wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Psychology II EOY Review

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines psychology for scientific study?

a)

Study of brain surgery techniques only

b)

Study of astrology and personality signs

c)

Study of myths and cultural legends

d)

Study of behavior and mental processes

2.

Which feature makes psychology a science?

a)

Use of astrology charts for prediction

b)

Ignoring data to focus on beliefs

c)

Reliance on personal intuition only

d)

Systematic observation and empirical evidence

3.

In an experiment testing sleep’s effect on test scores, which is the independent variable?

a)

Classroom seating arrangement

b)

Amount of sleep each night

c)

Students’ test scores achieved

d)

Teacher’s personality traits

4.

Which option lists all five core steps in scientific research?

a)

Recruit volunteers; teach content; grade tests; present graphs; celebrate

b)

Identify question; hypothesize; design research; analyze data; conclude

c)

Brainstorm ideas; debate opinions; vote; summarize; publish

d)

Find funding; buy equipment; hire staff; advertise; report

5.

Which statement about a theory is accurate in research?

a)

Personal belief held without data

b)

Unchanging truth without testing

c)

Single anecdote about one person

d)

Broad explanation based on evidence

6.

Which sampling type aims to mirror key subgroups in a population?

a)

Volunteer sign-up sheet

b)

Convenience sample of friends

c)

Random street interviews

d)

Stratified sampling approach

7.

Why might researchers use non-human animals in studies?

a)

Control variables more precisely

b)

Provide ethical alternatives for procedures

c)

Understand biological processes

d)

Avoid collecting any empirical evidence

8.

What does a correlation coefficient of +0.8 indicate?

a)

No relationship between the variables

b)

Causal effect proven by the variables

c)

Strong positive relationship between variables

d)

Strong negative relationship between variables

9.

Which statement about correlation and causation is correct?

a)

Correlation always proves causation

b)

Correlation does not imply causation

c)

Zero correlation guarantees causation

d)

Causation means variables never co-vary

10.

Which interpretation matches a negative correlation?

a)

Variables are identical by definition

b)

Variables move in opposite directions

c)

Variables move in the same direction

d)

Variables change randomly without pattern

11.

In population terms, what is the best definition?

a)

Entire group researchers aim to study

b)

Small subset chosen for convenience

c)

Only people living in large cities

d)

Only volunteers interested in psychology

12.

Resting potential refers to which description of a neuron?

a)

Electrical charge at rest

b)

Peak action potential phase

c)

Threshold for firing signal

d)

Neurotransmitter release rate

13.

Which neurotransmitter depletion is linked to Parkinson’s disease?

a)

GABA in limbic circuits

b)

Glutamate across cortex

c)

Serotonin in brainstem

d)

Dopamine in basal pathways

14.

Which brain structure contains about 90% of neurons and coordinates movement and balance?

a)

Cerebellum in hindbrain

b)

Hypothalamus in forebrain

c)

Amygdala in limbic

d)

Wernicke’s area cortex

15.

The hypothalamus primarily regulates which functions?

a)

Hunger and thirst

b)

Temperature control

c)

Homeostasis maintenance

d)

Language production

16.

What is the main role of the corpus callosum?

a)

Processes emotional memories

b)

Regulates endocrine hormones

c)

Connects hemispheres for communication

d)

Controls arousal and attention

17.

Wernicke’s area is responsible for which function?

a)

Understanding spoken language

b)

Initiating voluntary movement

c)

Forming long-term memory

d)

Regulating circadian rhythms

18.

Reticular formation primarily controls which processes?

a)

Hunger and satiety

b)

Visual perception

c)

Arousal and attention

d)

Speech production

19.

Which gland is often called the master gland for endocrine regulation?

a)

Pineal gland output

b)

Pituitary gland actions

c)

Adrenal gland release

d)

Thyroid gland levels

20.

EEG is best described as which method?

a)

Records brain waves

b)

Measures blood glucose

c)

Maps spinal reflexes

d)

Images bone structures

21.

MRI primarily provides what type of information?

a)

Detailed structural images

b)

Real-time hormone levels

c)

Genetic sequence reads

d)

Electrical impulse speed

22.

Which hormone, produced by the pineal gland, helps regulate circadian rhythms?

a)

Thyroxine output

b)

Insulin production

c)

Melatonin secretion

d)

Cortisol release

23.

Down syndrome is caused by which chromosomal change?

a)

Trisomy 21 extra chromosome

b)

Deletion on chromosome 7

c)

Duplication of X chromosome

d)

Translocation between autosomes

24.

Behavioral genetics often uses monozygotic twins to do what?

a)

Separate genetic and environmental influences

b)

Test new psychiatric medications

c)

Measure EEG sleep patterns

d)

Train motor coordination skills

25.

Nodes of Ranvier are best defined as what?

a)

Gaps between myelin segments

b)

Ends of dendritic branches

c)

Bundles of axonal vesicles

d)

Clusters of glial nuclei

26.

Which system prepares the body for stress, such as fight or flight?

a)

Enteric digestive system

b)

Somatic motor system

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Sympathetic nervous system

27.

What is a key role of glial cells in the nervous system?

a)

Generate action potentials

b)

Support neurons structurally

c)

Provide nutrients to neurons

d)

Remove cellular waste

28.

Dualism suggests which relationship between mind and brain?

a)

Mind fully causes brain

b)

They are identical processes

c)

Brain fully causes mind

d)

They are separate entities

29.

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation primarily does what in the brain?

a)

Images white matter tracts

b)

Uses magnetic fields to stimulate cells

c)

Measures oxygen levels in cortex

d)

Records electrical waves during sleep

30.

Which set best describes REM sleep characteristics?

a)

Brain activity similar to wakefulness

b)

Dominant delta waves

c)

Rapid eye movement

d)

Muscle paralysis

31.

Sleep apnea involves which main problem during sleep?

a)

Periodic breathing pauses during sleep

b)

Daytime sleep attacks without warning

c)

Frequent vivid dreams and awakenings

d)

Sudden muscle paralysis episodes

32.

According to evolutionary theory, the primary function of sleep is to

a)

Protect organisms from environmental danger

b)

Improve memory consolidation processes

c)

Allow muscles to recover from daily strain

d)

Regulate hormone levels for growth

33.

Circadian rhythms are primarily controlled by the SCN located in the

a)

Hypothalamus region of the brain

b)

Thalamus region of the brain

c)

Cerebellum region of the brain

d)

Medulla region of the brain

34.

Ultradian rhythms are best defined as biological cycles that

a)

Occur longer than twenty-four hours

b)

Occur shorter than twenty-four hours

c)

Last about twenty-four hours each day

d)

Change only with seasonal daylight

35.

Approximately what percent of people are highly hypnotizable?

a)

About five to eight percent

b)

About forty to fifty percent

c)

About ten to fifteen percent

d)

About twenty to thirty percent

36.

The historical origin known as mesmerism was introduced by

a)

Ivan Pavlov in Russia

b)

Franz Mesmer in Europe

c)

Sigmund Freud in Austria

d)

B. F. Skinner in America

37.

Flow is best described as a state of

a)

Deep sleep without conscious awareness

b)

Calm breathing and lowered heart rate

c)

Full immersion with diminished self-awareness

d)

Heightened suggestibility under hypnosis

38.

Caffeine is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Depressant substance

b)

Hallucinogen agent

c)

Stimulant substance

d)

Opioid analgesic

39.

Tolerance develops when a person

a)

Stops responding to any dosage given

b)

Experiences stronger effects over time

c)

Needs increased dosages for same effect

d)

Needs decreased dosages for same effect

40.

Depressants primarily reduce neural activity by enhancing which neurotransmitter?

a)

Dopamine activity levels

b)

Serotonin activity levels

c)

GABA activity levels

d)

Acetylcholine activity levels

41.

Learning is best defined as

a)

An instinctual response to innate stimuli

b)

A relatively permanent change due to experience

c)

A temporary shift in behavior after sleep

d)

A genetic change passed through generations

42.

Classical conditioning involves learning through

a)

Trial-and-error with reinforcers

b)

Association between stimuli and responses

c)

Consequences applied after actions

d)

Imitation of observed behaviors

43.

Operant conditioning focuses on learning through

a)

Rhythms within sleep stages

b)

Associations between paired stimuli

c)

Consequences that follow behavior

d)

Observation of role models

44.

Which set correctly describes reinforcement and punishment?

a)

Reinforcement increases behavior

b)

Punishment decreases behavior

c)

Positive adds a stimulus

d)

Negative removes a stimulus

45.

Which stage of memory is responsible for briefly holding sensory information before it fades?

a)

Long-term memory keeps information permanently

b)

Implicit memory retains unconscious procedures

c)

Sensory memory briefly stores incoming stimuli

d)

Short-term memory holds recent details briefly

46.

What is the primary function of encoding in the memory process?

a)

Retaining information for future use

b)

Accessing information already stored

c)

Processing information into memory

d)

Discarding irrelevant information

47.

Which option best distinguishes explicit from implicit memory?

a)

Explicit is conscious facts; implicit is unconscious skills

b)

Explicit is skills; implicit is facts and events

c)

Explicit is sensory; implicit is short-term details

d)

Explicit is permanent; implicit is temporary storage

48.

About how long does short-term memory typically hold information without rehearsal?

a)

Roughly one minute

b)

Approximately five seconds

c)

About twenty seconds

d)

Around two minutes

49.

Which list contains common causes of forgetting?

a)

Rehearsal, chunking, mnemonics

b)

Decay, interference, retrieval failure

c)

Encoding, storage, retrieval processes

d)

Attention, arousal, motivation levels

50.

Which brain structure is most critical for forming new memories?

a)

Cerebellum coordinates motor movement

b)

Hippocampus supports new memory formation

c)

Amygdala manages emotional labeling

d)

Hypothalamus controls body homeostasis

51.

Which statement best connects conditioning and memory?

a)

Learned associations rely on memory processes

b)

Conditioning prevents interference effects

c)

Conditioning eliminates the need for retrieval

d)

Associations occur only in sensory memory

52.

Which description best defines motivation?

a)

Internal processes initiating and sustaining behavior

b)

External forces that reward behavior

c)

Physiological arousal without conscious appraisal

d)

Learned habits from repeated reinforcement

53.

Which options correctly differentiate intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?

a)

Extrinsic comes from internal satisfaction

b)

Intrinsic depends on social pressures

c)

Extrinsic is driven by external rewards

d)

Intrinsic is driven by personal interest

54.

According to arousal theory, people seek which outcome?

a)

Eliminate all physiological arousal

b)

Reach optimal arousal levels for tasks

c)

Increase long-term memory capacity

d)

Avoid external incentives and rewards

55.

Which components together define emotion?

a)

Behavioral expressions like facial cues

b)

Cognitive interpretation and labeling

c)

Physiological arousal via autonomic system

d)

Explicit memory for facts and events

56.

Which theory states emotion results after physiological arousal occurs first?

a)

Cannon-Bard simultaneous arousal theory

b)

Schachter-Singer two-factor appraisal

c)

James-Lange sequence from arousal to feeling

d)

Drive-reduction motivational process

57.

What distinguishes the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?

a)

Arousal reduces physiological needs

b)

Emotion follows arousal as a sequence

c)

Arousal and emotion occur simultaneously

d)

Emotion requires cognitive labeling first

58.

Which best summarizes the Schachter-Singer two-factor theory?

a)

Emotion is purely behavioral expressions

b)

Emotion occurs without physiological arousal

c)

Emotion arises only from brain structures

d)

Emotion equals arousal plus cognitive label

59.

Which brain structure is most linked to fear and aggression?

a)

Cerebral cortex controls motor reflexes

b)

Hippocampus stores emotional labels

c)

Amygdala processes fear responses

d)

Hypothalamus forms new explicit memories

60.

Which physiological responses are primarily regulated by the hypothalamus?

a)

Autonomic bodily regulation processes

b)

Facial expressions and body language

c)

Cognitive labeling of feelings

d)

Memory consolidation and retrieval

61.

Which hormones are closely tied to the stress response?

a)

Endorphin and dopamine spikes

b)

Thyroxine and oxytocin release

c)

Insulin and melatonin cycles

d)

Adrenaline and cortisol levels

62.

Which statement aligns with incentive theory of motivation?

a)

Behavior is motivated by external rewards

b)

Behavior relies on instinctive fixed actions

c)

Behavior reduces internal drives and needs

d)

Behavior seeks optimal arousal states

63.

Which perspective describes fixed-action patterns?

a)

Voluntary responses shaped by incentives

b)

Innate, automatic behaviors to specific stimuli

c)

Learned associations through repeated exposure

d)

Conscious recall of explicit experiences

64.

William James’ early instinct theory proposed what about behavior?

a)

Instincts are inherited tendencies guiding behavior

b)

Behavior is driven solely by external rewards

c)

Emotions occur simultaneously with arousal

d)

Memory depends on hippocampus and amygdala

65.

Which statement best reflects the Yerkes-Dodson Law about arousal and performance?

a)

Arousal level does not affect performance

b)

Performance improves as arousal decreases steadily

c)

Optimal performance occurs at moderate arousal

d)

Peak performance occurs at very high arousal

66.

Drive-Reduction Theory explains behavior primarily as a response to what?

a)

Learned habits reducing boredom

b)

Physiological needs creating tension

c)

External rewards increasing motivation

d)

Cultural norms shaping choices

67.

Which need appears directly above esteem in Maslow’s hierarchy?

a)

Love and belonging

b)

Physiological needs

c)

Safety needs

d)

Self-actualization

68.

Low blood glucose primarily triggers which response related to eating behavior?

a)

Metabolism speeds up quickly

b)

Hunger signals activate

c)

Satiety increases noticeably

d)

Taste sensitivity diminishes

69.

Fat cells shrink during dieting, but their number remains constant. What consequence often follows?

a)

Permanent reduction in appetite

b)

Increased likelihood of weight regain

c)

Rapid muscle gain over weeks

d)

Guaranteed long-term weight loss

70.

Which statement contrasts hostile and instrumental aggression correctly?

a)

Both depend mainly on high serotonin

b)

Hostile is goal-driven; instrumental is anger-driven

c)

Both are always planned and deliberate

d)

Hostile is anger-driven; instrumental is goal-driven

71.

Research commonly finds that women tend to be better at which social skill?

a)

Suppressing facial expressions

b)

Predicting long-term success

c)

Detecting emotional cues

d)

Ignoring nonverbal signals

72.

The facial feedback effect suggests that

a)

Emotions shape expressions only

b)

Expressions can influence emotions

c)

Cognition blocks all expressions

d)

Expressions reduce social perception

73.

Achievement motivation tends to be higher in cultures that

a)

Emphasize collective silence over goals

b)

Discourage individual success strongly

c)

Avoid competition in most settings

d)

Celebrate individual achievement explicitly

74.

Fundamental Attribution Error involves

a)

Overemphasizing personal traits over situations

b)

Ignoring both traits and situations

c)

Balancing traits and contexts fairly

d)

Overvaluing situational causes for behavior

75.

Which option best describes the False Consensus Effect?

a)

Judging people based on one positive trait

b)

Assuming your opinions are widely shared

c)

Believing others never agree with you

d)

Preferring group harmony over decisions

76.

The Halo Effect is illustrated when a teacher

a)

Rates students using peer pressure

b)

Assumes one strength implies other strengths

c)

Focuses only on situational influences

d)

Ignores attractiveness when grading

77.

Which persuasion technique starts with a small request before a larger one?

a)

Foot-in-the-door technique

b)

Door-in-the-face technique

c)

Halo effect priming

d)

Peripheral route appeal

78.

Social loafing is most likely when

a)

Groups meet only briefly once

b)

Tasks are individually monitored tightly

c)

Individuals work alone competitively

d)

Group members share responsibility broadly

79.

Groupthink tends to occur when a group

a)

Uses anonymous voting often

b)

Encourages dissent and evaluation

c)

Prioritizes harmony over decisions

d)

Invites external critiques regularly

80.

Social facilitation refers to

a)

No change in performance with observers

b)

Improved performance in presence of others

c)

Impaired performance with audiences

d)

Improved performance alone

81.

Adjusting attitudes and actions to align with others is called

a)

Social facilitation

b)

Obedience

c)

Conformity

d)

Compliance

82.

Low serotonin levels are most closely linked with

a)

Reduced aggression consistently

b)

Enhanced impulse control daily

c)

Stable mood without conflict

d)

Increased aggression tendencies

83.

Which choices are true of instrumental aggression? Select all that apply.

a)

Always results from groupthink

b)

Driven mainly by anger feelings

c)

Primarily goal-directed behavior

d)

Often includes calculated planning

84.

Which statement best reflects Vygotsky’s view of cognitive development?

a)

Language emerges after thought fully matures

b)

Genetic maturation solely drives mental growth

c)

Higher-order functions develop through cultural tools

d)

Learning unfolds independently from social interaction

85.

Which example most clearly illustrates folkways rather than mores?

a)

Driving intoxicated on local roads

b)

Cheating on taxes to avoid payment

c)

Stealing valuables from a neighbor

d)

Speaking softly in a public library

86.

Material culture is best described as which of the following?

a)

Invisible norms guiding daily behavior

b)

Physical objects like signs and monuments

c)

Spoken language shaping perception

d)

Community beliefs and shared values

87.

What is a core idea of the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis?

a)

Grammar evolves independent of cognition

b)

Culture removes linguistic constraints

c)

Language shapes thought and perception

d)

Thought determines all language structures

88.

Cultural diffusion is best defined as what process?

a)

Spread of elements from one society to another

b)

Replacement of local beliefs by foreign media

c)

Legal enforcement of strong moral norms

d)

Judging other cultures by one’s standards

89.

Hyde’s 2005 review concluded what about gender differences?

a)

Differences are nonexistent across all traits

b)

Differences are generally very small

c)

Differences are increasing each decade

d)

Differences are generally very large

90.

Research on math performance suggests which is accurate?

a)

Girls consistently outperform boys by far

b)

Minimal differences; stereotypes exaggerate gaps

c)

Large gaps exist due to ability alone

d)

Teachers create differences through grading

91.

Which set lists the typical variables used to measure socioeconomic status (SES)?

a)

Health, resilience, age

b)

Language, culture, ethnicity

c)

Personality, temperament, values

d)

Income, education, occupation

92.

The Stereotype Content Model organizes stereotypes along which dimensions?

a)

Warmth and competence

b)

Morality and legality

c)

Intelligence and creativity

d)

Power and dominance

93.

Which responsibility best fits a clinical psychologist?

a)

Assesses and treats mental disorders

b)

Evaluates custody competence in court

c)

Designs school-wide learning strategies

d)

Studies memory effects of brain injury

94.

Which career focuses on aging, health, and resilience, often in VA hospitals or nursing homes?

a)

Gero-psychologist

b)

Neuropsychologist

c)

Community psychologist

d)

Educational psychologist

95.

Which psychologist studies brain–behavior relationships, memory, and effects of injury?

a)

Neuropsychologist

b)

Clinical psychologist

c)

Community psychologist

d)

Forensic psychologist

96.

Which description best matches a community psychologist?

a)

Treats emotional disorders in hospital settings

b)

Improves instructional strategies in schools

c)

Conducts legal evaluations for court decisions

d)

Promotes social justice; prevents crime and bullying

97.

Which task is central to educational psychologists?

a)

Assessing brain injury and memory deficits

b)

Competency evaluations in legal settings

c)

Improving teaching and learning strategies

d)

Designing public health crime prevention

98.

Ethnocentrism is best defined as which practice?

a)

Spreading culture between societies

b)

Judging other cultures by one’s standards

c)

Adopting foreign norms through migration

d)

Prioritizing community welfare over self

99.

Which statement about attraction effects is accurate?

a)

Mere exposure increases attraction

b)

Bystanders are more likely to intervene

c)

Proximity decreases interpersonal liking

d)

Helping reduces personal distress only

100.

Which degree is typically required to become a licensed psychologist in most regions?

a)

Bachelor’s degree with state exams

b)

Associate’s degree with internship hours

c)

Doctoral degree such as PhD or PsyD

d)

Master’s degree with counseling hours

101.

A bachelor’s degree in psychology usually leads to which outcome regarding licensure?

a)

Does not qualify for psychologist licensure

b)

Eligible for full psychologist licensure

c)

Automatically qualifies after supervised practice

d)

Eligible only for sports psychology licensure

102.

What best describes the concept of flow in psychology?

a)

Brief distraction during complex tasks

b)

Persistent worry about performance

c)

Complete immersion and focused engagement

d)

Emotional detachment from activities

103.

Which statements correctly describe grit? Select all that apply.

a)

Avoiding challenges to reduce stress

b)

Passion sustained over extended periods

c)

Perseverance toward long-term goals

d)

Short bursts of motivation for quick wins

104.

Psychological literacy most closely means what?

a)

Memorizing famous psychology experiments

b)

Avoiding psychological advice in daily decisions

c)

Applying psychological concepts in everyday life

d)

Diagnosing mental disorders professionally

105.

Which global or domestic issues commonly involve psychologists’ expertise?

a)

Disaster response and terrorism impacts

b)

Aging population and climate change effects

c)

Community mental health crisis support

d)

Routine traffic ticket management