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Worksheets

construction practices

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Permanent structures are designed for

a)

Short-term use

b)

Long-term use

c)

Occasional use

d)

Emergency use

2.

Temporary structures are typically used for:

a)

Long-term housing

b)

Construction or events

c)

Industrial plants

d)

Dams

3.

Unit-I: Introduction to Structures - Foundation 3. Which of the following is an example of a permanent structure?

a)

Scaffolding

b)

Tent

c)

Bridge

d)

Exhibition booth

4.

A structure's lifespan depends on:

a)

Material quality

b)

Environmental factors

c)

Maintenance practices

d)

All of the above

5.

The substructure of a building includes:

a)

Roof and walls

b)

Foundation and footing

c)

Columns and beams

d)

Doors and windows

6.

The superstructure refers to:

a)

The parts of the building below ground level

b)

The parts of the building above ground level

c)

Foundations only

d)

Both substructure and superstructure

7.

What is the primary role of the substructure?

a)

To support the roof

b)

To distribute loads to the ground

c)

To create aesthetic appeal

d)

To provide insulation

8.

The substructure should:

a)

Resist lateral forces

b)

Prevent differential settlement

c)

Be constructed above ground level

d)

Only support vertical loads

9.

In a load-bearing structure, walls:

a)

Are non-load-bearing

b)

Carry the entire structural load

c)

Support only the roof

d)

Are supported by beams

10.

Framed structures rely on:

a)

Walls for load distribution

b)

A skeleton of beams and columns

c)

Only the foundation

d)

Roof trusses

11.

Load-bearing structures are suitable for:

a)

High-rise buildings

b)

Small to medium-sized buildings

c)

Earthquake-prone areas

d)

Large open spans

12.

One advantage of framed structures is:

a)

Reduced construction time

b)

Increased rigidity of walls

c)

Fixed room sizes

d)

Inefficient load distribution

13.

Framed structures are commonly made of:

a)

Timber only

b)

Reinforced concrete or steel

c)

Brick masonry

d)

Plastic composites

14.

The ability of soil to support loads is called:

a)

Settlement capacity

b)

Bearing set

c)

Load resistance

d)

Structural strength

15.

The maximum pressure soil can withstand without failure is called:

a)

Safe bearing capacity

b)

Ultimate bearing capacity

c)

Allowable stress

d)

Plastic limit

16.

The safe bearing capacity of soil considers:

a)

No safety factor

b)

Ultimate strength only

c)

A safety factor to prevent failure

d)

Water content of the soil only

17.

Which soil type has the highest bearing capacity?

a)

Sand

b)

Clay

c)

Rock

d)

Silt

18.

A clayey soil's bearing capacity:

a)

Increases with moisture content

b)

Decreases with moisture content

c)

Is unaffected by moisture content

d)

Is always higher than sand

19.

Silt is characterized by:

a)

High bearing capacity

b)

Low bearing capacity

c)

Excellent drainage properties

d)

Strong cohesion

20.

Which factor does not affect soil bearing capacity?

a)

Type of foundation

b)

Location

c)

Water table level

d)

Color of the soil

21.

Shallow foundations include:

a)

Piles

b)

Rafts

c)

Caissons

d)

Wells

22.

Deep foundations are used when:

a)

Soil near the surface has low bearing capacity

b)

Construction time needs to be reduced

c)

The building is less than 3 stories tall

d)

Water table is very low

23.

Pile foundations transfer loads through:

a)

Skin friction only

b)

End bearing only

c)

Both skin friction and end bearing

d)

Compression

24.

A common cause of foundation failure is:

a)

Proper soil testing

b)

Uneven settlement

c)

Uniform load distribution

d)

High bearing capacity

25.

Foundation failures are often due to:

a)

Use of deep foundations

b)

Overloading or erosion

c)

Uniform soil conditions

d)

Excessive reinforcement

26.

Differential settlement can lead to:

a)

Strengthening of the structure

b)

Cracks in walls and foundations

c)

Uniform load distribution

d)

Soil stabilization

27.

Grouting is a remedial measure for:

a)

Weak foundations

b)

Load redistribution

c)

Foundation waterproofing

d)

Beam construction

28.

Underpinning is used to:

a)

Increase bearing capacity of soil

b)

Strengthen or deepen existing foundations

c)

Prevent waterlogging

d)

Reduce construction costs

29.

Brick masonry is:

a)

The construction of walls using stones

b)

The construction of walls using bricks bonded with mortar

c)

The construction of walls using steel

d)

None of the above

30.

A course in brick masonry refers to:

a)

A vertical layer of bricks

b)

A horizontal layer of bricks

c)

The mortar used between bricks

d)

The reinforcement in walls

31.

The bed in brick masonry is:

a)

The horizontal surface on which bricks are laid

b)

The vertical joint between bricks

c)

The decorative face of the wall

d)

The reinforcement used in masonry

32.

A header is:

a)

A brick laid flat with its longest side parallel to the wall

b)

A brick laid flat with its shortest side exposed in the face of the wall

c)

A decorative brick in masonry

d)

A brick used for corner reinforcements

33.

A stretcher is:

a)

A brick laid with its longest side parallel to the wall face

b)

A brick laid perpendicular to the wall face

c)

A vertical joint in masonry

d)

A tool used to smooth mortar

34.

The purpose of a bond in brick masonry is to:

a)

Add decorative elements to the structure

b)

Provide strength and stability by interlocking bricks

c)

Reduce construction costs

d)

Ensure mortar consistency

35.

The strongest and most commonly used bond in brick masonry is:

a)

Flemish bond

b)

English bond

c)

Stretcher bond

d)

Header bond

36.

In an English bond, the courses of bricks consist of:

a)

Headers only

b)

Stretchers only

c)

Alternating courses of headers and stretchers

d)

Randomly placed bricks

37.

Which bond has better aesthetic appearance but slightly less strength than an English bond?

a)

Stretcher bond

b)

Header bond

c)

Flemish bond

d)

Zigzag bond

38.

Bricks used in masonry should:

a)

Have high water absorption

b)

Be of uniform size and shape

c)

Be lightweight

d)

Have rough edges

39.

To ensure proper bonding, bricks should be:

a)

Laid dry

b)

Soaked in water before use

c)

Heated before use

d)

Painted before use

40.

The overlap between bricks in successive courses should be at least:

a)

Half the length of the brick

b)

One-fourth the length of the brick

c)

The full length of the brick

d)

No overlap is required

41.

Efflorescence in brick masonry occurs due to:

a)

Excessive load on walls

b)

Presence of salts in bricks or mortar

c)

Poor compaction of mortar

d)

Uneven settling of foundation

42.

The defect in brick masonry caused by improper curing is:

a)

Cracks

b)

Spalling

c)

Bulging

d)

Erosion

43.

The defect in masonry where bricks disintegrate due to frost action is called:

a)

Spalling

b)

Bulging

c)

Efflorescence

d)

Peeling

44.

Bulging in brick masonry occurs due to:

a)

Weak mortar mix

b)

Poor alignment of bricks

c)

Overloading of walls

d)

All of the above

45.

A defect in brick masonry caused by the growth of vegetation is:

a)

Cracks

b)

Spalling

c)

Moss or plant growth

d)

Efflorescence

46.

The most effective way to ensure durability in brick masonry is:

a)

Using high-quality bricks and mortar

b)

Avoiding water during construction

c)

Reducing overlap between bricks

d)

Leaving vertical joints unfilled

47.

A joint in stone masonry refers to:

a)

The horizontal line between two stones

b)

The gap between stones filled with mortar

c)

A reinforcement bar used in stone masonry

d)

The bond between two stones without mortar

48.

A quoin is:

a)

A rough stone used for corners

b)

A large stone placed in the middle of a wall

c)

A corner stone that is often more prominent

d)

A stone placed at the top of the wall

49.

Rubble masonry consists of:

a)

Stones of uniform size and shape

b)

Roughly dressed stones with varying sizes

c)

Stones that are only laid without mortar

d)

Stones laid only with cement

50.

In ashlar masonry, stones are:

a)

Rough and uneven

b)

Finely dressed and uniform in size

c)

Randomly arranged

d)

Only used for decorative purposes

51.

Coursed rubble masonry is:

a)

Made of large, irregular stones

b)

Made of stones laid in uniform horizontal courses

c)

Made of finely finished stones with equal dimensions

d)

Only used for the construction of decorative walls

52.

To ensure stability, stones should be laid on:

a)

Their natural bed

b)

The flattest side only

c)

Any random side

d)

The roughest side

53.

The tool used to shape stones is called a:

a)

Hammer

b)

Chisel

c)

Trowel

d)

Plumb bob

54.

The tool used to smooth mortar is:

a)

Hammer

b)

Trowel

c)

Chisel

d)

Pointing tool