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Networking Fundamentals Worksheet

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a PDU at the Physical layer?

a)

Bits

b)

Frames

c)

Packets

d)

Segments

2.

Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.)

a)

It manages the access of frames to the network media.

b)

It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is compatible with the network interface.

c)

It determines the best path through the internetwork.

d)

It assigns IP addresses to end devices.

3.

Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

a)

Store-and-forward

b)

Cut-through

4.

What information does the loopback test provide?

a)

The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.

b)

The network interface card is functioning correctly.

c)

The default gateway is reachable.

d)

DNS resolution is operational.

5.

Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch with a default gateway address?

a)

It is used to forward packets originating from the switch to remote networks.

b)

It enables the switch to perform routing between VLANs.

c)

It prevents broadcast storms on the local network.

d)

It assigns IP addresses to hosts automatically.

6.

What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?

a)

The EtherType field value 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.

b)

The destination MAC address is a unicast address.

c)

The frame contains a TCP segment.

d)

The TTL field indicates ARP.

7.

Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link?

a)

They are received and processed by every device on the local network.

b)

They are forwarded only by routers to remote networks.

c)

They are discarded by all devices except the destination host.

d)

They are converted into ICMP echo requests.

8.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /29 mask?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

14

d)

30

9.

What is the network address for 174.184.244.16/29? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot.)

a)

174.184.244.16

b)

174.184.244.8

c)

174.184.244.24

d)

174.184.244.32

10.

Which two things can be determined by the ping command? (Choose two.)

a)

The destination device is reachable through the network.

b)

The average time for the round-trip between source and destination.

c)

The maximum transmission unit (MTU) of the path.

d)

The MAC address of the default gateway.

11.

What is the main advantage of TCP over UDP?

a)

TCP provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data, unlike UDP.

b)

TCP offers lower latency than UDP for streaming applications.

c)

TCP uses broadcast addressing for faster delivery.

d)

TCP does not require port numbers.

12.

How many subnets will be created if you borrow 4 bits from the host portion of an address?

a)

16

b)

4

c)

8

d)

32

13.

What is the first usable host address for 192.208.112.166/27? (Write your answer in decimal format, octets must be divided with dot.)

a)

192.208.112.161

b)

192.208.112.160

c)

192.208.112.162

d)

192.208.112.190

14.

The ___ port number is associated with the originating application on the local host. The ___ port number is associated with the ___ application on the remote host.

a)

Source; destination

b)

Destination; source

c)

Source; source

d)

Destination; destination

15.

When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small-to-medium sized business?

a)

IMAP

b)

POP3

c)

SMTP

d)

FTP

16.

A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?

a)

Remote access in which data is encrypted during the session

b)

Remote access in which data is sent in clear text

c)

A protocol used only for file transfers

d)

Access limited to console-only connections

17.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information about that person?

a)

Identity theft

b)

Phishing

c)

Denial of service

d)

Eavesdropping

18.

A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug output. The technician enters the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote destination. However, no output is displayed. Which command would the technician have to enter to display log messages on a remote connection?

a)

terminal monitor

b)

logging console

c)

show debugging

d)

debug ip udp

19.

Which of the following describes the function of the SVI on a switch?

a)

The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.

b)

The SVI enables routing between autonomous systems.

c)

The SVI is used only for PoE power delivery.

d)

The SVI replaces all physical interfaces on the switch.

20.

Which TCP/IP model layer combines the OSI Data Link and Physical layers?

a)

Network Interface (Link) layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Internet layer

d)

Application layer

21.

Which type of fiber is used for long-distance, high-bandwidth communication with minimal modal dispersion?

a)

Single-mode fiber (SMF)

b)

Multimode fiber (MMF)

c)

Plastic optical fiber (POF)

d)

Copper twinax

22.

Which is a multicast MAC address?

a)

01:00:5E:00:00:FB

b)

00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E

c)

FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

d)

00:50:56:AB:CD:EF

23.

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

a)

Remote routes

b)

Directly connected routes

c)

Local interface routes

d)

Loopback routes

24.

Which three characteristics are defined by the Physical layer? (Choose three.)

a)

Encoding

b)

Physical components

c)

Signaling

d)

Path determination

e)

End-to-end flow control

25.

Which OSI layer uses MAC addresses for communication?

a)

Data Link layer (Layer 2)

b)

Physical layer (Layer 1)

c)

Network layer (Layer 3)

d)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

26.

What is the broadcast address for the subnet that includes 149.218.25.148/26? (Answer in dotted decimal format.)

a)

149.218.25.255

b)

149.218.25.191

c)

149.218.25.159

d)

149.218.25.127

27.

Arianna found a flash drive, plugged it into her laptop, and later noticed her laptop camera was active. What type of attack is described?

a)

Phishing attack

b)

Malware attack

c)

DDoS attack

d)

Social engineering

28.

George set up a simple FTP server with a weak password to share a large video. Later, IT discovered his workstation was compromised and used to upload documents to the internet. What type of attack is described?

a)

Access attack

b)

Passive reconnaissance

c)

Physical tampering

d)

Wireless interference

29.

Convert the decimal number 184 to hexadecimal.

a)

A8

b)

B8

c)

C0

d)

D4

30.

Which network feature is designed to protect data confidentiality during transmission?

a)

Compression

b)

Authentication

c)

Encryption

d)

Address translation

31.

What does the term throughput indicate?

a)

Maximum theoretical bandwidth

b)

The measure of bits successfully transferred across the media over a given period of time

c)

Latency between two endpoints

d)

Average CPU utilization of a router

32.

Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how many bits are allocated for the Subnet ID?

a)

16

b)

24

c)

32

d)

64

33.

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

a)

Nothing; configuration changes take effect after the command is entered and the Enter key is pressed

b)

Reload the device to apply the new interface address

c)

Save the running configuration to NVRAM and then reboot

d)

Disable and re-enable the interface to commit the change

34.

Which three acronyms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

a)

IANA

b)

IEEE

c)

IETF

d)

FTP

e)

DHCP

35.

Which three layers of the OSI model provide services similar to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

a)

Application layer

b)

Presentation layer

c)

Session layer

d)

Transport layer

e)

Network layer

36.

When the store‑and‑forward method of switching is in use, what part of the Ethernet frame is used to perform an error check?

a)

CRC in the trailer

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Type/Length field

d)

Preamble

37.

What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

a)

Routing packets toward the destination

b)

Encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer

c)

Path determination between networks

d)

Error detection within frames

e)

Media access control

38.

What is the network address for 149.218.25.148/26? (Answer must be in dotted-decimal notation.)

a)

149.218.25.128

b)

149.218.25.160

c)

149.218.25.192

d)

149.218.25.144

39.

What is the network address for 192.208.112.166/27? (Answer must be in dotted-decimal notation.)

a)

192.208.112.160

b)

192.208.112.128

c)

192.208.112.192

d)

192.208.112.224

40.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

a)

The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

b)

The time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination

c)

The number of devices that can share a medium

d)

The range of frequencies used by a signal

41.

Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method used in Ethernet?

a)

All network devices must listen before transmitting

b)

Devices transmit simultaneously and collisions are ignored

c)

A central controller schedules all transmissions

d)

Only full‑duplex links use CSMA/CD

42.

What message is sent by a host to check the uniqueness of an IPv6 address before using that address?

a)

Neighbor Solicitation

b)

Router Advertisement

c)

Echo Request

d)

Redirect

43.

Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

a)

CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface

b)

CDP is required for IPv4 routing to function

c)

CDP only operates on serial interfaces

d)

CDP cannot be disabled

44.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?

a)

Network layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Data Link layer

d)

Application layer

45.

Which media access control method is used in legacy Ethernet LANs?

a)

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

b)

Token passing

c)

Polling

d)

Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

46.

Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution? (Choose two.)

a)

Neighbor Solicitation

b)

Neighbor Advertisement

c)

Echo Request

d)

Router Solicitation

e)

Redirect

47.

What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

a)

It retains contents when power is removed

b)

It stores the startup configuration file

c)

It holds the current routing table

d)

It provides temporary packet buffering

e)

It stores interface MAC addresses

48.

What is the hexadecimal equivalent of 202?

a)

CA

b)

C2

c)

CB

d)

B2

49.

What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /23 mask?

a)

510

b)

512

c)

254

d)

1022

50.

By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user. What is the next step the administrator should take?

a)

Establish a theory of probable causes

b)

Verify full system functionality

c)

Document findings and actions

d)

Escalate the issue immediately

51.

Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and received an IP address of 169.254.142.52?

a)

DHCP failed and the host used APIPA

b)

DNS resolution failed

c)

NAT translation failed

d)

Default gateway is misconfigured

52.

Which layer of the OSI model establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between applications?

a)

Session layer (Layer 5)

b)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

c)

Presentation layer (Layer 6)

d)

Application layer (Layer 7)

53.

Which two modes must you enter before configuring a switch hostname? (Choose two.)

a)

Privileged EXEC mode

b)

Global Configuration mode

c)

ROM monitor mode

d)

User EXEC mode

e)

Setup wizard mode

54.

Which function is provided by the Presentation layer of the OSI model?

a)

Data translation and formatting

b)

Encryption and decryption

c)

Compression and decompression

d)

Session establishment

55.

What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?

a)

Each branch site connects to every other branch site directly

b)

Branch sites are connected to a central site through point-to-point links

c)

All sites share a single common bus segment

d)

Branch sites connect via a full mesh of redundant links

56.

During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

a)

The IP address is added

b)

The physical (MAC) address is added

c)

The port number is added

d)

The data is encrypted

57.

Which LAN topology is considered a hybrid topology?

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Extended star

d)

Mesh

58.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

a)

Crossover

b)

Straight-through

c)

Rolled (console)

d)

Shielded patch

59.

Which OSI layer segments data into smaller chunks so many different communications can be interleaved on the same network?

a)

Network layer (Layer 3)

b)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

c)

Data Link layer (Layer 2)

d)

Physical layer (Layer 1)

60.

What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

a)

Builds and maintains a MAC address table using source MAC addresses from incoming frames

b)

Routes packets based on the destination IP address

c)

Forwards frames using the destination MAC address via the MAC address table

d)

Segments networks using Layer 3 subnets

61.

Which elements are required to scale to a larger network? (Choose two.)

a)

Network documentation

b)

Adequate budget

c)

Static IP addressing only

d)

Elimination of VLANs

62.

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

They originate the data that flows through the network

b)

They provide the interface between humans and the communication network

c)

They assign IP addresses to other devices

d)

They forward frames based on MAC address tables

63.

At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

a)

Global unicast address (GUA)

b)

Unique local address (ULA)

c)

Link-local address

d)

Anycast address

64.

Which dynamic addressing method for IPv6 global unicast addresses relies solely on a DHCPv6 server for addressing information?

a)

SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration)

b)

SLAAC with DHCPv6 for other information

c)

Stateful DHCPv6

d)

Manual addressing

65.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode of a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

a)

The device prompt ends with the > symbol

b)

Only some aspects of the configuration can be viewed

c)

Full configuration changes can be made

d)

The prompt ends with the # symbol

66.

An IT staff member determines that slow communication with a company web server is caused by a computer on the internet sending a very large number of malformed web requests to the server. What type of attack is described in this scenario?

a)

Phishing

b)

Denial of Service (DoS)

c)

Man-in-the-middle

d)

Port scanning

67.

Which Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which applications are using network services on a host?

a)

Task Scheduler

b)

Data Usage

c)

Disk Cleanup

d)

System Restore

68.

Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is the subnet portion of the IPv6 address 2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555?

a)

2001:db8

b)

cafe

c)

1111

d)

2222

69.

Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?

a)

dotted decimal

b)

dotted binary

c)

hexadecimal notation

d)

CIDR prefix length

70.

What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?

a)

SMB clients can establish a long‑term connection to the server

b)

FTP always encrypts credentials and data by default

c)

SMB only transfers files in active mode

d)

FTP supports persistent file locks while SMB does not

71.

The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

a)

application

b)

presentation

c)

session

d)

transport

e)

network

72.

Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?

a)

reconnaissance

b)

access

c)

denial‑of‑service

d)

privilege escalation