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airlaw 51-100

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer. When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

a)

altitude during climb

b)

altitude during descent

c)

either altitude or flight level during climb

d)

flight level during descent

2.

Altimeter setting procedures – Definitions. The Transition Level:

a)

shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

b)

is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

c)

is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.

d)

shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.

3.

Altimeter setting procedures - transition level. The transition level:

a)

is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome

b)

will be passed to aircraft by ATS units

c)

is published and updated in the NOTAM

d)

is calculated by the Pilot-in command

4.

SSR – Transponder. When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:

a)

use the word ROGER

b)

use the word WILCO

c)

read back the mode and code to be set

d)

read back the code to be set and SQUAWK IDENT

5.

ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:

a)

Class A.

b)

Class B.

c)

Class E.

d)

Class D.

6.

Air Traffic Service unit means:

a)

Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.

b)

Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

c)

Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.

d)

Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.

7.

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:

a)

Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

b)

Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

c)

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

8.

Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:

a)

Achieving separation between IFR flights

b)

Achieving separation between controlled flights

c)

Providing advisory service

d)

Providing flight Information Service

9.

A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:

a)

The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.

b)

The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.

c)

There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

d)

The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

10.

The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

a)

3 minutes.

b)

8 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

5 minutes.

11.

An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?

a)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130

b)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120

c)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70

d)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

12.

Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:

a)

have to be as indicated by ICAO council

b)

has to be the same as the underlying flight information region

c)

have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings

d)

need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

13.

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:

a)

Airspace E

b)

Airspace D

c)

Airspace B

d)

Airspace C

14.

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

a)

Airspace D

b)

Airspace B

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace A

15.

General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444). A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.

a)

a. Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

b)

b. Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over.

c)

c. Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

16.

General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

a)

The ATC.

b)

The aircraft operator

c)

The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan

d)

The pilot-in-command

17.

Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?

a)

Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.

b)

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

c)

Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.

d)

Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.

18.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:

a)

2000 feet (600 m).

b)

500 feet (150 m).

c)

1000 feet (300 m).

d)

2500 feet (750 m).

19.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:

a)

1000 feet (300 m).

b)

2000 feet (600 m).

c)

4000 feet (1200 m).

d)

500 feet (150 m).

20.

Communications Failure - Flight Procedures. You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: 'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.

a)

You continue on Heading 050.

b)

You have to return to your current flight plan route.

c)

You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.

d)

You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.

21.

Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?

a)

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

b)

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

c)

ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.

d)

You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

22.

When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:

a)

30 degrees.

b)

20 degrees.

c)

15 degrees.

d)

25 degrees.

23.

The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

a)

3.0 NM.

b)

1.5 NM.

c)

2.0 NM.

d)

5.0 NM.

24.

Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

a)

An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;

b)

Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;

c)

During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;

d)

If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

25.

A so called 'Visual Approach' can be performed:

a)

during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight of the movement area and the underlying ground;

b)

as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5.5 km or more

c)

during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;

d)

during IFR and VFR flights in VMC

26.

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?

a)

1 minute

b)

3 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

2 minutes

27.

In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?

a)

medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

b)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

c)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

d)

light aircraft behind medium aircraft - 4 minutes

28.

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

a)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

b)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

c)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

d)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

29.

In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

2 minutes

d)

1 minute

30.

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...

a)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)

ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

b)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.

c)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.

d)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport

31.

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements:

a)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries

b)

AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries

c)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

d)

AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC

32.

The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:

a)

The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P, R and D and figures

b)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

c)

The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D

d)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures

33.

The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:

a)

YELLOW

b)

RED

c)

ORANGE

d)

GREEN

34.

Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?

a)

GEN

b)

ENR

c)

MAP

d)

AD

35.

'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.

a)

Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

b)

Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

c)

Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

d)

Precision approach runways in general.

36.

Which 'code letter' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?

a)

Code letter 'D'

b)

Code letter 'F'

c)

Code letter 'E'

d)

Code letter 'C'

37.

According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of:

a)

52 m up to but not including 65 m.

b)

15 m up to but not including 24 m.

c)

24 m up to but not including 36 m.

d)

36 m up to but not including 52 m.

38.

The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:

a)

5E.

b)

6D.

c)

4F.

d)

2B.

39.

In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

a)

Above the approach slope.

b)

On or close to the approach slope.

c)

Only on the approach slope.

d)

Below the approach slope.

40.

Runway threshold lights shall be:

a)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

b)

Fixed lights green colours.

c)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

d)

Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

41.

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

a)

Fixed lights showing variable white

b)

Flashing white

c)

Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow

d)

Fixed lights, white or yellow colour

42.

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a)

Flashing green

b)

Fixed green

c)

Fixed white

d)

Flashing white

43.

The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

a)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.

b)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.

c)

The longest aeroplane maximum width only

d)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.

44.

Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:

a)

mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.

b)

information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

c)

mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

d)

information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.

45.

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?

a)

900 metres

b)

1200 metres

c)

1000 metres

d)

420 metres

46.

The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:

a)

annex 8

b)

annex 9

c)

annex 16

d)

annex 15

47.

Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE' is:

a)

X

b)

N

c)

V

d)

Y

48.

Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE' is:

a)

V

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

N

49.

Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:

a)

only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo

b)

to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

c)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights

d)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

50.

Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:

a)

prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.

b)

prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.

c)

prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design.

d)

prevention of accidents or incidents.