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CSCA Physics 1

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The graph below represents the relationship between energy and equivalent mass from which it can be converted.

a)

c

b)

c2

c)

g

d)

g2

2.

Moving electrons are found to exhibit properties of

a)

particles, only

b)

waves, only

c)

both particles and waves

d)

neither particles nor waves

3.
Light of a single wavelength is incident on a metal.  Electrons are released. The intensity of the light is then increased.
Which of the following changes occur?
a)
Rate of electron emission: increase.
Energy of electrons: increase.
b)
Rate of electron emission: decrease.
Energy of electrons: no change.
c)
Rate of electron emission: decrease.
Energy of electrons: increase.
d)
Rate of electron emission: increase.
Energy of electrons: no change.
4.
The photoelectric effect only occurs if the light shining on the metal is:
a)
coherent.
b)
above a minimum intensity.
c)
above a minimum frequency.
d)
above a minimum wavelength.
5.

The only way to increase the number of photoelectrons emitted is by increasing the _________ of the light

a)

Intensity

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

d)

Energy

6.

The special theory of relativity was developed by......

a)

Galileo

b)

Watson

c)

Einstein

d)

De broglie

7.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

8.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

9.

What are the subatomic particles called that make up both protons & neutrons?

(a)  

10.

Which fundamental force is primarily responsible for the attraction between protons and electrons?

a)

strong

b)

gravitational

c)

electromagnetic

d)

weak

11.

A pencil submerged in a clear glass of water may appear broken or bent when observed from the side of the glass. Which of the following characteristics describes this broken or bent appearance?

a)

refraction

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

amplitude

12.
What is happening in this picture?
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
c)
Diffraction
d)
Absorption
13.
What is happening in this picture?
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
c)
Diffraction
d)
Absorption
14.

An electromagnetic wave travels through a vacuum. Which best describes the orientation of the E-Field and M-Field? (select two)

a)

M-Field is parallel to the velocity of the wave

b)

M-Field is perpendicular to the velocity of the wave

c)

M-Field is parallel to the E-Field

d)

M-Field is perpendicular to the E-Field

15.

Monochromatic light (λ=550 nm) passes through a diffraction grating with 2,000 lines per centimeter. If a screen is 1m away from the grating, determine the distance between m=0 and m=1.

a)

5.00 x 10-6 m

b)

0.115 m

c)

0.226 m

d)

0.639 m

16.

A green laser has a wavelength of 532 nm in a vacuum. What is the frequency of green light?

a)

4.55 x 1014 Hz

b)

5.64 x 1014 Hz

c)

4.55 x 1011 Hz

d)

5.64 x 1011 Hz

17.
If a wave's speed is 5m/s and it has a wavelength of 2.5m, what is it's frequency?
a)
12.5Hz
b)
2.5Hz
c)
7.5Hz
d)
2Hz
18.

What optical phenomenon involves the separation of light into different colors?

a)

total internal reflection

b)

DIFFRACTION

c)

BENDING

d)

POLARIZATION

19.
What type of image is formed in a plane mirror?
a)
Real
b)
Virtual
c)
Enlarged
d)
Small
20.
An image that you can see , but does not really exist is called which of the following?
a)
Real Image
b)
Fake Image
c)
Virtual Image
d)
Digital Image
21.
What type of image is formed when rays of light actually intersect?
a)
real
b)
virtual
c)
projected
d)
curved
22.
Compared to the object in front the lens, its image is.....
a)
inverted and smaller
b)
inverted and larger
c)
not inverted and smaller
d)
not inverted and larger
23.

During an adiabatic process, a sample of gas does 400 J of work on the environment. What change occurs with the internal energy of the gas?

a)

The internal energy increases by 400 J.

b)

The internal energy doesn't change.

c)

The internal energy decreases by 400 J.

d)

There is not enough information if we don't know how much heat was added or removed.

24.

Process B on the PV diagram is an ______________ process.

a)

adiabatic

b)

isobaric

c)

isochoric

d)

isothermal

25.

During process A, from state 1 to state 2, the temperature of the ideal gas

a)

stays the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

is half as much

26.
The first law of thermodynamics states that the change in the internal energy of a system is equal to the difference in energy transferred to or from the system as heat and
a)
mass
b)
work done
c)
force
d)
pressure
27.
Exothermic reactions...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
c)
Release Color
d)
Absorb Color
28.

An ideal gas undergoes the process below. Calculate the total work is conducted in one cycle

a)

32

b)

48

c)

52

d)

64

e)

80

29.

The work done by an ideal gas through an isochoric process from pressure P1 to P2 is ....

a)

0

b)

P1(V2-V1)

c)

P2V2

d)

( P1 - P2 )V

30.

In an enclosed area, an ideal monoatomic gas with a pressure of 2 x 106 Pa and a volume of 25 liters experiences an isobaric process, reducing the volume become 10 Liters. the gas then goes through an isobaric phase, which changes the pressure to 5 x 106 Pa, before going through an isothermic process, which restores the pressure and volume tot he original positions. The process is represented by the graph ....

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
31.

When an ideal gas expands, the amount of work it does is proportional to the change in gas pressure.

Usaha yang dilakukan oleh gas ideal Ketika mengembang sebanding dengan perubahan tekanan gas

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperature is

a)

None of these

b)

Possible by doing some external work

c)

Possible by keeping both the bodies in contact

d)

Impossible

33.
What does the "U" stand for the formula ∆U = Q + W
a)
Heat
b)
Temperature
c)
Work
d)
Internal energy
34.

Process B on the PV diagram is an ______________ process.

a)

adiabatic

b)

isobaric

c)

isochoric

d)

isothermal

35.
The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the
a)
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b)
law of heat addition
c)
principle of entropy
d)
conservation of energy
36.

In this picture, a bar slides to the right. The flux is _______ and field is induced ________.

a)

increasing, out of the page

b)

increasing, into the page

c)

decreasing, out of the page

d)

decreasing, into the page

37.

A moveable rod makes contact along two rails with a lightbulb attached. As the rod is moved to the right, the magnetic flux _________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

38.

A field of constant B = 0.5 T is enclosed by a ring with radius 2m. Which of the following is true?

a)

Flux is 2π Webers and has counterclockwise current

b)

Flux is 2π Webers and has no current

c)

Flux is 0 Webers and has clockwise current

d)

Flux is 0 Webers and has no current

39.

Which coil will have the largest flux?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.
What would happen if I move a bar magnet in and out of a coil of copper wire?
a)

Electric current would be produced in the magnet.

b)

The magnet would do nothing to the coil of wire.

c)

Electric current would be produced in the copper wire

d)

It would make the copper wire produce a magnetic field.

41.
A magnet can move in a coil of wire to produce electricity in which system?
a)
Generator
b)
Motor
c)
Magnet
d)
Transformer
42.
A magnet is moved in and out of a coil of wire connected to a high-resistance voltmeter. If the number of coils doubles, the induced voltage 
a)
quadruples
b)
doubles
c)
is the same
d)
halves
43.
What would happen if I move a bar magnet in and out of a coil of copper wire?
a)
Electric current would disappear 
b)
The magnet would explode 
c)
Electric current will flow through the wire
d)
It would produce a gravitational field
44.

____________law states that the direction of the induced current is such that it always _______ ___ the change producing it.

a)

Lenz's Law, oppose

b)

Faraday's Law, oppose

c)

Lez's Law, follow

d)

Faraday's Law, follow

45.

When a conductor is moved to cut through the magnetic flux, an _______________ is produced.

a)

induced current

b)

electromotive force

c)

electromagnetic induction

d)

internal resistance

46.

How can the Force on the current carrying conductor be reversed?

a)

Decrease the current

b)

Increase the distance between magnetic poles

c)

Swap the North and South poles.

d)

Place the conductor parallel to the magnetic field.

47.
In Flemings Left hand rule what does the thumb point in the direction of?
a)
The direction of the magnetic field
b)
The direction of the current
c)
The direction of the force (movement)
d)
None of these
48.

Are the magnetic field lines in the picture correct?

a)

Yes, because they point from north to south.

b)

No, because they point from north to south (they're supposed to go the other way).

c)

Yes, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures.

d)

No, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures (it's supposed to be on the right).

49.
A straight wire carrying a 9.0 A current is in a uniform magnetic field oriented at right angles to the wire. When 75 cm of wire is in the field, the force on the wire is 1.2 N. What is the strength of the magnetic field (B)? HINT: F=I.L.B
a)
= 0.18 N
b)
= 0.18 T
c)
= 0.18 Cm
d)
= 0.18 
50.
A beam of electrons travels at 6.0×106 m/s through a uniform magnetic field of   6.5×10−1 T at right angles to the field. How strong is the force acting on each electron? 
a)
=  6.25×10−13 N
b)
=  −6.25×10−13 N
c)
=  −6.25×10−10 N
d)
=  −6.25×10−13 M
51.

In the circuit diagram shown, each cell has an emf of 1.5V and negligible internal resistance and the resistor has a resistance of 1200 Ω. What will be the current shown on the ammeter?

a)

12 mA

b)

10 mA

c)

2.5 mA

d)

5 mA

52.

What is the total resistance of the 4 x 100 Ω resistors connected as shown in the diagram?

a)

50 Ω

b)

400 Ω

c)

200 Ω

d)

100 Ω

53.

A circuit is set up as shown in the diagram. The e.m.f. of the battery is 1.5 V and the resistance R is 2.0  Ω\Omega . Which statement below is not true about the circuit?

a)

When switch S is opened, the voltmeter reads 1.5 V.

b)

When switch S is closed, the voltmeter reads less than 1.5 V.

c)

When switch S is closed, the ammeter reads 0.75 A.

d)

When switch S is opened, the ammeter reads zero.

54.
The circuit that can determine the electromotive force of the battery is
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
55.

Calculate the internal resistance, r

a)

0.1 ohm

b)

0.2 ohm

c)

0.3 ohm

d)

0.4 ohm

56.

2 charged objects both feel a force of 200 N. If q1 becomes 3 times bigger, what is the new force

a)

203

b)

600

c)

66.7

d)

1800

57.
Which of the following labeled points is in the region with the strongest force of electric charge
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
58.
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and the glass rod becomes positively charged, what happens to the electrons?
a)
they are removed from the rod
b)
they are added to the rod
59.
What does it mean when the electric field lines are close together?
a)
the field is positive
b)
the field is negative
c)
The field is strong
d)
the field is weak
60.
A simple harmonic oscillator takes 4.8 s to undergo five complete vibrations. What is the frequency of 1cycle? 
a)
1.04 s
b)
4.8 s
c)
1/4.8 s
61.
A pendulum is 0.75 meters long and has a period of 4.17 seconds. The Pendulum is on an unknown planet.  What is the gravity of the Unknown Planet?
a)
9.8
b)
3.4
c)
1.7
d)
Greater than 9.8
62.

The amplitude and period in a SHM is 0.5 m and 0.4 s respectively. The equation of SHM will be:

a)

x=0.5 sin 5πt

b)

x=0.5 sin 4πt

c)

x=0.5 sin 2.5πt

d)

x=0.5 sin 0.8πt

63.

The acceleration of a particle in SHM is:

a)

always zero

b)

always constant

c)

maximum at amplitude

d)

maximum at the equilibrium position

64.

The maximum displacement from equilibrium of a particle is 1 m and its maximum acceleration is

1.57 m s-2. The period of the particle will be

a)

1.25 s

b)

0.63 s

c)

0.20 s

d)

5.03 s

65.

How is the gravitational force between to objects related to their mass

a)

They are directly proportional

b)

They are inversely proportional

c)

They do not affect each other

d)

They are equal

66.
If I double the mass of one object, but don't change anything else... WHat happens to the gravitational force between two objects?
a)
Doubles
b)
Quadruples
c)
Cut in Half
d)
4x Smaller
67.
If I double the distance between two objects, what happens to their gravitational Force?
a)
4x bigger
b)
4x smaller
c)
2x bigger
d)
2x smaller
68.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
69.

The clock on Big Ben has a minute hand of length 4.3 m and an hour hand of length 2.7 m. What is the ratio of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the tip of the minute hand to a point on the tip of the hour hand?

a)

1.6

b)

150

c)

230

d)

5700

70.

The combined mass of a race car and its driver is 600 kg. Travelling at constant speed, the car completes one lap around a circular track of radius 160 m in a total time of 36 s. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the car?

a)

0.17 m s-2

b)

4.9 m s-2

c)

100 m s-2

d)

2900 m s-2

71.

A bungee rope has a spring constant of 5N/m. How much a person must weighs in Newton if we want it to extend (stretch) 10m?

a)

20N

b)

22cm

c)

50N

d)

50cm

e)

21N

72.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
73.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
74.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
75.
__________ is stored energy. 
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above 
d)
All of the above 
76.
Calculate the KE of a runner that has a mass of 80 kg and is running at a velocity of 8 m/s
a)
5120 J
b)
320 J
c)
640 J
d)
2560 J
77.

A 57.0-g tennis ball is traveling straight at a player at

21.0 m/s. The player volleys the ball straight back at

25.0 m/s. If the ball remains in contact with the racket

for 0.060 0 s, what average force acts on the ball?

a)

22.6 N

b)

32.5 N

c)

43.7 N

d)

72.1 N

e)

102 N

78.

A massive tractor is rolling down a country road. In

a perfectly inelastic collision, a small sports car runs

into the machine from behind. Which vehicle experiences a larger

change in kinetic energy?

a)

The car does.

b)

The

tractor does.

c)

Their kinetic energy changes are the

same size.

d)

It could be either vehicle.

79.

A massive tractor is rolling down a country road. In

a perfectly inelastic collision, a small sports car runs

into the machine from behind. Which vehicle expe-

riences a change in momentum of larger magnitude?

a)

The car does.

b)

The tractor does

c)

Their

momentum changes are the same size

d)

It could be

either vehicle.

80.

A 10.0-g bullet is fired into a 200-g block of wood at rest

on a horizontal surface. After impact, the block slides

8.00 m before coming to rest. If the coefficient of fric-

tion between the block and the surface is 0.400, what

is the speed of the bullet before impact?

a)

106 m/s

b)

166 m/s

c)

226 m/s

d)

286 m/s

e)

none of those

answers is correct

81.

The momentum of an object is increased by a factor

of 4 in magnitude. By what factor is its kinetic energy

changed?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

e)

1

82.

According to Newton’s third law of motion, when a hammer strikes and exerts force on a nail, the nail

a)

creates a friction with the hammer.

b)

exerts an equal and opposite force on the hammer.

c)

disappears into the wood.

d)

moves at a constant speed.

83.

According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, when a hammer strikes and exerts a force on a nail, the nail

a)

disappears into the wood

b)

exerts an equal and opposite force back on the hammer

c)

moves at a constant speed

d)

moves at a constant speed

84.

A person not wearing a seat belt flies through a car window when someone slams on the breaks because the person’s body wants to remain in continuous motion even when the car stops.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

85.

If you slide a hockey puck on ice, eventually it will stop because of the friction of the ice. This is an example of which Law of Motion.

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Third Law

c)

Newton's Second Law

86.

The first law of motion states that objects at rest will stay at rest unless acted upon by an unbalanced:

a)

motion

b)

force

c)

inertia

d)

acceleration

87.
One object has twice as much mass as another object. The first object also has also twice as much...
a)
velocity
b)
gravitational acceleration
c)
inertia
d)
all of these
88.

When you are standing in a subway train and the train suddenly stops but your body continues to move forward.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

89.

Which of Newton's Laws of motion best explains why motorists should buckle up?

a)

1st law of motion

b)

2nd law of motion

c)

3rd law of motion

d)

Uniform circular motion

90.
Beau throws a baseball at 23.0 m/s at an angle of 25.0 degrees relative to the ground.If the ball was caught 42.0 m from Beau, the maximum height the ball reached
a)
2.81 m
b)
4.81 m
c)
8.81 m
d)
12.81 m
91.
At what time did runner A pass runner B?
a)
0 seconds
b)
1 second
c)
2 seconds
d)
3 seconds
92.
How much time would it take for an object to fall 4.7 meters?
a)
0.959 s
b)
4.79 s
c)
0.979 s
93.

What is the average velocity of the object between 0 and 10 seconds?

a)

6.0 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

-4 m/s

d)

0 m/s

94.
A boat travels 12.0 m while it reduces its velocity from 9.5 m/s to 5.5 m/s. What is the magnitude of the boat’s acceleration while it travels the 12.0 m?
a)
1.3 m/s2
b)
2.5 m/s2
c)
3.0 m/s2
d)
7.5 m/s2
95.
An airplane accelerates down a runway at 3.20 m/s/s
for 8 s until it finally lifts off the ground.
Determine the velocity at take-off.
a)
0.4 m/s
b)
25.6 m/s
c)
2.5 m/s

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