wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A lab aims to differentiate breast carcinoma subtypes using immunohistochemistry. Which marker panel is most relevant?

a)

ER, PR, HER2 receptors

b)

ALT, AST liver enzymes

c)

IgE, eosinophil count

d)

HbA1c, fasting glucose

2.

Why is specificity critical when selecting antibodies for IHC?

a)

To control section thickness during microtomy

b)

To bind the intended antigen and avoid cross-reactivity

c)

To reduce microscope magnification requirements

d)

To enhance tissue fixation and dehydration speed

3.

What is the function of the secondary antibody in this workflow?

a)

Bind primary antibody and enable detection

b)

Retrieve antigens masked by fixation

c)

Block endogenous tissue enzymes

d)

Provide nuclear counterstain color

4.

Which reagent generates the visible color that marks antigen presence?

a)

Mounting medium under coverslip

b)

Counterstain applied to background

c)

Primary antibody binding the epitope

d)

Chromogen substrate reacting with enzyme

5.

What step enhances overall tissue visualization without targeting the antigen?

a)

Secondary antibody conjugate addition

b)

Counterstain applied after chromogen

c)

Antigen retrieval with heat buffer

d)

Primary antibody incubation stage

6.

Which step immediately follows embedding in a standard immunohistochemistry workflow?

a)

De-waxing in xylene or substitutes

b)

Fixation of fresh tissue samples

c)

Baking slides to promote adhesion

d)

Microtome sectioning of tissue blocks

7.

Most antibodies used in routine IHC are optimized for which fixation condition?

a)

Formaldehyde-fixed tissues

b)

Unfixed frozen tissues

c)

Alcohol-fixed smears

d)

Heat-fixed cytology slides

8.

If formaldehyde is unavailable, which risk increases most concerning antigen integrity during IHC preparation?

a)

Guaranteed overfixation artifacts

b)

Immediate epitope retrieval success

c)

Greater modification of antigen

d)

Automatic signal amplification

9.

After mounting, how are tissues further adhered to slides before staining?

a)

Air-drying overnight at room temperature

b)

Exposure to UV light for fixation

c)

Incubation at 4°C for 24 hours

d)

Baking at 60°C for a short time

10.

Which sequence best describes early slide preparation steps for IHC?

a)

Cut sections, counterstain, mount coverslip

b)

Cut sections, bake at 60°C, deparaffinize

c)

Deparaffinize, cut sections, bake at 60°C

d)

Bake at 60°C, deparaffinize, cut sections

11.

Which pair correctly lists the two general methods of antigen retrieval?

a)

pH buffering and dehydration

b)

Heat and enzyme digestion

c)

UV exposure and freeze–thaw

d)

Sonication and centrifugation

12.

Choice of antigen retrieval method should primarily depend on which factor?

a)

Availability of laboratory personnel

b)

Age of the tissue donor

c)

Color preference for the chromogen

d)

Nature of the antigen to be demonstrated

13.

A sample fixed with formaldehyde shows poor staining due to masked epitopes. What is the most appropriate first step?

a)

Skip blocking to enhance signal intensity

b)

Switch to a different chromogen system

c)

Increase secondary antibody concentration

d)

Apply antigen retrieval before primary antibody

14.

Which misconception about antigen retrieval is accurate to challenge?

a)

It replaces the requirement for proper fixation

b)

It eliminates need for blocking endogenous enzymes

c)

It permanently alters antibody affinity profiles

d)

It partially reverses fixation effects, not fully

15.

According to the visual, which protein solution is commonly used for blocking?

a)

Gelatin at thirty percent

b)

Albumin at fifty percent

c)

Casein at two percent

d)

Normal serum at ten percent

16.

Which statement best differentiates peroxide block from protein block?

a)

Targets site occupancy versus enzyme activity

b)

Both enhance chromogen polymerization

c)

Both target enzyme activity uniformly

d)

Targets enzyme activity versus site occupancy

17.

Which statement best describes how polyclonal antibodies are generated for immunohistochemistry?

a)

By recombinant expression in bacterial plasmids

b)

By injecting an animal with antigen and collecting sera

c)

By cloning a single B-cell in hybridoma culture

d)

By chemical synthesis of conserved peptide epitopes

18.

In immunohistochemistry, the primary antibody’s role is to bind directly to what target on the tissue section?

a)

Secondary antibody Fc regions on slides

b)

Chromogenic substrate molecules added later

c)

Specific antigen epitopes within the specimen

d)

Blocking buffer proteins coating the tissue

19.

Which step would immediately follow applying the primary antibody to a tissue section in a standard IHC workflow?

a)

Microscopy before any washing steps

b)

Fixation of tissue with formalin again

c)

Incubation to allow antigen–antibody binding

d)

Direct chromogen development without incubation

20.

Hybridomas used to make monoclonal antibodies are formed by fusing which types of cells?

a)

Antigen-specific B cells with myeloma cells

b)

Macrophages with epithelial tumor cells

c)

Fibroblasts with plasma cells

d)

T cells with dendritic cells

21.

In immunohistochemistry, what is the role of a primary antibody applied to a tissue section on a glass slide?

a)

Stabilize tissue fixation crosslinks

b)

Visualize antigen with chromogenic dye

c)

Block nonspecific protein binding sites

d)

Bind the target antigen present in tissue

22.

Monoclonal antibodies are generated using which production method?

a)

In vitro antigen denaturation protocols

b)

Phage display polyclonal enrichment

c)

Serum collection after animal immunization

d)

Hybridoma technology with single cell clones

23.

Which limitation is more likely when using polyclonal antibodies for immunohistochemistry?

a)

Produced only by hybridoma cloning

b)

Inability to detect damaged antigens

c)

Failure to bind any antigen epitope

d)

Higher background staining variability

24.

What is a principal limitation of the direct method?

a)

Complex optimization of multiple reagents

b)

High background from endogenous biotin

c)

Lower sensitivity due to little amplification

d)

Requires species cross-adsorbed secondaries

25.

Which pairing lists techniques associated with the indirect method?

a)

PAP/APAAP, ABC, Streptavidin–Peroxidase

b)

ELISA, Western blot, Flow cytometry

c)

Fluorescence in situ hybridization

d)

Direct immunofluorescence only

26.

Which interaction is exploited in the biotin–avidin procedure to achieve high-affinity binding in immunohistochemistry?

a)

Streptavidin with collagen

b)

Biotin with avidin binding

c)

Protein G with Fc antibodies

d)

Complement with antigen complexes

27.

Which statement best describes alkaline phosphatase as a label in immunohistochemistry?

a)

It yields red or blue precipitates with substrates

b)

It only produces black deposits with DAB

c)

It emits ultraviolet fluorescence without chromogen

d)

It cannot produce colored reaction products

28.

A lab needs a red reaction product to avoid melanin interference. Which system fits this need?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase with appropriate chromogen

b)

Peroxidase with DAB producing brown deposit

c)

Peroxidase without chromogen for clear background

d)

Lysozyme-based system generating green fluorescence