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Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phrase best labels the topic introduced on this slide?

a)

Marketing Strategies

b)

Operational Finance

c)

Organizational Change

d)

Human Resource Planning

2.

If this slide is the start of a lesson, what theme should subsequent slides most likely explore?

a)

Capital Budgeting Techniques

b)

International Trade Policies

c)

Consumer Behavior Models

d)

Managing Organizational Change

3.

Which area of business is most directly connected to the title shown?

a)

Retail pricing and discounts

b)

Intellectual property litigation

c)

Macroeconomic stabilization policy

d)

Change management and development

4.

Given the title displayed, which concept is least likely to be the primary focus?

a)

Lean process improvement cycles

b)

Foreign exchange rate forecasting

c)

Employee resistance and adoption

d)

Mergers and restructuring impacts

5.

Which statement best fits a concise definition of the title topic?

a)

Legal procedures for forming partnerships

b)

Short-term promotions to boost seasonal sales

c)

Planned or emergent shifts in structures and processes

d)

Techniques for valuing derivative portfolios

6.

Which managerial role is most responsible for initiatives implied by the title?

a)

Procurement tactical buying

b)

Change management leadership

c)

Advertising copywriting team

d)

Treasury cash operations

7.

Which outcome is commonly targeted when addressing the topic shown?

a)

Improved adaptability and performance

b)

Higher tariff protection levels

c)

Increased celebrity endorsements

d)

Expanded natural resource rights

8.

Which challenge typically accompanies the area named in the slide?

a)

Seasonality in retail foot traffic

b)

Employee resistance to new practices

c)

Patent expiration in pharmaceuticals

d)

Liquidity traps in monetary policy

9.

Which tool is most relevant to the topic indicated by the slide title?

a)

Kotter’s eight-step framework

b)

EOQ inventory optimization

c)

Black–Scholes pricing model

d)

Porter’s five forces analysis

10.

Which metric would most directly evaluate initiatives related to the title?

a)

Change adoption rate by employees

b)

Nominal GDP growth percentage

c)

Click-through rate in ads

d)

Days sales outstanding ratio

11.

Which force for organizational change is associated with greater workforce diversity in multinational companies?

a)

Technological advancements in business

b)

Global competition pressures

c)

Economic shocks and recessions

d)

Nature of the workforce changes

12.

Which example best illustrates technology as a driver of organizational change?

a)

Responding to a global recession

b)

Hiring more diverse employees

c)

Exiting markets due to tariffs

d)

Adopting mobile e-communications

13.

Economic shocks can trigger rapid change. Which event on the slide exemplifies this?

a)

Rise of remote emails

b)

Baby boom retirements

c)

Economic crisis in 2008

d)

Internationalisation trends

14.

Competition as a force for change is most closely tied to which concept?

a)

Domestic protectionist policies

b)

Global marketplace internationalisation

c)

Internal training standardisation

d)

Vertical integration decisions

15.

Which social trend listed would most likely create knowledge loss risk in organizations?

a)

Baby boom cohort retirements

b)

Millennials entering the workforce

c)

Increased part‑time employment

d)

Growing urban gig economy

16.

World politics can reshape strategy. Which example from the slide is cited?

a)

Trade wars between superpowers

b)

Brexit and global supply chains

c)

Iraq War and rising China, India

d)

Sanctions on technology firms

17.

Which statement best connects technology to operational change?

a)

Faster, cheaper, more mobile tools

b)

Cultural resistance from teams

c)

Stricter labor compliance audits

d)

Higher interest rates on loans

18.

A multinational faces pressure to standardize products across countries. Which force for change is most relevant?

a)

Global competition dynamics

b)

Economic crisis responses

c)

Domestic political lobbying

d)

Retirement-driven turnover

19.

A firm redesigns knowledge transfer programs because many senior staff will exit soon. Which force is driving the change?

a)

Economic volatility

b)

Technological disruption

c)

Geopolitical tensions

d)

Social trends in retirements

20.

Which pair correctly matches a force for change with its example from the slide?

a)

Economic shocks – 2008 crisis

b)

Competition – tariff barriers

c)

Technology – slower communications

d)

World politics – local zoning

21.

Which statement best defines change in an organizational context?

a)

Making things different within processes

b)

Keeping operations stable over time

c)

Eliminating uncertainty in all decisions

d)

Restoring previous structures completely

22.

What characterizes planned change most accurately?

a)

Spontaneous and reactive events

b)

Proactive and purposeful activities

c)

Temporary and unstructured actions

d)

Routine and maintenance tasks

23.

Which is a primary goal of planned change?

a)

Eliminating all employee turnover

b)

Maximizing short‑term sales only

c)

Improving organizational adaptability

d)

Standardizing every task permanently

24.

Another stated goal of planned change is to:

a)

Change employee behavior

b)

Preserve existing habits

c)

Avoid training initiatives

d)

Reduce communication efforts

25.

Who are change agents in organizations?

a)

Automated software tools

b)

Frontline staff exclusively

c)

External auditors only

d)

Persons acting as catalysts

26.

Which phrase best matches an intentional, goal‑oriented activity?

a)

Passive status quo maintenance

b)

Incremental drift over time

c)

Unplanned crisis response

d)

Planned change initiative

27.

A company wants to adapt to market shifts proactively. Which approach aligns with the material?

a)

Rely on informal fixes

b)

Freeze current procedures

c)

Wait for issues to arise

d)

Implement planned change

28.

A manager facilitates cross‑department workshops and owns the change process. This role exemplifies a:

a)

Change agent in practice

b)

Policy auditor role

c)

Project sponsor only

d)

Training vendor liaison

29.

Which action best demonstrates changing employee behavior to meet new goals?

a)

Documenting current routines only

b)

Reducing feedback conversations

c)

Avoiding performance metrics

d)

Introducing coaching for new practices

30.

Which scenario most clearly shows proactive, purposeful change?

a)

Waiting until sales decline drastically

b)

Reacting ad hoc to each complaint

c)

Maintaining all policies indefinitely

d)

Launching a planned transformation roadmap

31.

Which phrase best describes the overall stance on resistance to change presented here?

a)

A natural and positive state overall

b)

An abnormal and destructive reaction

c)

A rare and situational behavior only

d)

A temporary and avoidable problem

32.

Which example illustrates overt and immediate resistance in organizations?

a)

Higher absenteeism after changes

b)

Increased minor errors over months

c)

Quietly delaying project tasks

d)

Voicing complaints and job actions

33.

Implicit and deferred resistance most likely appears as which pattern?

a)

Rapid productivity gains immediately

b)

Instant policy compliance everywhere

c)

Public protests during rollout

d)

Hidden reactions surfacing later

34.

Loss of employee loyalty and motivation is categorized as which type of resistance?

a)

Implicit and deferred form

b)

Overt and immediate form

c)

Structural and mandated form

d)

Strategic and proactive form

35.

Which outcome aligns with increased errors or mistakes after a change initiative?

a)

An implicit and deferred response

b)

A transparent and vocal response

c)

A planned and supportive response

d)

A formal and sanctioned response

36.

What effect does deferred resistance have on diagnosing change issues?

a)

Clarifies the link between source and reaction

b)

Eliminates the link between source and reaction

c)

Clouds the link between source and reaction

d)

Strengthens the link between source and reaction

37.

Which indicator best signals implicit resistance rather than overt resistance?

a)

Formal grievances filed quickly

b)

Public complaints at meetings

c)

Increased absenteeism over time

d)

Collective bargaining job actions

38.

A manager wants to spot overt resistance early. Which metric is most useful?

a)

Long-run error-rate changes

b)

Frequency of voiced complaints

c)

Trend in motivation scores

d)

Absenteeism month-to-month

39.

Why might managers misattribute the cause of performance issues during change?

a)

Deferred resistance obscures causality

b)

Motivation never changes during change

c)

Employees always resist any change

d)

Only overt reactions influence outcomes

40.

Which combined set lists only overt and immediate behaviors?

a)

Voicing complaints; engaging in job actions

b)

Higher absenteeism; increased minor errors

c)

Lower loyalty; reduced intrinsic motivation

d)

Quiet delays; limited discretionary effort

41.

Which item is shown as an individual source of resistance to change in the diagram?

a)

Structural inertia within routines

b)

Selective information processing

c)

Group inertia in departments

d)

Limited focus of change scope

42.

In the visual, which factor is explicitly listed under organizational resistance rather than individual resistance?

a)

Fear of the unknown situation

b)

Threat to established power relationships

c)

Security needs of employees

d)

Habit formed by past practices

43.

According to the figure, which pair correctly matches one individual and one organizational source of resistance?

a)

Selective processing; limited focus of change

b)

Threat to expertise; security

c)

Structural inertia; habit

d)

Economic factors; group inertia

44.

Which statement best summarizes the distinction depicted between individual and organizational resistance?

a)

Individual factors stem from policy, organizational factors from technology

b)

Individual factors are planned, organizational factors are spontaneous

c)

Individual factors arise from personal concerns, organizational factors from structures

d)

Individual factors relate to systems, organizational factors to attitudes

45.

A training initiative is opposed because team norms discourage new methods. Which source from the diagram best fits this?

a)

Selective information processing bias

b)

Security based on job contracts

c)

Threat to established resource allocations

d)

Group inertia within the unit

46.

Leadership proposes reallocating budgets toward digital tools, and department heads resist to protect current budgets. Which source applies?

a)

Threat to established resource allocations

b)

Structural inertia in formal procedures

c)

Fear of the unknown outcomes

d)

Habit formed by routines

47.

An analyst dismisses new data that contradicts their belief about a process. Which source is most relevant?

a)

Threat to expertise

b)

Limited focus of change

c)

Selective information processing

d)

Economic factors pressures

48.

Which organizational source describes resistance because formal rules and procedures are difficult to alter?

a)

Economic factors affecting pay

b)

Security needs of individuals

c)

Structural inertia embedded in systems

d)

Habit from previous roles

49.

Which individual source reflects concern about maintaining current income during change?

a)

Group inertia among peers

b)

Economic factors affecting earnings

c)

Limited focus of change scope

d)

Threat to established expertise

50.

A specialist argues that a new system will undermine their unique skills. Which listed source explains this reaction?

a)

Selective information processing bias

b)

Structural inertia in hierarchy

c)

Threat to expertise in roles

d)

Fear of the unknown context

51.

Which tactic focuses on explaining the rationale behind a change to reduce resistance?

a)

Selecting people who accept change

b)

Implementing change fairly

c)

Manipulation and cooptation

d)

Education and communication efforts

52.

Participation reduces resistance primarily because it does what?

a)

Provides direct threats and force

b)

Involves people in decision process

c)

Hires only change-friendly staff

d)

Rebrands the message for buy-in

53.

Building support and commitment typically involves which action?

a)

Counseling or new-skills training

b)

Issuing direct threats and force

c)

Relying on procedural consistency

d)

Spinning the message for buy-in

54.

Implementing change fairly emphasizes what practice?

a)

Hiring only people who like change

b)

Hiding risks while promoting benefits

c)

Using direct threats and pressure

d)

Being consistent and procedurally fair

55.

Manipulation and cooptation in change management most closely involve which approach?

a)

Applying formal rules consistently

b)

Engaging staff in joint decisions

c)

Providing therapy and skills development

d)

Spinning the message to gain cooperation

56.

Selecting people who accept change is best described as which tactic?

a)

Offering participation incentives

b)

Threatening non-compliance openly

c)

Training resisters intensively

d)

Hiring people who enjoy change

57.

Which tactic relies on power and pressure rather than persuasion or support?

a)

Building support with counseling

b)

Participation in joint decisions

c)

Education through clear explanations

d)

Coercion through threats and force

58.

A manager wants quick compliance by reframing benefits while downplaying costs. Which tactic is being used?

a)

Manipulation and cooptation

b)

Education and communication

c)

Implementing change fairly

d)

Building support and commitment

59.

To lower resistance by improving capability and confidence, which tactic is most appropriate?

a)

Coercion with explicit threats

b)

Building support and commitment

c)

Manipulation of messaging

d)

Selecting only enthusiasts

60.

A company ensures consistent procedures and transparent criteria during restructuring. Which tactic is illustrated?

a)

Coercion with force

b)

Participation in decisions

c)

Implementing change fairly

d)

Selecting enthusiasts only

61.

Which source most commonly provides the initial impetus for organizational change?

a)

Long-tenured managers in power positions

b)

Outside change agents or new employees

c)

Internal change agents within core leadership

d)

Existing power coalitions resisting initiatives

62.

Why do internal change agents often resist or feel threatened during change initiatives?

a)

Concern about loss of status in the organization

b)

Fear of increased workload without resources

c)

Uncertainty about industry regulations changing

d)

Belief that technology will replace human roles

63.

How do long-time power holders typically approach change efforts?

a)

They outsource transformation to external firms

b)

They avoid any change unless forced by law

c)

They implement incremental but not radical change

d)

They champion rapid and radical restructuring

64.

What primarily determines the speed and quality of organizational change?

a)

Market share and quarterly earnings

b)

Availability of external consultants

c)

Outcomes of internal power struggles

d)

Formal strategic planning cycle length

65.

A newly hired manager outside the main power structure proposes a process overhaul. Based on typical dynamics, which reaction is most likely from long-time power holders?

a)

Delegate full authority to the newcomer

b)

Reject any discussion about the proposal

c)

Request pilot and gradual implementation

d)

Support immediate radical adoption

66.

Which statement best contrasts internal versus external change agents in power dynamics?

a)

External agents gain status by defending hierarchy

b)

Internal agents worry about status loss during change

c)

Internal agents prefer radical redesigns of structure

d)

External agents typically reinforce existing routines

67.

In a company where two coalitions compete for influence during a transformation, which factor will most shape the final outcome?

a)

The length of employee onboarding programs

b)

The number of technology platforms in use

c)

The outcome of the power struggle between coalitions

d)

The availability of office space for teams

68.

Which scenario best illustrates incremental change favored by long-time power holders?

a)

Reorganizing all divisions into new business units

b)

Rolling out small updates to workflows quarterly

c)

Replacing the entire ERP system overnight

d)

Closing half the operations to reset strategy

69.

A CEO wants rapid transformation but faces strong internal factions. Which action most directly addresses the main determinant of change pace?

a)

Extend the annual planning horizon to five years

b)

Resolve the internal power struggle decisively

c)

Increase marketing spend for brand awareness

d)

Focus on benchmarking against competitors

70.

Which is a realistic misconception about where change impetus originates that should be avoided?

a)

It often starts with new employees or outsiders

b)

It usually arises from outside change agents

c)

It can be driven by managers outside core power

d)

It typically comes from long-time power holders

71.

Which sequence correctly represents Lewin’s change process as shown in the diagram?

a)

Unfreeze → Move → Refreeze

b)

Refreeze → Move → Unfreeze

c)

Unfreeze → Refreeze → Move

d)

Move → Unfreeze → Refreeze

72.

In Lewin’s model, what is the primary purpose of the Unfreezing stage?

a)

Reducing pressures from resistance and conformity

b)

Embedding new behaviors into culture

c)

Designing a detailed implementation plan

d)

Balancing driving and restraining forces

73.

What is emphasized during the Refreezing stage in Lewin’s framework?

a)

Stabilizing changes by balancing opposing forces

b)

Generating urgency for change initiatives

c)

Testing prototypes with pilot departments

d)

Negotiating resources with external partners

74.

A manager aims to counter group conformity before introducing new processes. Which stage is this focus aligned with?

a)

Refreezing stage activities

b)

Moving stage activities

c)

Unfreezing stage activities

d)

Termination stage activities

75.

Which activity best fits the Move stage between Unfreeze and Refreeze?

a)

Reestablishing old norms and routines

b)

Conducting only post-change evaluations

c)

Announcing the final project closure

d)

Implementing new practices and behaviors

76.

Why is balancing driving and restraining forces critical at Refreezing?

a)

It dismantles all prior structures immediately

b)

It stabilizes the new equilibrium after change

c)

It accelerates the initial urgency for change

d)

It identifies unrelated market opportunities

77.

Which statement describes a correct relationship among the stages?

a)

Moving eliminates the need for Unfreezing entirely

b)

Refreezing consolidates what Moving introduces

c)

Unfreezing formalizes the outcomes of Refreezing

d)

Refreezing precedes Unfreezing during projects

78.

A team pilots a new workflow after preparing employees and before institutionalizing it. Which stage is represented by the pilot?

a)

Refreeze phase of the change process

b)

Unfreeze phase of the change process

c)

Move phase of the change process

d)

Review phase of the change process

79.

Which outcome signals that Refreezing has been successful?

a)

New behaviors become stable and consistent

b)

Initial resistance levels sharply increase

c)

Project plan is drafted and approved

d)

Legacy systems are fully decommissioned

80.

During Unfreezing, a leader should prioritize which action?

a)

Formalizing updated policies and procedures

b)

Challenging existing norms to reduce inertia

c)

Measuring post-implementation performance

d)

Assigning permanent role definitions

81.

Which statement best defines driving forces in organizational change?

a)

Forces that ignore both change and stability

b)

Forces that hinder movement from current equilibrium

c)

Forces that maintain stability at the status quo

d)

Forces that direct behavior away from the status quo

82.

In Lewin’s model, restraining forces are best described as what?

a)

Signals that measure progress over implementation time

b)

Drivers that accelerate adoption of new behaviors

c)

Factors that hinder movement from existing equilibrium

d)

Policies that permanently replace the status quo

83.

A manager aims to shift from the status quo to a desired state. Which action most aligns with reducing restraining forces?

a)

Adding more steps to approval workflows

b)

Increasing rewards for current, familiar practices

c)

Removing bureaucratic barriers to new processes

d)

Stressing risks of change without support

84.

Which scenario illustrates driving forces increasing in an organization?

a)

Employees are warned to avoid experimenting with methods

b)

Policy mandates preserving legacy systems indefinitely

c)

Leadership communicates a compelling vision and resources

d)

Middle managers freeze budgets and hiring immediately

85.

According to force-field analysis, change occurs when which condition is met?

a)

Driving forces exceed restraining forces sufficiently

b)

Restraining forces equal driving forces precisely

c)

Both forces remain balanced at the status quo

d)

Restraining forces grow faster than driving forces

86.

On the diagram, the red dashed line moving upward over time most likely represents what?

a)

Transition from status quo toward desired state

b)

Stabilization at the initial status quo line

c)

Temporary drop below the existing equilibrium

d)

Elimination of both driving and restraining forces

87.

Which practical step reflects the unfreezing stage implied by Lewin’s slide?

a)

Locking in new procedures as the final standard

b)

Skipping analysis to accelerate implementation

c)

Creating dissatisfaction with the current performance

d)

Measuring results after all changes are refrozen

88.

A team faces strong restraining forces from informal norms. Which intervention best weakens those forces?

a)

Publicly praising adherence to old informal norms

b)

Centralizing authority without feedback channels

c)

Facilitated dialogues addressing fears and incentives

d)

Reducing training time for the new skill sets

89.

Which outcome indicates restraining forces still dominate after unfreezing efforts?

a)

Behavior stabilizes at the new performance level

b)

Metrics move steadily toward the desired state

c)

Teams adopt and improve the new processes

d)

Employees revert to old workflows after pilots

90.

When conducting a force-field analysis, which is the first step to structure the change effort?

a)

Define the desired future state and the status quo

b)

Draft sanctions for resisting the implementation

c)

Pilot solutions without diagnosing current barriers

d)

Announce timelines before mapping stakeholder forces

91.

Which step in Kotter’s plan directly focuses on creating initial momentum through visible achievements?

a)

Consolidate, reassess, and adjust

b)

Create and reward short-term wins

c)

Empower others by removing barriers

d)

Establish a sense of urgency

92.

In Kotter’s framework, what is the primary purpose of forming a coalition early in the change process?

a)

To communicate end-state metrics widely

b)

To build a guiding group with influence

c)

To design training curricula for staff

d)

To finalize budgets and capital plans

93.

Which sequence best aligns with the early stages under Lewin’s ‘Unfreezing’ phase as mapped to Kotter’s steps?

a)

Communicate vision, remove barriers, adjust plans

b)

Reward short-term wins, consolidate gains, refreeze

c)

Create a vision, empower people, reinforce changes

d)

Establish urgency, form a coalition, create a vision

94.

Creating a new vision in Kotter’s model primarily aims to do which of the following?

a)

Eliminate the need for communication

b)

Replace all managers immediately

c)

Secure final budgets and approvals

d)

Provide a clear direction for change

95.

Which action best characterizes the ‘Movement’ phase in Lewin’s model as reflected in Kotter’s steps?

a)

Establish urgency and form a coalition

b)

Refreeze processes and audit compliance

c)

Consolidate gains and reinforce changes

d)

Communicate the vision and remove barriers

96.

Empowering others by removing barriers is most effective when paired with which preceding step?

a)

Consolidating gains from early wins

b)

Establishing a new organizational chart

c)

Creating and communicating a vision

d)

Reinforcing the changes broadly

97.

Which step should logically follow ‘Create and reward short-term wins’ to sustain momentum?

a)

Communicate the vision again

b)

Consolidate, reassess, and adjust

c)

Form a larger guiding coalition

d)

Begin refreezing all procedures

98.

Which of the following best describes the ‘Refreezing’ phase as connected to Kotter’s steps?

a)

Generating urgency to destabilize routines

b)

Celebrating wins to build early support

c)

Locking in behaviors by reinforcing changes

d)

Mobilizing teams to remove obstacles

99.

A manager wants to build support for change by showing immediate progress. Which Kotter step should they prioritize first?

a)

Create and reward short-term wins

b)

Consolidate, reassess, and adjust

c)

Communicate the vision frequently

d)

Reinforce the changes organization-wide

100.

Which pairing correctly matches Kotter’s step with its primary intent?

a)

Communicate the vision – define governance bodies

b)

Form a coalition – assemble credible sponsors

c)

Create a vision – redesign compensation packages

d)

Reinforce changes – identify quick win metrics

101.

Which statement best defines action research in organizational change?

a)

A cyclical change process guided by analyzed data

b)

A financial restructuring targeting budget variances

c)

An ad hoc change driven by executive intuition

d)

A compliance program focused on policy enforcement

102.

What is the correct first step in the action research process?

a)

Evaluation measuring long‑term outcomes

b)

Action implementing chosen interventions

c)

Feedback summarizing stakeholder views

d)

Diagnosis identifying the core problem

103.

Which sequence correctly lists the middle steps of action research?

a)

Feedback then analysis before evaluation

b)

Analysis then feedback before action

c)

Evaluation then action before feedback

d)

Action then diagnosis before analysis

104.

During which step are interventions actually implemented in action research?

a)

Action implementing planned changes

b)

Diagnosis defining current conditions

c)

Analysis interpreting collected data

d)

Evaluation assessing results achieved

105.

Which step primarily focuses on interpreting what the collected data mean?

a)

Feedback distributing results to participants

b)

Analysis translating evidence into insights

c)

Evaluation comparing outcomes to objectives

d)

Action converting plans into practice

106.

A noted benefit of action research is that it is:

a)

Problem‑focused rather than solution‑centered

b)

Solution‑centered rather than problem‑focused

c)

Leader‑driven rather than employee‑driven

d)

Policy‑oriented rather than data‑oriented

107.

Heavy employee involvement in action research primarily helps organizations by:

a)

Accelerating budget approval cycles

b)

Increasing formality of project reports

c)

Eliminating the need for external consultants

d)

Reducing resistance to change initiatives

108.

Which set lists all five action research steps in correct order?

a)

Analysis, diagnosis, action, feedback, evaluation

b)

Feedback, diagnosis, evaluation, action, analysis

c)

Diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, evaluation

d)

Diagnosis, action, analysis, feedback, evaluation

109.

A manager skips feedback after analysis and goes straight to action. Which risk is most likely?

a)

Low buy‑in due to limited stakeholder input

b)

Overcollection of irrelevant financial metrics

c)

Excessive focus on external market positioning

d)

Premature evaluation without baseline measures

110.

Which example best illustrates feedback in the action research cycle?

a)

Comparing post‑change KPIs with baseline benchmarks

b)

Collecting survey responses from frontline employees

c)

Assigning teams to implement proposed process changes

d)

Sharing analyzed findings with employees for discussion

111.

Which statement best defines Organizational Development (OD)?

a)

An ad‑hoc reaction to crises without guiding values

b)

A set of planned interventions grounded in humanistic values

c)

A financial restructuring program focused on budgeting

d)

A compliance initiative centered on regulatory audits

112.

Which OD value emphasizes dignity and worth of individuals at work?

a)

Participation

b)

Confrontation

c)

Power equalization

d)

Respect for people

113.

In OD, power equalization primarily aims to

a)

Reduce unnecessary status barriers across levels

b)

Concentrate authority at the executive level

c)

Eliminate all managerial decision rights entirely

d)

Replace hierarchy with unstructured autonomy

114.

Trust and support as an OD value most directly encourages

a)

Strict adherence to rules and penalties

b)

Open communication and psychological safety

c)

Secretive decision making by leadership

d)

Individual competition over collaboration

115.

Confrontation in OD is best understood as

a)

Avoiding difficult issues to maintain harmony

b)

Addressing problems directly and constructively

c)

Publicly criticizing individuals during meetings

d)

Escalating conflicts to force quick decisions

116.

Participation as an OD value generally involves

a)

Limiting input to managers and consultants

b)

Engaging employees in decisions that affect them

c)

Outsourcing decisions to external experts

d)

Delegating only routine tasks to employees

117.

Which combination best reflects the humanistic‑democratic basis of OD?

a)

Rapid change, unilateral orders, low feedback

b)

Profit focus, strict hierarchy, process rigidity

c)

Central control, compliance, output maximization

d)

Respect, trust, participation in decision making

118.

Which planned intervention aligns MOST with OD values?

a)

Exclusive strategy sessions limited to executives

b)

Top‑down mandate without discussion or feedback

c)

Facilitated team dialogue to solve workflow issues

d)

Secret performance rankings released annually

119.

What primary outcomes are OD interventions intended to improve?

a)

Short‑term publicity and market speculation

b)

Patent filings and litigation success

c)

Organizational effectiveness and employee well‑being

d)

Asset liquidation and tax optimization

120.

A manager forms cross‑level problem‑solving groups with shared data. Which OD values are most evident?

a)

Participation and power equalization

b)

Competition and individualism

c)

Confrontation and secrecy

d)

Hierarchy and control

121.

Which OD technique focuses on changing behavior through unstructured group interaction in training groups (T-groups)?

a)

Formal performance appraisal cycles

b)

Process Consultation with a client

c)

Survey Feedback using questionnaires

d)

Sensitivity Training in T-groups

122.

A primary outcome of sensitivity training is increased awareness of which two areas?

a)

Technology and systems awareness

b)

Project and risk awareness

c)

Financial and market awareness

d)

Others and self awareness

123.

Which OD technique uses questionnaires to identify discrepancies among member perceptions and then suggests remedies?

a)

Process Consultation method

b)

Sensitivity Training groups

c)

Structural redesign program

d)

Survey Feedback Approach

124.

In process consultation, what does the consultant primarily provide to the client?

a)

Insights into interpersonal and process issues

b)

Budget reallocations and cost controls

c)

Compliance audits and policy reviews

d)

Detailed solutions for technical systems

125.

Which activity is most associated with increasing empathy, listening skills, openness, and tolerance?

a)

Process Consultation projects

b)

Balanced scorecard reviews

c)

Survey Feedback cycles

d)

Sensitivity Training workshops

126.

Survey feedback is most useful when a team needs to address what kind of problem?

a)

Low capital investment levels

b)

Misaligned perceptions among members

c)

Legal compliance violations

d)

Outdated software infrastructure

127.

Process consultation primarily helps a client understand what is happening in which domains?

a)

Within the market, across competitors, and inside the economy

b)

In financial statements, across budgets, and within cost centers

c)

Inside technology, across platforms, and within data pipelines

d)

Around the client, within the client, and between the client and others

128.

Which statement best contrasts sensitivity training with survey feedback?

a)

Sensitivity relies on formal metrics; survey feedback relies on informal dialogue

b)

Sensitivity uses unstructured interaction; survey feedback uses structured questionnaires

c)

Sensitivity focuses on processes; survey feedback focuses on technical systems

d)

Sensitivity targets organizational design; survey feedback targets strategy formation

129.

A manager wants to identify interpersonal processes that need improvement without prescribing technical fixes. Which OD technique is most appropriate?

a)

Job enrichment

b)

Survey Feedback

c)

Sensitivity Training

d)

Process Consultation

130.

After administering questionnaires to a department, leaders hold discussions and suggest remedies. Which OD technique does this describe?

a)

Change readiness audit

b)

Sensitivity Training event

c)

Process Consultation program

d)

Survey Feedback Approach

131.

Which OD technique focuses on high interaction among team members to increase trust and openness?

a)

Process consultation to diagnose group dynamics

b)

Appreciative inquiry to surface unique strengths

c)

Intergroup development to align group images

d)

Team building to increase trust and openness

132.

Intergroup development in OD primarily targets which outcome?

a)

Restructuring formal reporting relationships

b)

Documenting best practices across departments

c)

Encouraging deeper trust within intact teams

d)

Changing attitudes and stereotypes between groups

133.

What is the central aim of Appreciative Inquiry in organizations?

a)

Identify unique qualities and special strengths

b)

Eliminate conflict through formal procedures

c)

Correct individual performance deficiencies

d)

Standardize tasks to reduce process variance

134.

In Appreciative Inquiry, which phase involves recalling the strengths of the organization?

a)

Design phase mapping enabling structures

b)

Dreaming phase defining stretch aspirations

c)

Destiny phase assigning implementation roles

d)

Discovery phase recalling organizational strengths

135.

Which phase of Appreciative Inquiry centers on speculation about the organization’s future?

a)

Dreaming phase envisioning future possibilities

b)

Discovery phase documenting present strengths

c)

Design phase building a shared vision

d)

Destiny phase deciding next-step actions

136.

During which Appreciative Inquiry phase do participants find a common vision?

a)

Design phase aligning a common vision

b)

Discovery phase collecting success stories

c)

Dreaming phase brainstorming bold scenarios

d)

Destiny phase executing planned initiatives

137.

The Destiny phase of Appreciative Inquiry is best described as:

a)

Debating root causes of past failures

b)

Drafting the shared design principles

c)

Diagnosing what is currently working

d)

Deciding how to fulfill the dream

138.

A cross-functional workshop aims to reduce stereotypes two departments hold about each other. Which OD technique fits best?

a)

Job redesign to alter task boundaries

b)

Team building to deepen team cohesion

c)

Intergroup development to address perceptions

d)

Appreciative inquiry to map core strengths

139.

A manager wants to increase openness within a project team through structured activities and dialogue. Which technique should be prioritized?

a)

Formal performance management

b)

Intergroup development interventions

c)

Appreciative inquiry sessions

d)

Team building emphasizing interaction

140.

Which sequence correctly pairs Appreciative Inquiry phases with their primary focus?

a)

Discovery–vision, Dreaming–how, Design–future, Destiny–strengths

b)

Discovery–future, Dreaming–vision, Design–how, Destiny–strengths

c)

Discovery–how, Dreaming–strengths, Design–future, Destiny–vision

d)

Discovery–strengths, Dreaming–future, Design–vision, Destiny–how

141.

Which statement best defines innovation in an organizational context?

a)

A new idea applied to initiating or improving offerings

b)

Any creative thought without implementation in practice

c)

Incremental cost cutting with unchanged value delivered

d)

Copying competitor features without internal adaptation

142.

Which structural condition most often supports innovation within firms?

a)

Organic structures enabling flexible coordination

b)

Rigid hierarchies enforcing strict procedures

c)

Centralized control minimizing local discretion

d)

Narrow spans limiting cross-functional contact

143.

Why can long-tenured management contribute to innovation success?

a)

Deep organizational knowledge and trusted networks

b)

Preference for short-term wins over learning

c)

High turnover that disrupts project continuity

d)

Fresh outsider perspectives and risk ignorance

144.

What is the most accurate role of slack resources in innovation?

a)

Provide buffer capacity to experiment and iterate

b)

Eliminate the need for structured project planning

c)

Replace the requirement for skilled leadership

d)

Guarantee immediate commercialization success

145.

Interunit communication primarily enhances innovation by doing what?

a)

Sharing diverse knowledge across organizational units

b)

Standardizing all processes regardless of context

c)

Reducing the number of stakeholders in decisions

d)

Isolating teams to speed up internal approvals

146.

Identify the best description of an idea champion in organizations.

a)

Regulator who audits compliance to standards

b)

Vendor who supplies external prototyping services

c)

Committee that passively records project metrics

d)

Individual who actively promotes the innovation

147.

A division is considering a novel service but faces uncertainty. Which approach aligns best with creating a culture for change?

a)

Encourage cross-unit collaboration and small trials

b)

Delay decisions until full certainty is available

c)

Mandate strict adherence to existing procedures

d)

Limit communication to maintain confidentiality

148.

Which combination is most likely to stimulate innovation across a company?

a)

Centralization, narrow spans, rigid approvals

b)

Bureaucratic rules, zero slack, siloed reporting

c)

Short tenures, tight controls, budget freezes

d)

Organic structures, slack resources, interunit ties

149.

A manager with long tenure resists new ideas to protect legacy systems. What is the most effective corrective action?

a)

Pair the manager with cross-unit innovators

b)

Freeze the project until resistance subsides

c)

Exclude the manager from all strategic meetings

d)

Replace the manager with temporary contractors

150.

An idea champion struggles to gain support for a promising prototype. Which resource would most directly help?

a)

Allocated slack time and discretionary budget

b)

More rigid milestones and fixed approvals

c)

Reduced communication with other departments

d)

Immediate large-scale rollout without testing