding to VC-12 and locates the first-level pointer of the VC-12.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

WDM multiplexes signals of different wavelengths into the same coaxial cable for transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

SDH equipment from different vendors can be interconnected through SDH line ports with the same standard rate.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Optical transmission networks use optical fibers as the main type of transmission media. Service nodes are connected to users through optical line terminals (OLTs) and optical network units (ONUS).

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Fiber loss or fiber attenuation is the optical power reduction caused by signal absorption or scattering during transmission on an optical fiber.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Transmitting test frames does not affect normal services.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The packet service board can process the received Ethernet services at Layer 2.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The software deployment mode of NCE uses the browser/server (B/S) architecture, which is different from that of the U2000.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

In a wavelength division multiplexing system, dielectric thin film filters are used when there are only 4 to 16 wavelengths.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

1:N linear MSP can be set to single-end switching.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

If the frequency of the N401 board is 193.40 THz, the IN port of the board should be connected to the M29 optical port.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The REG electrical regeneration site and the OLA optical amplifier site cannot add or drop services.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The tributary and line boards can be configured whether FOADM or ROADM networking.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The SM, PM, and TCMi overheads on the OTN electrical layer all contains a one-byte BIP-8 field. The monitoring range of this field varies with the overhead.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

30. ESCs are widely used in DWDM systems.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which of the following statements about querying alarms on NCE is incorrect?

a)

Network-wide current alarms can be queried on NCE.

b)

Uncleared and acknowledged alarms can be queried in the current alarm list.

c)

Cleared and acknowledged alarms can be queried in the current alarm list.

d)

Network-wide historical alarms can be queried on NCE.

32.

Which of the following statements about onsite maintenance operations is incorrect?

a)

When the optical power is extremely high, an attenuator must be used to avoid damage to the optical port.

b)

When using an optical power meter to measure the optical power, you need to set an appropriate wavelength range based on the wavelengths of optical signals in the tested optical fiber or port.

c)

To prevent the input optical power of an optical power meter from being too high, an 10 dB optical attenuator must be added as long as an optical power meter is used.

d)

The air filters of cabinets and devices need to be cleaned periodically.

33.

Which of the following statements about master-slave subrack configuration of an OTN Optical NE is incorrect?

a)

Changing the master subrack to a slave subrack does not interrupt services.

b)

If you set duplicate subrack IDs, an alarm indicating a subrack ID conflict will be reported.

c)

After changing the subrack ID, you must reset the subrack to make the new subrack ID take effect.

d)

On the NMS, the master subrack and slave subracks are displayed as one NE with one NE ID and one IP address.

34.

Which of the following statements about SDH protection configuration is incorrect?

a)

The WTR time can be set only when "Revertive Mode" is set to "Revertive".

b)

When configuring MSP, you can select "Resource Sharing" or "Assigned by VC4".

c)

When creating a two-fiber bidirectional MSP ring, you can set the capacity level to STM-1.

d)

Both SNCP and MSP can be configured on a per-NE basis.

35.

Which of the following statements about SDH service creation is incorrect?

a)

SDH line boards support VC-12/VC-3/VC-4 cross-connections.

b)

Before creating a VC-12 service on a per-NE basis, you need to create a VC-4 server trail.

c)

Before using an OTN universal line board to configure SDH services, you need to create SDH virtual ports.

d)

SDH virtual ports on OTN universal line boards support VC-12/VC-3/VC-4 cross-connections.

36.

Which of the following statements about NE ID and IP address settings is incorrect?

a)

A. Changing the NE ID may interrupt NE communications and restart the NE.

b)

B. NE ID conflicts lead to NE unreachability. Therefore, the ID of each NE on the network must be unique.

c)

C. By default, the IP address of an NE is random. You do not need to change the IP address before uploading the NE as a gateway NE to NCE.

d)

D. If the IP address of the NE and that of the computer where the Web LCT is installed are in different network segments, the communication between the Web LCT and the NE is interrupted.

37.

Which of the following statements about DCN networking for Huawei optical transmission devices is incorrect?

a)

The DCN between the NMS and NEs is called an external DCN.

b)

The DCN between NEs is called an internal DCN.

c)

The communication between the NMS and the gateway NE supports the TCP/IP protocol.

d)

The communication between NEs supports only the HWECC protocol, and does not support the TCP/IP protocol.

38.

Which of the following steps is not mandatory when one OTN subrack is installed in a cabinet?

a)

Install and route power cables.

b)

Install and route optical fibers.

c)

Install boards in a subrack.

d)

Install subrack cascading cables.

39.

Which of the following statements about an E6616/OSN 1800 V Pro device is incorrect?

a)

The OTN cross-connect capacity of each slot is irrelevant to the cross-connect board.

b)

Two system control, switching, and timing boards support hot backup.

c)

A DC chassis supports a maximum of 14 service board slots.

d)

It can install optical transponder unit (OTU) boards.

40.

Which of the following Huawei optical transmission devices is an OXC all-optical switching device?

a)

OSN 9800 M24

b)

OSN 9800 M12

c)

OSN 9800 U32E

d)

OSN 9800 P32C

41.

Which of the following statements about the SL410 board is incorrect?

a)

It can access eight STM-4/STM-1 optical signals.

b)

It can process services such as VC-12, VC-3, VC-4, and VC-4-4c.

c)

It can support OTUk optical ports.

d)

It can support linear MSP.

42.

Which of the following statements about PDH board functions is incorrect?

a)

Processes path overheads at the VC-12 level.

b)

Support software loopback function.

c)

Supports PRBS test function.

d)

Not support cold reset function.

43.

Which of the following statements about the tag attributes of an Ethernet port is incorrect?

a)

If "Tag" is set to "Access", the port receives only the packets that do not contain VLAN tags.

b)

If "Tag" is set to "Access", when the packets are transmitted from the port, the VLAN tags are stripped off the packets.

c)

If "Tag" is set to "Tag Aware", the port receives only the packets that contain VLAN tags and discards the packets that do not contain VLAN tags.

d)

If "Tag" is set to "Tag Aware", the egress port checks whether the VLAN ID of a packet is the same as the default VLAN ID of the port. If yes, the egress port strips the VLAN ID from the packet and forwards the packet.

44.

Which of the following is not the purpose of VLAN assignment?

a)

Enhance security

b)

Enhance network stability

c)

Suppress broadcast

d)

Implements Layer 3 routing

45.

Which of the following statements about the common electrical-layer overheads of OTN is incorrect?

a)

The backward defect indication (BDI) signal is used to transmit the error block count status.

b)

The trail trace identifier (TTI) is used to check the connectivity of a trail

c)

The BIP-8 byte is used for bit error performance monitoring

d)

GCC0 is a general communication channel byte used for DCN communication.

46.

Which of the following statements about colored light and gray light is incorrect?

a)

Gray light has fluctuating wavelengths within a certain range.

b)

Colored light has standard wavelengths.

c)

Colored light is invisible.

d)

Gray light is visible.

47.

Which of the following statements about the features of SDH interfaces is incorrect?

a)

The signal modulation format of SDH optical ports is the scrambled NRZ code. Different countries use different scrambling modes.

b)

SDH defines unified specifications for network node interfaces, including the digital rate level, frame structure, and multiplexing method.

c)

STM-N is a higher-level synchronous transport module of SDH. The rate of STM-N is N times that of STM-1.

d)

STM-1 is the most basic synchronous transport module of SDH, and has a rate of 155.520 Mbit/s.

48.

Which of the following optical power unit conversions is correct?

a)

100mW = 10 dBm

b)

100mW = 20dBm

c)

100mW = 30dBm

d)

100mW = 100dBm

49.

Which of the following statements about optical fiber characteristics is incorrect?

a)

G.652: standard single-mode optical fiber. At 1310 nm, the dispersion is zero and the attenuation is low.

b)

G.653: At 1550 nm, the dispersion is zero and the attenuation is low. However, the non-linear effects such as four-wave mixing are serious, which restricts its application in WDM.

c)

G.654: The dispersion at 1310 nm is zero, and the loss at 1550 nm is the smallest.

d)

G.655: It is a bending loss insensitive optical fiber which are suitable for indoor cabling.

50.

Which of the following statements about wired communication is incorrect?

a)

The transmission process of wired communication is relatively stable and is slightly affected by the external environment.

b)

Wired communication features high flexibility, high mobility, and low deployment costs.

c)

Wired communication can achieve Gbps or higher transmission rates.

d)

The signal of wired communication is difficult to be interfered and has high security.

51.

Which of the following statements about the SPI logic function block is incorrect?

a)

Completes optical/electrical conversion and electrical/optical conversion.

b)

Extracts line timing.

c)

Detects the R-LOS alarm.

d)

Detects the R-LOF alarm.

52.

Which of the following statements about LCAS is incorrect?

a)

Supports dynamic bandwidth adjustment.

b)

Supports protection and recovery of failed members.

c)

Provides a fault tolerance mechanism to enhance the robustness of virtual concatenation.

d)

Uses SDH overhead bytes H4/K4 to carry control information.

53.

Which of the following boards cannot be adjusted online for single-wavelength optical power?

a)

WSMD9

b)

DWSS20

c)

M60V

d)

M48

54.

Which of the following statements about the OPU payload type is correct when PT is 20?

a)

ATM mapping

b)

GFP mapping

c)

ODU multiplexing structure

d)

Indicated unavailable

55.

Which of the following is not a major feature of SDN?

a)

Northbound openness

b)

Separation of transfer and control

c)

Southbound openness

d)

Centralized control

56.

Which of the following statements about the SDH synchronization quality level is correct if the value of the synchronization status byte S1(b5-b8) is 0010?

a)

811 recommended clock signal

b)

812 recommended clock signal of the transfer office

c)

812 recommended clock signal of the local office

d)

Synchronization equipment timing source signal

57.

When the receive side of the optical port of a line board fails to receive correct A1 and A2 bytes for five consecutive frames, which of the following alarms will be generated by the line board at the receive end?

a)

R_OOF

b)

R_LOF

c)

HP_LOM

d)

R_LOS

58.

In which position is the OPUk overhead located in the frame structure of the OTUk signal?

a)

Columns 13 and 14

b)

Columns 14 and 15

c)

Columns 15 and 16

d)

Columns 16 and 17

59.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of ASON technology?

a)

High reliability

b)

Simplified O&M management

c)

Resource sharing

d)

Vary SLAs

60.

Which of the following planes enables the optical network to automatically allocate network bandwidth and recover from self-healing?

a)

Control plane

b)

Analysis plane

c)

Management plane

d)

Transmission plane

61.

Which of the following statements about the SRV indicator on an OTN line board are correct?

a)

Steady green means that no service alarm is generated.

b)

Steady red means that a critical or major alarm is generated.

c)

Steady yellow means that a minor or remote alarm is generated.

d)

Steady orange means that the board is not powered on.

62.

Which of the following statements about adding logical boards to an NE on the NMS are correct?

a)

If a logical board is added but the physical board is not inserted, the BD_STATUS alarm will be reported.

b)

Local boards can not be automatically detected and added in batches when physical boards are not existing.

c)

Logical boards can be added manually when physical boards are not existing.

d)

The board type can be modified directly without deleting the logical board.

63.

Before commissioning the optical power of an SDH network on the NMS, which of the following commissioning steps need to be performed?

a)

Perform a protection switching test.

b)

Initially configure an NE using the Web LCT or NMS.

c)

Create and upload an NE on the NMS.

d)

Configure PDH/SDH services.

64.

Which of the following statements about commissioning instruments are correct?

a)

The OTDR can be used to test bit errors of E1 services.

b)

The SDH analyzer can be used to test the connectivity of SDH services.

c)

The optical power meter can be used to test the input and output optical power of optical ports.

d)

The Ethernet tester can be used to test the performance of Ethernet services.

65.

Which of the following statements about NCE-T functions and features are correct?

a)

The Security Management app allows users to create and delete NE accounts.

b)

The Network Management app can manage all NEs on a transmission network in a unified manner.

c)

The System Settings app connects to southbound systems and O&M interfaces of different systems.

d)

The Network Management app offers a wide range of functions for managing security, topology, alarms, performance, inventory, and NE software for NEs and entire networks.

66.

Which of the following statements about the Web LCT are incorrect?

a)

It supports NE basic parameters configuration.

b)

It provides the NE board information report.

c)

It supports network topology management.

d)

It supports service trails management.

67.

Which of the following statements about the precautions for installing and routing optical fibers are correct?

a)

Before routing an optical fiber on site, you must clean its end face and the module port.

b)

In the case of overhead cabling, the cable trough must be installed on the top of the cabinet.

c)

Cable layout should facilitate future maintenance and expansion.

d)

Idle optical ports and pigtails must be covered with dustproof plugs and dustproof caps, respectively.

68.

Which of the following statements about precautions of installing cabinets and subracks are correct?

a)

Cabinets must be arranged closely and neatly, and aligned with their tops on the same horizontal level.

b)

Vacant slots in a subrack must be clean and free of sundry items, and all filler panels must be removed.

c)

During board installation, you must ensure that the board is inserted in position, the front panel of the board is properly locked, and screws on the board are tightened.

d)

Labels are made of water-proof materials. You can use an inkjet printer to print labels or use ink pens to write on labels.

69.

Which of the following statements about an FOADM site are correct?

a)

It supports remote wavelength adjustment when working with wavelength-tunable OTU or line boards.

b)

It supports a maximum of two line directions.

c)

It can multiplexe and demultiplexe wavelengths.

d)

It can support the single-wavelength optical regeneration function.

70.

An OTN network can be divided into the access layer, aggregation layer, and backbone layer. Which of the following devices are used for the backbone layer?

a)

A. A810/C810

b)

B. E6616/OSN 1800 V Pro

c)

C. E9624/OSN 9800 M24

d)

D. E9612/OSN 9800 M12

71.

Which of the following statements about an M402D board are correct?

a)

It supports two 100G line optical ports.

b)

It is an optical transponder board.

c)

It can be installed in an optical-layer subrack.

d)

It supports VC cross-connections.

72.

Which of the following fields are part of an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame?

a)

FCS

b)

DMAC

c)

SMAC

d)

VLAN ID

73.

Which of the following statements about the OTN frame structure are incorrect?

a)

The OTUk frame size is k time of OTU1.

b)

The value of k in OTUk can be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

c)

The size of an OTUCn frame is fixed at 4 (rows) x 4080 (columns) bytes.

d)

An OTUk frame contains the FEC field.

74.

Which of the following items are part of the optical layer in the OTN hierarchy?

a)

OTS

b)

Och

c)

OTUK

75.

Which of the following statements about WDM key technologies are correct?

a)

The gain range of an EDFA OA board can be flexibly adjusted.

b)

Coherent receiving technology enables the WDM system to implement long-distance transmission without dispersion compensation.

c)

An arrayed waveguide grating (AWG) is suitable for high speed and large capacity wavelength division multiplexing systems.

d)

The electrical supervisory channel (ESC) uses overhead bytes (GCC channels) in the OTUk frames to transmit the supervisory information, without occupying extra wavelength resources.

76.

Which of the following statements about DWDM wavelengths are correct?

a)

In Super C band, 120 wavelengths can be transmitted over an optical fiber with 50 GHz channel spacing.

b)

In Super C band, 80 wavelengths can be transmitted over an optical fiber with 75 GHz channel spacing.

c)

In extended C band, 96 wavelengths can be transmitted over an optical fiber with 75 GHz channel spacing.

d)

In traditional C band, 80 wavelengths can be transmitted over an optical fiber with 50 GHz channel spacing.

77.

Which of the following statements about SDH protection are incorrect?

a)

The APS protocol needs to be enabled for a two-fiber bidirectional MS shared protection ring.

b)

The protection channels of different VC-12 SNCP services can share the same VC-12 timeslot.

c)

The principle of 1:N linear MSP is dual fed and selective receiving.

d)

1+1 linear MSP does not support single-ended switching.

78.

Which of the following statements about SDH overheads are incorrect?

a)

If the local optical port does not receive the correct A1 and A2 bytes for five consecutive frames, an R_LOS alarm will be reported.

b)

If a JO byte mismatch occurs, an HP_TIM alarm will be reported.

c)

If the bit error rate of regenerator section (RS) signals exceeds the preset alarm threshold, an FCS_ERR alarm will be reported.

d)

The S1 byte is used to transmit the synchronization status message (SSM) for clock protection switching.

79.

Which of the following statements about different types of fiber connectors are correct?

a)

LC/PC connectors are usually used for optical ports on the line-side and client-side boards of optical transmission devices.

b)

FC/PC connectors are usually used in optical distribution frames (ODFs), fiber adapters, and optical power meters.

c)

LSH/APC connectors are usually used in optical access networks and for optical ports on user-side terminal devices.

d)

SC/PC connectors are usually used in high-power incident scenarios such as Raman amplification.

80.

Which of the following statements about optical fibers are correct?

a)

Multi-mode optical fibers are usually used for long-distance transmission.

b)

The diameter of a single-mode fiber core is normally smaller than that of a multimode fiber core.

c)

Single-mode optical fibers can be used for indoor device interconnection.

d)

Multi-mode optical fibers are usually used in outdoor aerial scenarios.

81.

Which of the following statements about possible causes of TU_LOP are correct?

a)

The received bit error at the local end is too large.

b)

The cross-connection service configuration at the local end is abnormal.

c)

The transmit board at the peer end is faulty.

d)

The receive board at the local end is faulty.

82.

Which of the following statements about EDFA are correct?

a)

The EDFA performs pure optical amplification on optical signals without photoelectric conversion.

b)

The noise index, gain flatness, and gain are important parameters of the EDFA.

c)

The energy source of the EDFA is the pump light source.

d)

The energy source of the EDFA is the bait ion.

83.

Which of the following protection channels can transmit extra services?

a)

1+ 1 linear MSP

b)

1:N linear MSP

c)

Two-fiber bidirectional MSP shared protection ring

d)

SNCP

84.

Which of the following statements about Liquid OTN are correct?

a)

Fixed-length frames are used

b)

Flexible timeslot multiplexing is used.

c)

ODUs are divided into smaller broadband granularities, that is, OSU granularities.

d)

Fixed-size containers are provided.

85.

The optical spectrum analysis board is a key board for routine maintenance of WDM devices. The following indicators of optical signals can be detected online by connecting the MON port of layer board?

a)

Insertion loss

b)

Optical power

c)

Center wavelength

d)

OSNR

86.

NCE-T supports performance monitoring of various devices. Which of the following are the options?

a)

SDH

b)

WDM

c)

RTN

d)

PTN

87.

When the OTU line board works in electrical regeneration mode, it performs 3R processing on signals. Which of the following functions does the 3R function refer to?

a)

A. Reconversion

b)

B. Regeneration

c)

C. Reshaping

d)

D. Retiming

88.

Which of the following boards support Layer 2 switching?

a)

EFT8

b)

EFSO

c)

EFS4

d)

EGT2

89.

Which of the following are the basic elements of OTN networking?

a)

A. Optical power

b)

B. Dispersion

c)

C. OSNR

d)

D. Nonlinear effect

90.

OTN devices of different vendors use gray light interconnection instead of colored light. Which of the following are the main reasons?

a)

Different vendors use different FEC technologies.

b)

The common management information overhead of the optical layer is customized by each vendor.

c)

The wavelengths do not match.

d)

The colored optical modules are expensive.