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Introduction to Supplements and Ergogenic Aids

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phrase best defines a dietary supplement in the athletic context?

a)

Whole foods consumed as part of regular meals exclusively

b)

A substance banned in all sports regardless of purpose

c)

Any prescription drug used to treat medical conditions only

d)

A product other than tobacco intended to enhance the diet

2.

Which list most accurately represents common categories included in dietary supplements?

a)

Steroids, narcotics, anesthetics, antibiotics

b)

Meats, dairy, grains, fruits, vegetables

c)

Sugars, starches, fibers, water, electrolytes

d)

Vitamins, minerals, amino acids, herbs, botanicals

3.

What is the primary purpose athletes report for using dietary supplements?

a)

To comply with mandatory league requirements

b)

To avoid hydration during long events

c)

To replace all meals with pills and powders

d)

To enhance performance in training and competition

4.

Which statement best describes ergogenic aids in relation to energy?

a)

They enhance energy utilization, including production and efficiency

b)

They decrease energy availability to conserve glycogen stores

c)

They block energy pathways to prevent overtraining fatigue

d)

They only increase appetite without metabolic effects

5.

An athlete seeks improved competition results through chemistry. Which concept fits this goal?

a)

Consuming tobacco products for stimulation

b)

Replacing training with rest-only protocols

c)

Eliminating all micronutrients from the diet

d)

Using chemical enhancers as performance aids

6.

Which statement best defines anabolic steroids in relation to testosterone?

a)

Synthetic compounds modeled after testosterone

b)

Natural vitamins unrelated to testosterone

c)

Minerals that block testosterone production

d)

Peptide hormones opposing testosterone effects

7.

What is the primary intended effect of anabolic steroids on body tissues?

a)

Enhance metabolism and build muscle

b)

Reduce metabolic rate and fat

c)

Increase bone resorption and pain

d)

Suppress immune function and fever

8.

Legally, how can anabolic steroids be obtained?

a)

Through school athletic programs

b)

Freely online without regulation

c)

Over-the-counter at pharmacies

d)

Only with a medical prescription

9.

In the year 2000 data, which grade showed the highest percentage for 'Ever used' anabolic steroids?

a)

All grades at 1.0 percent

b)

12th grade at 2.5 percent

c)

8th grade at 3.0 percent

d)

10th grade at 3.5 percent

10.

Which time frame category had the lowest percentages across grades for anabolic steroid use?

a)

Used in first semester

b)

Used in past month

c)

Used in past year

d)

Ever used lifetime

11.

Identify the correct pairing of grade and past year use percentage from the data.

a)

10th grade at 2.2 percent

b)

12th grade at 3.5 percent

c)

10th grade at 0.8 percent

d)

8th grade at 1.0 percent

12.

Which description accurately explains steroid cycling?

a)

Using steroids for set periods then pausing

b)

Combining several steroids simultaneously

c)

Microdosing steroids continuously

d)

Taking steroids only after injuries

13.

What is the rationale behind steroid stacking as described?

a)

Enhance fat loss by fasting cycles

b)

Avoid detection by reducing dosages

c)

Increase legal access through prescriptions

d)

Minimize negative effects by mixing types

14.

Which hormonal function aligns most directly with anabolic steroid effects?

a)

Promoting protein synthesis in muscle

b)

Blocking thyroid hormone signaling

c)

Stimulating insulin secretion acutely

d)

Increasing cortisol-mediated catabolism

15.

A student claims stacking guarantees safety. What is the most accurate response?

a)

Stacking aims to reduce harms but risks remain

b)

Stacking only works for short-term users

c)

Stacking eliminates all adverse outcomes

d)

Stacking is illegal so it prevents side effects

16.

Based on the presented usage data, which inference is most reasonable?

a)

10th grade shows zero reported usage

b)

Past month use surpasses lifetime use

c)

Lifetime use exceeds recent use percentages

d)

Usage trends identical across grades

17.

Why might cycling appeal to some users despite medical risks?

a)

Immediate elimination of side effects

b)

Perceived control over exposure and recovery

c)

Assured physician monitoring every cycle

d)

Guaranteed legal protection during pauses

18.

Which organ-related complication is a major side effect of anabolic steroid use?

a)

Pancreatic insufficiency

b)

Liver tumors and cancer

c)

Thyroid enlargement

d)

Splenic rupture

19.

Which cardiovascular effect is commonly associated with anabolic steroids?

a)

Peripheral vasodilation

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

20.

How do anabolic steroids typically affect cholesterol profiles?

a)

No significant change in cholesterol

b)

Increase good cholesterol, decrease bad cholesterol

c)

Decrease both good and bad cholesterol

d)

Increase bad cholesterol, decrease good cholesterol

21.

Which adolescent risk is linked to anabolic steroid use?

a)

Premature closure of growth plates

b)

Enhanced epiphyseal cartilage growth

c)

Delayed menarche onset

d)

Accelerated bone lengthening

22.

Which skin-related issue is noted among other steroid side effects?

a)

Severe acne

b)

Vitiligo patches

c)

Contact dermatitis

d)

Psoriasis flares

23.

Which male-specific consequence can result from anabolic steroid use?

a)

Gynecomastia reversal

b)

Testicle shrinkage

c)

Increased testosterone synthesis

d)

Enhanced sperm motility

24.

Which outcome reflects impaired male fertility due to steroid use?

a)

Reduced sperm count

b)

Elevated LH secretion

c)

Improved spermatogenesis

d)

Prolonged ejaculatory latency

25.

Which female-specific change may occur with anabolic steroids?

a)

Growth of facial hair

b)

Improved ovarian reserve

c)

Reduced androgen sensitivity

d)

Enhanced estrogen cycling

26.

Which vocal change in females can steroids cause?

a)

Deepening voice

b)

Pitch elevation

c)

Hoarse whisper only

d)

Loss of phonation

27.

Which mental condition is associated with anabolic steroid use?

a)

Aggression

b)

Cognitive enhancement

c)

Stable mood setpoint

d)

Mindfulness improvement

28.

Which psychological symptom indicates impaired reasoning linked to steroids?

a)

Enhanced executive function

b)

Impaired judgement

c)

Superior impulse control

d)

Improved risk assessment

29.

Growth hormone facilitates which metabolic shift?

a)

Enhances ketone body excretion

b)

Shifts amino acids to gluconeogenesis

c)

Promotes glycogen depletion preferentially

d)

Allows fat to be used for energy

30.

Which process does growth hormone enhance at the cellular level?

a)

Conversion of amino acids into protein

b)

Oxidation of proteins into ATP

c)

Storage of triglycerides in adipocytes

d)

Transport of cholesterol into bile

31.

Which serious adverse effect is associated with growth hormone misuse?

a)

Acute appendicitis

b)

Severe asthma onset

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Heart disease

32.

What is the legal status of growth hormone without medical oversight?

a)

Illegal unless by prescription

b)

Permitted with informed consent alone

c)

Legal for over-the-counter purchase

d)

Restricted only for professional athletes

33.

Which statement best describes androstenedione in humans?

a)

A vitamin synthesized only during exercise

b)

A steroid naturally produced in both sexes

c)

A peptide hormone unique to adolescent males

d)

A mineral supplement derived from diet

34.

In the body, androstenedione is converted primarily into which hormones?

a)

Adrenaline or melatonin

b)

Thyroxine or prolactin

c)

Cortisol or insulin

d)

Testosterone or estrogen

35.

What trait-related effect can androstenedione have when converted in the body?

a)

Boost immediate blood glucose levels

b)

Change or enhance sex-specific traits

c)

Improve visual acuity and night vision

d)

Increase lung capacity for endurance

36.

Which side effect reflects cross-sex characteristics from androstenedione use?

a)

Reduced aggression and calm mood

b)

Increased HDL cholesterol levels

c)

Enhanced bone length in adulthood

d)

Masculinizing effects in females

37.

Which developmental risk is associated with androstenedione exposure in youth?

a)

Delayed puberty and height increase

b)

Accelerated neural plasticity gains

c)

Premature bone growth cessation

d)

Improved dental enamel formation

38.

Which cardiovascular-related change is linked to androstenedione use?

a)

Decreased HDL and higher disease risk

b)

Elevated HDL and lower disease risk

c)

Stable HDL with neutral heart risk

d)

Variable HDL but reduced blood pressure

39.

In many sports organizations, what is the regulatory status of androstenedione?

a)

Unregulated and sold over-the-counter

b)

Permitted for off-season training only

c)

Allowed with therapeutic use exemption

d)

Banned by IOC, NCAA, NFL, and more

40.

In the United States and Canada, possession of androstenedione without a prescription is:

a)

Legal if purchased online from abroad

b)

Illegal only for professional athletes

c)

Legal for personal performance enhancement

d)

Illegal; only prescribed for chronic illness

41.

Which statement best describes creatine monohydrate in skeletal muscle?

a)

A fatty acid stored for long-term energy

b)

A peptide hormone controlling muscle growth

c)

An amino acid stored for rapid energy

d)

A carbohydrate that fuels endurance running

42.

As a supplement, creatine monohydrate is primarily used to:

a)

Improve aerobic capacity in marathons

b)

Lower blood glucose during exercise

c)

Increase skeletal muscle size and strength

d)

Reduce lactic acid production in lungs

43.

Creatine most consistently enhances performance during which exercise duration?

a)

Prolonged activities over 90 seconds

b)

Steady efforts around 60 minutes

c)

Brief high-intensity bouts under 30 seconds

d)

Ultra-endurance events over 3 hours

44.

During resistance training, creatine supplementation commonly allows athletes to:

a)

Reduce neuromuscular activation

b)

Slow recovery between sets

c)

Decrease muscle fiber recruitment

d)

Complete more repetitions per set

45.

Which scenario is least likely to benefit from creatine?

a)

Continuous cycling for 2 hours

b)

A single 1RM lift followed by rest

c)

Repeated sprints lasting 20 seconds

d)

Short maximal efforts with rest

46.

Identify the typical loading dose protocol for creatine monohydrate.

a)

2–5 g per day for one week

b)

20–25 g per day for one week

c)

30–35 g per day for one month

d)

10 g per day for two weeks

47.

After the loading phase, the common maintenance dose is:

a)

3–5 g per day for one month

b)

8–10 g per day for ten days

c)

1 g per day for six months

d)

15 g per day for two weeks

48.

What is a typical cycling recommendation after a maintenance month?

a)

Stop for one month, then reload

b)

Continue daily without any break

c)

Switch to protein for three weeks

d)

Increase to 25 g for two months

49.

Which form is creatine monohydrate commonly supplied in?

a)

Sublingual spray form

b)

Liquid injectable form

c)

Transdermal patch form

d)

Pill or powder forms

50.

Which side effect is associated with creatine use?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

Weight gain and muscle cramping

c)

Hypoglycemia and anemia

d)

Dyspnea and wheezing

51.

A key safety limitation of creatine is the lack of long-term research on:

a)

Lungs, skin, and eyes

b)

Kidneys, liver, and heart

c)

Thyroid, pituitary, and adrenals

d)

Pancreas, spleen, and colon

52.

Which mechanism best explains why creatine helps short, intense efforts?

a)

Rapid regeneration of ATP via phosphocreatine

b)

Enhanced oxygen delivery to mitochondria

c)

Reduced core temperature during workouts

d)

Increased glycogen breakdown during endurance

53.

Which statement best describes caffeine’s pharmacological class and primary action relevant to athletes?

a)

An alkaloid stimulant that increases alertness

b)

A peptide hormone that builds muscle mass

c)

A carbohydrate supplement that fuels endurance

d)

A lipid emulsifier that aids fat digestion

54.

Which common sources contribute to dietary caffeine intake for most people?

a)

Coffee, soft drinks, chocolate

b)

Lean meats, fish, eggs

c)

Yogurt, cheese, butter

d)

Whole grains, leafy greens, legumes

55.

What performance-related effects are commonly attributed to caffeine in sport contexts?

a)

Enhanced endurance and faster reaction times

b)

Greater muscle hypertrophy and joint stability

c)

Improved bone density and calcium retention

d)

Reduced lactate production and tendon elasticity

56.

Identify a likely adverse effect from excessive caffeine consumption.

a)

Sleeplessness and nervousness

b)

Weight gain and bradycardia

c)

Hypothermia and rash

d)

Anemia and slow reflexes

57.

Which set lists symptoms consistent with caffeine overuse?

a)

Muscle cramps, sore throat, ear pain

b)

Improved appetite, calm mood, clear skin

c)

Anxiety, headache, upset stomach

d)

Low blood sugar, constipation, sneezing

58.

What urine concentration threshold has the IOC used to flag caffeine as banned in competition?

a)

Above 20 mg/ml, roughly ten cups of espresso

b)

Above 5 mg/ml, roughly two energy drinks

c)

Above 2 mg/ml, roughly one cup of tea

d)

Above 12 mg/ml, roughly five cups of coffee

59.

An athlete’s pre-race plan includes energy drinks and chocolates. Which risk–benefit consideration best reflects strategic thinking with respect to caffeine?

a)

Reduced training volume versus faster hair growth

b)

Improved bone strength versus skin irritation

c)

Guaranteed victory versus minor taste preferences

d)

Potential endurance gains versus anxiety and dehydration

60.

Which organizations have banned ephedra use among athletes, as shown in the slide?

a)

WHO, CDC, and FDA

b)

NBA, MLB, and FIFA

c)

NCAA, NFL, and IOC

d)

USOC, PGA, and NASM

61.

What is the source of ephedra mentioned in the material?

a)

A shrublike plant

b)

A marine algae

c)

A fermented grain

d)

A synthetic compound

62.

Which stated purpose drives some users to take ephedra?

a)

Boost energy and aid weight loss

b)

Increase protein synthesis only

c)

Enhance flexibility without fatigue

d)

Improve hydration and electrolyte balance

63.

Which side effect listed reflects cardiovascular strain from ephedra?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Constipation

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Thyroid enlargement

64.

Which combination best represents neurologic adverse effects attributed to ephedra?

a)

Rash, hives, pruritus

b)

Tremors, seizures, neuropathy

c)

Anemia, bruising, pallor

d)

Cataracts, blurred vision, floaters

65.

Which severe outcome is explicitly associated with ephedra use?

a)

Liver spots and bruises

b)

Kidney stones only

c)

Allergic rhinitis alone

d)

Heart attacks and death

66.

Which scenario shows why sport governing bodies classify ephedra as a banned stimulant?

a)

It is an essential nutrient for athletes

b)

It artificially increases energy and performance

c)

It primarily treats infections safely

d)

It improves joint cartilage thickness

67.

Which set lists individuals tied to ephedra-related incidents as presented?

a)

Florence Nightingale, Jonas Salk, Alan Turing

b)

Usain Bolt, Serena Williams, Michael Phelps

c)

Steve Bechler, Krissy Taylor, Korey Stringer

d)

Albert Einstein, Marie Curie, Neil Armstrong

68.

Which statement best describes the role of vitamins in energy metabolism?

a)

They release energy from carbs and fats

b)

They build muscle tissue independently

c)

They convert minerals into calories

d)

They directly supply energy to cells

69.

A healthy adult with a balanced diet typically needs what regarding vitamin intake?

a)

Adequate vitamins provided by diet

b)

Only vitamins from herbal extracts

c)

No vitamins from food sources

d)

High-dose synthetic vitamin stacks

70.

How does the body treat natural versus synthetic vitamins?

a)

Uses synthetic, ignores natural completely

b)

Stores natural, burns synthetic for fuel

c)

Uses natural, excretes synthetic quickly

d)

Uses both in the same physiological way

71.

Which condition is most likely curable by vitamins alone?

a)

Disorders from vitamin deficiencies

b)

Viral infections causing fatigue

c)

Autoimmune diseases of joints

d)

Muscle strains from overtraining

72.

What is the most appropriate step before starting concentrated vitamin supplementation?

a)

Consult a doctor and nutritionist

b)

Follow influencer recommendations

c)

Choose the most expensive brand

d)

Double the standard daily dose

73.

Which statement accurately characterizes minerals in nutrition?

a)

Inorganic regulators aiding energy production

b)

Herbal derivatives replacing carbohydrates

c)

Organic molecules providing direct energy

d)

Synthetic compounds building lean muscle

74.

Why is caution advised with concentrated mineral supplements?

a)

They are tightly regulated by the FDA

b)

They replace the need for dietary fats

c)

They are always ineffective for athletes

d)

They should be used under medical supervision

75.

Which feature best reflects current issues with herbal supplements?

a)

Guaranteed therapeutic dosing standards

b)

No FDA regulation of most products

c)

Uniform composition among manufacturers

d)

Proven effectiveness across all products

76.

Which statement best describes glucosamine’s physiological role?

a)

Supports cartilage integrity in synovial joints

b)

Enhances bone mineral density in long bones

c)

Stimulates ligament collagen cross-linking directly

d)

Increases muscle protein synthesis post exercise

77.

A patient with osteoarthritis seeks non-prescription support. Which supplement has evidence for treating osteoarthritis?

a)

Neither supplement shows treatment evidence

b)

Only glucosamine shows treatment evidence

c)

Glucosamine and chondroitin both show treatment evidence

d)

Only chondroitin shows treatment evidence

78.

Which side effect profile is most consistent with glucosamine use?

a)

Bradycardia, hypotension, syncope

b)

Insomnia, agitation, tremor

c)

Rash, photosensitivity, urticaria

d)

Diarrhea, heartburn, gastrointestinal discomfort

79.

Which patient should avoid self-initiating glucosamine without medical advice?

a)

Diabetic or with heart disease, due to cautions

b)

Athlete using whey protein, due to redundancy

c)

Healthy adult without comorbidities, due to age

d)

Asthmatic on inhaled steroids, due to interactions

80.

Before starting chondroitin, which scenario requires consulting a physician first?

a)

Current anticoagulant therapy increases bleeding risk

b)

Daily multivitamin use reduces absorption

c)

High-protein diet alters supplement efficacy

d)

Regular caffeine intake causes tachycardia