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TS ECET 2024 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The carpentry tool having a tapered long blade which is narrow is

a)

Key hole Saw

b)

Panel Saw

c)

Rip Saw

d)

Compass Saw

2.

Cold chisel used for forging, has an included angle of

a)

60°

b)

45°

c)

30°

d)

70°

3.

The tool used to cut a galvanised iron sheet to desired shape and size is

a)

Punch

b)

Stake

c)

Snip

d)

Hammer

4.

In a Vernier calipers, each division on main scale measures 1 mm. The Vernier scale is 49 mm long and is divided into 50 equal divisions. The least count of the Vernier calipers will be

a)

0.01 mm

b)

0.2 mm

c)

0.02 mm

d)

0.1 mm

5.

Hot working of a work piece is carried

a)

Below re-crystallization temperature of metal

b)

At melting point temperature of metal

c)

Above re-crystallization temperature of metal

d)

Below room temperature

6.

The process in which blanks of sheet metal are stretched to shape under pressure by means of a Punch and a Die is

a)

Shot peening

b)

Roll forming

c)

Roll bending

d)

Embossing

7.

The tool which is used to rap and draw patterns from the mould is

a)

Trowel

b)

Draw spike

c)

Swab

d)

Strike off bar

8.

The property of moulding sand which allows the gases and steam to escape through sand mould is

a)

Permeability

b)

Flowability

c)

Cohesiveness

d)

Refractoriness

9.

In Oxy-Acetylene welding the colours of oxygen and acetylene cylinders are

a)

Oxygen Green in colour and Acetylene Red in colour

b)

Oxygen Green in colour and Acetylene Maroon in colour

c)

Oxygen Black in colour and Acetylene Red in colour

d)

Oxygen Black in colour and Acetylene Maroon in colour

10.

The depression caused by the penetration of electric arc into the parent metal is called

a)

Bead

b)

Arc deflection

c)

Arc crater

d)

Arc blow

11.

Which one of the following methods should be used for turning internal taper only?

a)

Tailstock offset

b)

Form tool

c)

Headstock set

d)

Swiveling Compound rest

12.

The casting method adopted for making ornaments and toys from non-ferrous alloys is

a)

Tape casting

b)

Die casting

c)

Slush casting

d)

Vaccum casting

13.

Use of vacuum chamber is an essential part of the machine for

a)

Electron beam welding

b)

Laser beam welding

c)

Friction welding

d)

Thermit welding

14.

Which of the following is not a type of fusion welding

a)

Brazing

b)

Arc welding

c)

Gas welding

d)

Resistance welding

15.

In which one variant of the centrifugal casting process, the axis of rotation of the mould coincides with the axis of the casting

a)

True centrifugal casting

b)

Centrifuging

c)

Investment casting

d)

Mould casting

16.

Grinding ratio generally used in grinding wheels is

a)

100 to 200

b)

0.5 to 10

c)

30 to 40

d)

1000 to 2000

17.

A jig is commonly used on the following type of machine

a)

Milling

b)

Lathe

c)

Drilling

d)

Shaper

18.

The commonly used material for making jigs and fixture is

a)

Zinc

b)

Mild steel

c)

Copper

d)

Wrought iron

19.

The following electrolyte is used in electro-chemical machining process

a)

Brine solution

b)

Linseed oil

c)

Water

d)

Kerosene

20.

In a linear arc welding process, the heat input per unit length is inversely proportional to

a)

Welding voltage

b)

Duty cycle of the power source

c)

Welding speed

d)

Welding current

21.

Babbit metal is an alloy of

a)

Copper – Tin – Antimony

b)

Lead – Tin – Zinc

c)

Copper – Zinc – Aluminium

d)

Tungsten – Chromium – Vanadium

22.

White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

a)

Cementite

b)

Steel

c)

Flakes

d)

Spheroids

23.

The process of reduction of iron ore to pig iron is called as

a)

Normalizing

b)

Carburizing

c)

Smelting

d)

Annealing

24.

The slow and progressive deformation of a material with time at constant stress is called as

a)

Fracture

b)

Fatigue

c)

Creep

d)

Grain growth

25.

Pudling is the process of producing

a)

Pig iron

b)

Wrought iron

c)

Stainless steel

d)

Cast iron

26.

Mild steel belongs to the category of

a)

Medium carbon steel

b)

No carbon steel

c)

High carbon steel

d)

Low carbon steel

27.

The ability of a material to be flattened into sheets is called as

a)

Ductility

b)

Malleability

c)

Strength

d)

Rigidity

28.

A Blast furnace is used to produce

a)

Cast Iron

b)

Pig Iron

c)

Wrought Iron

d)

Mild Steel

29.

The resistance of a material to elastic deformation is called

a)

Ductility

b)

Hardness

c)

Stiffness

d)

Resilience

30.

Gun metal consists of

a)

68% Tin, 30% Copper, 2% Zinc

b)

78% Tin, 20% Copper, 2% Zinc

c)

10% Tin, 88% Copper, 2% Zinc

d)

40% Tin, 58% Copper, 2% Zinc

31.

Input of additive manufacturing process

a)

CNC data

b)

DNC data

c)

Production planning control data

d)

CAD data

32.

CAD/CAM is the relationship between

a)

Manufacturing and Marketing

b)

Science and Engineering

c)

Design and Marketing

d)

Design and Manufacturing

33.

CAM database system is extensively used in

a)

Numerical control part programming

b)

Jig boring

c)

Lathe

d)

Milling

34.

The following type of drive is used in robots for great speed and strength

a)

Hydraulic drive

b)

Electrical drive

c)

Pneumatic drive

d)

Mechanical drive

35.

When NC (Numerical Control) Processing is integrated with CAD systems, the association of tool paths generated with the CAD geometric model is known as

a)

Design for manufacturing

b)

DNC system

c)

Computer integrated manufacturing

d)

Associativity

36.

The diagrammatic representation of the frame work of an enterprise is called as

a)

Structure Chart

b)

Organization Chart

c)

SIMO Chart

d)

Bar Chart

37.

Line organization is also called as

a)

Project organization

b)

Matrix organization

c)

Vertical organization

d)

Military organization

38.

The managerial function that reviews performance and initiates corrective action is called as

a)

Directing

b)

Organizing

c)

Controlling

d)

Planning

39.

EOQ stands for

a)

Economic Order Quantity

b)

Ensuring Optimal Quality

c)

Every Ordered Quantity

40.

Break even point is not affected by

a)

Variable cost per unit

b)

Total fixed cost

c)

Number of units sold

d)

Sales price per unit

41.

The method in which inventory is classified according to its turnover is called

a)

Two Bin Method

b)

ABC analysis

c)

FRN analysis

d)

WED analysis

42.

The founder of world wide quality management is

a)

Juran

b)

Crossby

c)

Dr W Edwards Deming

d)

F H Taylor

43.

ISO stand for

a)

International Organization for Standardization

b)

International Sales Organization

c)

International Service Organization

d)

International Survey Organization

44.

Gantt Chart represents

a)

Weekly breakdown of production requirement

b)

Comparison between actual progress and planned progress

c)

Temporary storage in-process inventory

d)

Balance of work to be carried out

45.

Bin cards are used in keeping record of

a)

Material storage

b)

Machine utilization

c)

Entry / Exit time of workers

d)

Man power

46.

Match the following

a)

A-1,B-3,C-2,D-5

b)

A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2

c)

A-2,B-3,C-1,D-5

d)

A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

47.

What is the correct order of processes in Diesel cycle? A Isentropic expansion, B Isentropic compression, C Isobaric heat addition, D Isobaric heat rejection, E Isochoric heat addition, F Isochoric heat rejection

a)

B-C-A-F

b)

B-E-A-D

c)

B-E-A-F

d)

B-C-A-D

48.

What is the relation between rotational speed of crankshaft and rotational speed of camshaft in a 4 stroke IC engine?

a)

Rotational speed of crankshaft = 2 × rotational speed of camshaft

b)

Rotational speed of crankshaft = 1/2 × rotational speed of camshaft

c)

Rotational speed of crankshaft = rotational speed of camshaft

d)

Rotational speed of crankshaft = 4 × rotational speed of camshaft

49.

“Internal energy of gas is a function of Temperature only”, this relation is called as

a)

Charles Law

b)

Boyle’s Law

c)

Joule’s Law

d)

Regnault’s Law

50.

Stoichiometric ratio of Petrol is about

a)

17:1

b)

20:1

c)

10:1

d)

15:1

51.

In an IC engine, the linear motion of the piston is converted to rotary motion of the shaft by

a)

Flywheel

b)

Piston rings

c)

Cam mechanism

d)

Crank shaft with connecting rod

52.

The indicated power and brake power of an IC engine are 50 kW and 20 kW respectively. Its mechanical efficiency is

a)

75%

b)

40%

c)

25%

d)

33%

53.

110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system, the change in internal energy is -40 J. The amount of external work done, in Joules, is

a)

110 J

b)

150 J

c)

70 J

d)

40 J

54.

The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

a)

Pressure ratio

b)

Temperature limits

c)

Cut-off and compression ratio

d)

Volume compression ratio

55.

Which of the following has the highest calorific value in kJ/m^3

a)

Blast furnace gas

b)

Producer gas

c)

Natural gas

d)

Coal gas

56.

In case of a reciprocating air compressor, mechanical efficiency is given by

a)

Shaft horse power / Indicated horse power

b)

Frictional horse power / Indicated horse power

c)

Frictional horse power / Shaft horse power

d)

Indicated horse power / Shaft horse power

57.

With the use of intercooler in multistage compression of air compressors

a)

Total work done on compressor will be always zero

b)

Total work done on compressor decreases

c)

There will be no change in net work done on compressor

d)

Total work done on compressor increases

58.

In a gas turbine, work input to the compressor is 200 kJ/kg200\ \mathrm{kJ/kg} , while work output at turbine is 300 kJ/kg300\ \mathrm{kJ/kg} and heat supplied is 300 kJ/kg300\ \mathrm{kJ/kg} . The thermal efficiency of the gas turbine will be

a)

40 %

b)

66.66 %

c)

33.33 %

d)

60 %

59.

A jet engine in which air enters into the engine with supersonic velocity and is slowed to sonic velocity is called as

a)

Rocket engine

b)

Turbo prop

c)

Ram jet

d)

Turbo jet

60.

Steam is at a pressure of 5 bar and 200C200^{\circ}\mathrm{C} , while its saturation temperature is 150C150^{\circ}\mathrm{C} . The condition of steam is

a)

Saturated steam

b)

Superheated steam

c)

Wet steam

d)

Dry steam

61.

Which among the following is a fire tube boiler?

a)

Benson boiler

b)

Loeffler boiler

c)

Cochran boiler

d)

Babcock and Wilcox boiler

62.

For flow through a nozzle, the critical pressure ratio of steam which is initially superheated is

a)

1.3

b)

0.58

c)

0.546

d)

1.135

63.

De Laval turbine is an example of

a)

Impulse turbine

b)

50% Reaction turbine

c)

Impulse – Reaction turbine

d)

Reaction turbine

64.

The mass flow rate of steam through an impulse turbine is 3600 kg per hour. The whirl component of velocity at inlet is 800 ms–1 and at outlet is 200 ms–1, while the mean blade velocity is 400 ms–1 The power developed by the turbine is

a)

240 W

b)

240 kW

c)

400 W

d)

400 kW

65.

Vacuum in a steam condenser is 670 mm Hg and barometer reading is 764 mm Hg. If standard barometric pressure is 760 mm Hg, the condenser vacuum corrected to standard barometer is

a)

660 mm Hg

b)

674 mm Hg

c)

768 mm Hg

d)

666 mm Hg

66.

The size of a cam depends upon ______

a)

Base Circle

b)

Pitch Circle

c)

Prime Circle

d)

Pitch Curve

67.

One tonne of refrigeration is defined as

a)

The rate of heat removal from the surroundings equivalent to the heat required for melting 2 tonne of ice in a day

b)

The rate of heat removal from the surroundings equivalent to the heat required for melting 1 tonne of ice in a day

c)

The rate of heat removal from the surroundings equivalent to the heat required for melting 1.5 tonne of ice in a day

d)

The rate of heat removal from the surroundings equivalent to the heat required for melting 0.5 tonne of ice in a day

68.

Which of the following is not a desirable property of refrigerant

a)

Low freezing temperature

b)

Low specific volume

c)

High boiling point temperature

d)

High critical temperature

69.

In a vapour compression cycle, where do we find the lowest temperature?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Expansion valve

d)

Compressor

70.

Before entering the expansion or the throttle valve, a refrigerant’s condition in any vapour compression system is

a)

Very wet vapour

b)

Moist vapour

c)

Dry vapour

d)

High Pressure saturated liquid

71.

The function of a washer is

a)

To absorb shocks and vibrations

b)

To provide cushioning effect

c)

Provide smooth surface in place of rough surface

d)

To provide bearing area

72.

COP of Bell column refrigeration cycle is

a)

Greater than 2.5

b)

Less than 1

c)

Greater than 1

d)

In between 2 to 2.5

73.

For comfort air zone, what should be the Relative humidity range in percentage

a)

10-20

b)

20-30

c)

30-40

d)

40-60

74.

A vapour absorption refrigeration system

a)

COP decreases considerably with decrease in evaporator pressure

b)

Has a noisy operation

c)

Uses high grade energy

d)

Has a quiet operation

75.

Desert cooler is most suited in climate having

a)

High temperature and low humidity

b)

Low temperature and high humidity

c)

Low temperature and low humidity

d)

High temperature and high humidity

76.

The property of a fluid which offers resistance to the movement of one layer of fluid over another adjacent layer of fluid is called as

a)

Density

b)

Specific Gravity

c)

Capillarity

d)

Viscosity

77.

The type of flow in which the density of fluid changes from point to point is called as

a)

Turbulent

b)

Laminar

c)

Compressible

d)

Incompressible

78.

The line which gives the sum of pressure head and datum head of a flowing fluid in a pipe with respect to some reference line is called as

a)

Potential Line

b)

Kinetic line

c)

Hydraulic Gradient line

d)

Total Energy line

79.

Which of the following is not a minor energy loss

a)

Loss due to obstruction in pipe

b)

Friction loss

c)

Loss due to sudden expansion

d)

Loss due to pipe bend

80.

The speed at which a turbine runs when it is working under a unit head and develops unit power is called as

a)

Unit speed

b)

Specific speed

c)

Minimum speed

d)

Maximum speed

81.

The work saved by fitting an air vessel to a single acting reciprocating pump is

a)

48.8%

b)

39.2%

c)

84.8%

d)

28.9%

82.

The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

a)

NQHm3/4\dfrac{N\sqrt{Q}}{H_{\mathrm{m}}^{3/4}}

b)

NHQ3/4\dfrac{N\sqrt{H}}{Q^{3/4}}

c)

NPHm5/4\dfrac{N\sqrt{P}}{H_{\mathrm{m}}^{5/4}}

d)

NQHm5/4\dfrac{N\sqrt{Q}}{H_{\mathrm{m}}^{5/4}}

83.

The arrangement of turbines in the ascending order of the specific speed is

a)

Pelton, Kaplan, Francis

b)

Kaplan, Francis, Pelton

c)

Francis, Kaplan, Pelton

d)

Pelton, Francis, Kaplan

84.

The number of buckets on a runner of a Pelton turbine in terms of jet ratio m is

a)

15+5m

b)

15+0.5m

c)

15-5m

d)

15+5m

85.

Which of the following is an axial flow reaction turbine

a)

Pelton Turbine

b)

Reynolds Turbine

c)

Francis Turbine

d)

Kaplan Turbine

86.

In the stress-strain diagram for a mild steel under tensile test, which order among the following is correct? a) Proportional limit b) Yield point c) Ultimate stress d) Breaking stress

a)

a, b, c, d

b)

b, c, a, d

c)

a, c, b, d

d)

b, a, c, d

87.

When a load is applied to a beam, the longitudinal strain and lateral strain was found to be 2×1032\times 10^{-3} and 6×1046\times 10^{-4} respectively. Its Poisson’s ratio is

a)

3

b)

30

c)

0.3

d)

0.03

88.

Slope of stress strain curve in elastic deformation region is called as

a)

Passion's ratio

b)

Youngs modulus

c)

Ultimate stress

d)

Yield stress

89.

Moment of inertia of any body

a)

Can never be positive

b)

Is sometimes negative

c)

May be positive or negative depending upon the location

d)

Can never be negative

90.

The C.G. of a quadrant of a circle of radius r is at a distance of

a)

3r/Π from any of the axis

b)

4r/4Π from any of the axis

c)

3r/2Π from any of the axis

d)

3r/8Π from any of the axis

91.

The shape of the bending moment diagram for a uniform cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length is

a)

A straight line

b)

A hyperbola

c)

An ellipse

d)

A parabola

92.

Young's modulus of elasticity and Poisson's ratio of a material are 1.25X105 MPa and 0.25 respectively. The modulus of rigidity of the material is

a)

5X105 MPa

b)

0.5X105 MPa

c)

50X105 MPa

d)

5000X105 MPa

93.

In a cantilever beam, if the length is doubled while keeping the cross section, Young's modulus and the concentrated load acting at the free end the same, the deflection at the free end will increase by

a)

4 times

b)

6 times

c)

16 times

d)

8 times

94.

The diameter of a shaft is increased from 30mm to 60 mm with all other conditions remaining unchanged. How many times is its torque-carrying capacity increased?

a)

4 times

b)

6 times

c)

8 times

d)

16 times

95.

If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force ,then the angle between the forces (in degrees)

a)

30

b)

45

c)

60

d)

120

96.

A line shaft rotation 180 RPM is to transmit 2Π2\Pi kw. The shaft may be assumed to be made of mild steel with the allowable shear stress of 42 MPa. Determine the torque transmitted by the shaft

a)

333.33 N-m

b)

33.33 N-m

c)

999.99 N-m

d)

666.66 N-m

97.

The thickness of the rectangular sunk key is

a)

d/4

b)

d/6

c)

d/8

d)

d/6

98.

which one of the following is a flexible coupling

a)

Flange coupling

b)

Muff coupling

c)

Bushed pin type coupling

d)

split-muff coupling

99.

Which on of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into translational

a)

Bevel gears

b)

Double helical gears

c)

Worm gear

d)

Rack and pinion gears

100.

When a bolt and nut is made of mild stee, then the effective height of the nut is mad ........................the nominal diameter of the bolt.

a)

2 times

b)

0.5 times

c)

Equal to

d)

1.5times