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Emt Quiz

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The BEST method for opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury is:

a)

Head tilt-chin lift

b)

Jaw-thrust maneuver

c)

Recovery position

d)

Finger sweep

2.

What is the normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult?

a)

8–12 breaths per minute

b)

12–20 breaths per minute

c)

20–30 breaths per minute

d)

30–40 breaths per minute

3.

Signs of inadequate breathing include:

a)

Normal chest rise and fall

b)

Nasal flaring, cyanosis, use of accessory muscles

c)

Regular respiratory rate

d)

Clear lung sounds

4.

Suctioning a patient’s airway should be done for no more than:

a)

5 seconds for adults, 10 seconds for children

b)

15 seconds for adults, 5 seconds for children

c)

15 seconds for adults, 10 seconds for children

d)

30 seconds for all patients

5.

A pocket mask is used to:

a)

Administer medications

b)

Provide positive-pressure ventilation

c)

Suction the airway

d)

Measure oxygen saturation

6.

Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for a patient in respiratory distress with adequate breathing?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Non-rebreather mask

c)

Bag-valve-mask

d)

Endotracheal tube

7.

Proper airway management includes:

a)

Assessing airway, suctioning if needed, providing ventilation or oxygen

b)

Only suctioning

c)

Only oxygen administration

d)

Performing CPR immediately without assessing airway

8.

The correct head position for a patient without suspected spinal injury is:

a)

Neutral

b)

Hyperextended

c)

Head tilt-chin lift

d)

Jaw-thrust only

9.

Signs of airway obstruction include:

a)

Speaking clearly and normal breathing

b)

Stridor, gurgling, inability to speak

c)

Regular pulse

d)

Warm, dry skin

10.

Which device is used for suctioning a patient’s mouth and oropharynx?

a)

Oropharyngeal airway

b)

Nasopharyngeal airway

c)

Suction catheter

d)

Bag-valve-mask

11.

When providing artificial ventilation, the rate for an adult is:

a)

8–10 breaths per minute

b)

12–20 breaths per minute

c)

20–30 breaths per minute

d)

30–40 breaths per minute

12.

Oxygen cylinders should be:

a)

Stored upright and secured

b)

Stored lying flat

c)

Carried loosely in the ambulance

d)

Stored near heat sources

13.

During shock, the type of shock where the heart cannot pump effectively is:

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Anaphylactic shock

14.

Early recognition of shock is MOST important because:

a)

It reduces hospital stay

b)

Early intervention can prevent irreversible organ damage

c)

It allows documentation

d)

Shock usually resolves on its own

15.

Compensated shock may present with:

a)

Hypotension and unresponsiveness

b)

Rapid pulse, anxiety, pale skin

c)

Bradycardia only

d)

Cyanosis and severe hypotension

16.

The initial treatment for most types of shock includes:

a)

Immediate surgery

b)

Oxygen, positioning, and rapid transport

c)

IV fluids for all patients

d)

CPR only

17.

Hypovolemic shock is most often caused by:

a)

Severe allergic reaction

b)

Massive blood loss or fluid loss

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Heart failure

18.

Anaphylactic shock is characterized by:

a)

Hypotension, airway swelling, and hives

b)

Rapid pulse only

c)

Bradycardia and hypertension

d)

Loss of consciousness only

19.

Neurogenic shock results from:

a)

Fluid loss

b)

Spinal cord injury

20.

Neurogenic shock results from:

a)

Fluid loss

b)

Spinal cord injury causing vasodilation

c)

Severe infection

d)

Heart attack

21.

Septic shock is caused by:

a)

Trauma

b)

Severe infection

c)

Cardiac dysfunction

d)

Allergic reaction

22.

Cardiogenic shock often presents with:

a)

Hypotension, weak pulse, and pulmonary edema

b)

Rapid pulse only

c)

Warm, flushed skin

d)

Cyanosis only

23.

Positioning a shock patient depends on:

a)

Type of shock and symptoms

b)

EMT’s preference

c)

Only supine

d)

Only sitting upright

24.

Oxygen therapy for shock patients should be:

a)

High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather if tolerated

b)

Minimal oxygen

c)

Only delivered after hospital arrival

d)

Avoided

25.

Rapid transport is essential in shock because:

a)

It improves patient comfort

b)

Definitive care is often needed to prevent organ failure

c)

It reduces paperwork

d)

EMS wants to finish the call quickly

26.

During a primary assessment, you identify a patient with severe trauma. Which is your next step?

a)

Secondary assessment

b)

Rapid transport and life-threat treatment

c)

Take vital signs only

d)

Begin documentation

27.

SAMPLE history includes:

a)

Signs, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading to injury/illness

b)

Symptoms, Anatomy, Medications, Past illnesses, Labs, Examination

c)

Signs, Airway, Mental status, Pulse, Last meal, Events

d)

Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past events, Labs, Examination

28.

The secondary assessment is primarily:

a)

Focused on identifying non-life-threatening conditions

b)

Skipped if patient is stable

c)

Only for trauma patients

d)

Only for airway assessment

29.

When assessing circulation, you check:

a)

Pulse, skin color, temperature, and capillary refill

b)

Only pulse

c)

Only blood pressure

d)

Only mental status

30.

DCAP-BTLS is used to:

a)

Assess musculoskeletal trauma

b)

Evaluate airway

c)

Determine blood pressure

d)

Assess heart rhythm

31.

The “P” in DCAP-BTLS stands for:

a)

Pain

b)

Punctures

c)

Pressure

d)

Pallor

32.

Signs of internal bleeding may include:

a)

Bruising, swelling, hypotension, tachycardia

b)

Rapid pulse only

c)

Normal vital signs

d)

Warm skin only

33.

A focused assessment should be performed:

a)

On stable patients to investigate chief complaint

b)

On all patients regardless of condition

c)

Only in trauma cases

d)

Only if requested by patient

34.

Reassessment of vital signs should be done:

a)

Once per shift

b)

At regular intervals during patient care

c)

Only during transport

d)

Only if the patient complains

35.

A patient with a head injury and altered mental status requires:

a)

Rapid transport and airway monitoring

b)

Only secondary assessment

c)

Only oxygen administration

d)

Documentation first

36.

When performing a trauma assessment, you should:

a)

Follow the head-to-toe sequence

b)

Only check vital signs

c)

Skip the primary assessment

d)

Focus only on extremities

37.

Reassessment includes:

a)

Rechecking vital signs, chief complaint, and interventions

b)

Only pulse and blood pressure

c)

Only airway assessment

d)

Documentation only