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DBMS, Security, and Data Systems Worksheet MCQs (Grade 13)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 75hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Automated indexing in modern DBMS:

a)

Uses AI to create/drop indexes based on query patterns

b)

Deletes indexes

c)

Ignores indexes

d)

Manual only

2.

What is business continuity planning (BCP)?

a)

Business encryption

b)

Ensuring operations continue post-disaster

c)

Planning queries

d)

No planning

3.

What is session hijacking?

a)

Session encryption

b)

Stealing active user sessions to gain access

c)

No sessions

d)

Hijacking queries

4.

Inverted indexes are commonly used in:

a)

Relational DBMS for primary keys

b)

Buffer management

c)

Text search and information retrieval

d)

RAID setups

5.

What is Discretionary Access Control (DAC) in DBMS?

a)

Access based on mandatory labels like security clearances

b)

No access control mechanism

c)

Owners granting permissions to others at their discretion

d)

Access controlled solely by roles

6.

Automated compression:

a)

Manual compression

b)

Compression deletion

c)

Reduces storage

d)

No compression

7.

What is zero-trust security in DBMS?

a)

Assuming no trust, verifying every access

b)

No auditing

c)

Trusting all internal users

d)

Zero encryption

8.

In DBMS, a trigger can be used for security by:

a)

Automatically enforcing rules or logging changes

b)

Optimizing performance

c)

Querying data

d)

Creating tables

9.

What is a database schema?

a)

A query to retrieve data

b)

The actual data stored in the database

c)

A backup copy of the database

d)

The structure or blueprint of the database, including tables and relationships

10.

The SQL language is used for:

a)

Hardware configuration

b)

Network management

c)

Defining, manipulating, and controlling data in relational databases

d)

Programming applications

11.

Automation in big data with Kafka:

a)

No kafka

b)

Manual kafka

c)

Kafka deletion

d)

Automates streaming pipelines

12.

Git for DB schemas:

a)

Git deletion

b)

No git

c)

Versions changes

d)

Manual git

13.

Which RAID level uses striping with dedicated parity disks?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 3

d)

RAID 5

14.

What is RTO in backup and recovery?

a)

Data encryption time

b)

Recovery Point Objective

c)

Recovery Time Objective - time to restore operations

d)

Backup frequency

15.

Automated encryption rotation:

a)

Manual rotation

b)

Rotation deletion

c)

No rotation

d)

Changes keys periodically

16.

What is a side-channel attack?

a)

Side encryption

b)

Channel optimization

c)

Direct access

d)

Exploiting indirect information like timing or power usage

17.

Durability in ACID ensures:

a)

Changes are permanent after commit

b)

Data is compressed

c)

No concurrency issues

d)

Transactions are fast

18.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) includes:

a)

Query plans

b)

Procedures for restoring after major disruptions

c)

Only backups

d)

No planning

19.

ETL automation tools include:

a)

ETL encryption

b)

Talend or Apache NiFi for data flows

c)

No ETL

d)

Manual ETL

20.

In DBMS, authentication refers to:

a)

Logging user activities

b)

Encrypting data at rest

c)

Granting permissions to access data

d)

Verifying the identity of a user

21.

RAID 5 features:

a)

Single parity disk

b)

Mirroring only

c)

No parity

d)

Distributed parity across disks

22.

For a table to be in 2NF, it must:

a)

Have no primary key

b)

Have repeating groups

c)

Allow transitive dependencies

d)

Be in 1NF and have no partial dependencies

23.

Data pipeline automation with Luigi:

a)

Manages dependencies in workflows

b)

Manual pipelines

c)

No pipelines

d)

Pipeline deletion

24.

Bitmap indexes are efficient for:

a)

Low-cardinality attributes with bit vectors

b)

Hash-based searches

c)

Range queries only

d)

High-cardinality attributes

25.

In big data, HDFS backups use:

a)

No backups

b)

HDFS encryption

c)

Snapshots and distcp for copying

d)

Big queries

26.

Automated ETL with Informatica:

a)

Designs data flows

b)

No etl

c)

Etl deletion

d)

Manual etl

27.

A data warehouse is designed for:

a)

Analytical processing and decision support

b)

Small-scale storage

c)

Real-time updates

d)

Transaction processing

28.

Robotic Process Automation (RPA) in DBMS:

a)

Automates routine data tasks

b)

Manual RPA

c)

No RPA

d)

RPA deletion

29.

Machine learning for anomaly detection in DB:

a)

No ML

b)

Manual ML

c)

Automates security monitoring

d)

ML deletion

30.

What is a buffer overflow attack?

a)

A logging overflow

b)

Exploiting memory vulnerabilities to inject code

c)

Overflowing buffers with data

d)

Network buffer

31.

What is SQL injection?

a)

Submitting malicious SQL via inputs to manipulate or access the database

b)

Encrypting SQL queries to protect data

c)

Optimizing queries to improve performance

d)

Backing up tables to prevent data loss

32.

SQL injection is:

a)

A way to encrypt SQL statements

b)

A method to optimize queries

c)

An attack inserting malicious SQL code via input fields

d)

A logging technique

33.

Automated data masking:

a)

No masking

b)

Masking deletion

c)

Obfuscates sensitive data

d)

Manual masking

34.

Shadow paging is a recovery technique using:

a)

Paging queries

b)

Copy pages for non-overwrite updates

c)

No pages

d)

Shadow encryption

35.

In DBMS, what is an 'extent'?

a)

An index entry

b)

A contiguous allocation of blocks for a file

c)

A single record

d)

A buffer frame

36.

In a hierarchical data model, data is organized in which structure?

a)

Graphs with nodes and edges

b)

Tables

c)

Tree-like structure with parent-child relationships

d)

Key-value pairs

37.

In SQL, the GRANT command is used to:

a)

Encrypt data

b)

Assign privileges to users or roles

c)

Revoke permissions

d)

Create tables

38.

Bulk-logged recovery model is best for:

a)

No bulk operations

b)

Minimal logging of bulk operations

c)

Encrypted backups

d)

Full point-in-time recovery always

39.

What is a candidate key?

a)

A foreign key in disguise

b)

A key used only for encryption

c)

A minimal superkey that can uniquely identify a tuple

d)

A key that is not unique

40.

In SQL Server, the simple recovery model:

a)

Requires manual log backups

b)

Automatically truncates the transaction log

c)

Allows point-in-time recovery

d)

Is used for bulk operations only

41.

What is database automation in DBMS?

a)

Deleting databases automatically

b)

Ignoring performance issues

c)

Using tools and scripts to streamline DB operations like provisioning and tuning

d)

Manual management of all tasks

42.

Database security baselines are:

a)

No baselines

b)

Standard configurations for secure setups

c)

Query baselines

d)

Baseline encryption

43.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a database?

a)

Data integrity

b)

Data independence

c)

Data redundancy

d)

Concurrent access

44.

Authorization in DBMS involves:

a)

Backing up the database

b)

Determining what actions a verified user can perform

c)

Compressing data

d)

Indexing tables

45.

What is tokenization in data security?

a)

Encrypting tokens

b)

Replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens

c)

Indexing tokens

d)

Deleting data

46.

Log shipping in DBMS is:

a)

Shipping physical disks

b)

Sending transaction logs to a secondary for recovery

c)

Log encryption

d)

Deleting logs

47.

What is a transaction in DBMS?

a)

A database backup

b)

A logical unit of work that must be entirely completed or aborted

c)

A single query

d)

A user login session

48.

What is the primary function of storage architecture in a DBMS?

a)

To perform data encryption

b)

To manage user interfaces

c)

To organize and access data efficiently on persistent storage devices

d)

To handle query optimization

49.

What is the Bell-LaPadula model in MAC?

a)

Role-based only

b)

Focuses on confidentiality with no read-up, no write-down

c)

Allows all access

d)

For integrity only

50.

Database sharding impacts security by:

a)

No impact

b)

Distributing data, requiring consistent security across shards

c)

Centralizing data

d)

Sharding encryption

51.

Media recovery involves:

a)

Network issues

b)

Software crashes

c)

Recovering from disk failures using backups

d)

Query optimization

52.

Automated alerting in monitoring:

a)

Alerting deletion

b)

Notifies on thresholds

c)

Manual alerting

d)

No alerting

53.

What is secure multi-party computation (SMPC)?

a)

No computation

b)

Insecure computation

c)

Allowing computations on data from multiple parties without revealing inputs

d)

Single party only

54.

The REVOKE command in SQL does what?

a)

Removes previously granted privileges

b)

Audits user actions

c)

Backs up data

d)

Grants new permissions

55.

ML for query tuning:

a)

Manual ml

b)

No ml

c)

Ml deletion

d)

Suggests improvements

56.

Isolation in ACID means:

a)

Transactions do not interfere with each other

b)

Only one user can access the database

c)

Transactions are permanent

d)

Data is isolated from backups

57.

In DBMS, what is the purpose of a buffer pool?

a)

To encrypt data on disk

b)

To manage network connections

c)

To cache frequently accessed data pages in memory

d)

To store permanent data backups

58.

What is tail-log backup?

a)

Full tail backup

b)

Index tail

c)

No log

d)

Backup of log after failure before restore

59.

Which of the following is a key component of the Entity-Relationship (ER) model?

a)

Tables and queries

b)

Entities, attributes, and relationships

c)

Classes and methods

d)

Files and directories

60.

What is data integrity?

a)

Deleting old data

b)

Storing data in multiple places

c)

Compressing data

d)

Ensuring data is accurate, consistent, and reliable

61.

RAID 10 combines:

a)

Parity only

b)

Striping only

c)

Striping and mirroring

d)

Double parity

62.

Fixed-length records are advantageous because:

a)

They simplify address calculations and reduce overhead

b)

They are used in heap files only

c)

They allow variable data sizes

d)

They require more space

63.

In DBMS, a firewall helps security by:

a)

Auditing logs

b)

Creating views

c)

Encrypting data

d)

Controlling network traffic to the database server

64.

What is the CIA triad in information security?

a)

Create, Insert, Alter

b)

Compression, Indexing, Archiving

c)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

d)

No triad

65.

Failback means:

a)

Backing fails

b)

Returning to primary after failover

c)

Fail logs

d)

No return

66.

What is a checkpoint in DBMS recovery?

a)

Backup start

b)

Query checkpoint

c)

Encryption check

d)

Point where dirty pages are written to disk

67.

In object-oriented databases, data is stored as:

a)

Key-value pairs

b)

Trees

c)

Objects with attributes and methods

d)

Tables

68.

What is Big Data characterized by?

a)

Structured data only

b)

Volume, Velocity, Variety (3Vs)

c)

Only large volume

d)

Low speed processing

69.

The buffer replacement policy 'LRU' stands for:

a)

Last Recently Used

b)

Most Recently Used

c)

Least Recently Used

d)

Least Frequently Used

70.

Denormalization is performed to:

a)

Eliminate all keys

b)

Achieve higher normal forms

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Increase redundancy for better performance

71.

What is database mirroring?

a)

Encrypting mirrors

b)

Mirroring indexes

c)

Real-time copying to a secondary server for failover

d)

Backing up to tape

72.

What is the purpose of RAID in storage architecture?

a)

To manage memory buffers

b)

To create indexes

c)

To increase data redundancy and performance through disk arrays

d)

To compress data

73.

Automated security scans in DBMS:

a)

Manual scans

b)

Scan deletion

c)

Use tools like SQLMap for vulnerability checks

d)

No scans

74.

Compliance standards like GDPR focus on:

a)

Data privacy and protection

b)

Backup frequency

c)

Storage optimization

d)

Query speed

75.

Compression in backups:

a)

Increases size

b)

Compresses queries

c)

Reduces storage size

d)

No effect

76.

What is row-level security (RLS)?

a)

Indexing rows

b)

Encrypting rows

c)

Restricting access to specific rows based on policies

d)

Deleting rows

77.

AI for predictive maintenance in DB:

a)

Ai deletion

b)

No ai

c)

Manual ai

d)

Forecasts failures

78.

Reverse delta backups store:

a)

Delta encryption

b)

No delta

c)

Differences backward from latest full

d)

Reverse queries

79.

Automated disaster recovery:

a)

Failover scripts

b)

Dr deletion

c)

No dr

d)

Manual dr

80.

Hot standby is:

a)

Immediate failover ready secondary

b)

Offline

c)

Periodic updates

d)

No standby

81.

What is metadata in DBMS?

a)

Data about data

b)

Backup data

c)

Actual user data

d)

Encrypted data

82.

What is auto-scaling in big data DBMS like Cassandra?

a)

Scaling queries

b)

No scaling

c)

Manual scaling

d)

Automatically adding/removing nodes based on load

83.

Database anomaly detection involves:

a)

Identifying unusual patterns in access or queries

b)

Backing up anomalies

c)

Normalizing data

d)

Creating indexes

84.

Automated compliance checks:

a)

Compliance deletion

b)

Scans for regulations

c)

No compliance

d)

Manual compliance

85.

Scripting for automation in DBMS uses:

a)

No scripting

b)

Manual scripts only

c)

Scripting deletion

d)

PL/SQL or Python for tasks like backups

86.

What is the main advantage of hashed file organization?

a)

No need for overflow handling

b)

Always uses less space than sequential files

c)

Supports range queries efficiently

d)

Fast average-case access for equality searches

87.

Snapshot backups capture:

a)

Logs only

b)

Future state

c)

No state

d)

Point-in-time state using storage features

88.

What is deduplication in backups?

a)

Duplicating data

b)

No removal

c)

Encrypting duplicates

d)

Removing duplicate data to save space

89.

Automated index rebuild:

a)

Optimizes performance

b)

Manual rebuild

c)

Rebuild deletion

d)

No rebuild

90.

In DBMS, undo phase in recovery:

a)

Undoes backups

b)

Undo logs

c)

Rolls back uncommitted transactions

d)

No undo

91.

Backup verification ensures:

a)

Verification ignored

b)

Encryption verified

c)

Data deleted

d)

Backups are restorable and valid

92.

What is bare-metal recovery?

a)

Metal encryption

b)

Restoring entire system including OS

c)

Bare data

d)

No restore

93.

In DBMS, security involves:

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Normalization

c)

Authorization, authentication, and encryption

94.

Incremental backup in DBMS backs up:

a)

Changes since the last incremental or full backup

b)

All data every time

c)

Schema only

d)

Only deleted data

95.

What is a privilege escalation attack?

a)

Revoking all privileges

b)

Gaining higher access levels than authorized

c)

Auditing escalations

d)

Encrypting privileges

96.

What is column-level encryption?

a)

Encrypting specific sensitive columns (e.g., credit cards)

b)

No encryption

c)

Encrypting indexes only

d)

Encrypting entire databases

97.

Indexes in databases are used to:

a)

Store data redundantly

b)

Enforce integrity

c)

Speed up data retrieval

d)

Perform backups

98.

What is API security in DBMS?

a)

Query APIs

b)

API encryption only

c)

Protecting database APIs from abuse (e.g., rate limiting)

d)

No APIs

99.

In cloud DBMS, automated patching:

a)

No patching

b)

Applies security updates without downtime

c)

Patching deletion

d)

Manual patching

100.

In RAID 0, data is:

a)

Stored on a single disk

b)

Protected with parity bits

c)

Mirrored for redundancy

d)

Striped across disks without parity

101.

In DBMS, what does data independence mean?

a)

Data is stored in independent files

b)

Data is only accessible by one user

c)

Data can be changed without affecting applications

d)

All data is redundant

102.

Automated sharding in big data:

a)

Sharding deletion

b)

Distributes data automatically for scale

c)

Manual sharding

d)

No sharding

103.

A foreign key in a table refers to:

a)

A duplicate value

b)

An index for faster searches

c)

A primary key in another table

d)

A unique key in the same table

104.

Columnar storage is beneficial for:

a)

Transactional updates

b)

Row-wise inserts

c)

Analytical queries scanning few columns

d)

Full row retrievals

105.

Kubernetes for DBMS automation:

a)

Orchestrates containerized DBs for scaling

b)

No orchestration

c)

Manual k8s

d)

K8s deletion

106.

What is 'garbage collection' in SSDs?

a)

RAID parity calculation

b)

Buffering writes

c)

Indexing data

d)

Erasing and reclaiming invalid pages

107.

What is the primary goal of database security?

a)

To optimize query performance

b)

To manage data backups

c)

To increase data redundancy

d)

To protect data from unauthorized access, modification, or destruction

108.

Automated user provisioning:

a)

Manual users

b)

No users

c)

Creates users via scripts

d)

User deletion

109.

In big data, HDFS uses:

a)

Tape backups

b)

Single disk storage

c)

In-memory only

d)

Block-based replication across nodes

110.

What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) for DBMS?

a)

No code

b)

Automating DB setup via code like Terraform

c)

Manual infra

d)

Code deletion

111.

What is a deadlock in DBMS?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

A successful transaction commit

c)

A situation where two or more transactions wait indefinitely for each other

d)

A backup process

112.

3NF requires that a table is in 2NF and:

a)

Has no transitive dependencies

b)

Allows multivalued attributes

c)

Has partial dependencies

d)

Lacks a primary key

113.

What is synthetic full backup?

a)

Synthetic encryption

b)

Full queries

c)

Combining incremental to create full without source load

d)

No synthetic

114.

The full recovery model in DBMS supports:

a)

No log backups

b)

Automatic data loss

c)

Point-in-time restores using log backups

d)

Only full backups

115.

DataOps automates:

a)

No dataops

b)

Data lifecycle

c)

Manual dataops

d)

Dataops deletion

116.

Serverless DB like Aurora automates:

a)

Serverless deletion

b)

No serverless

c)

Scaling and maintenance

d)

Manual server

117.

Automated load balancing in DBMS:

a)

Serverless deletion

b)

No serverless

c)

Scaling and maintenance

d)

Manual server

118.

A common database security certification is:

a)

Backup cert

b)

ISO 27001 for information security management

c)

SQL standard

d)

Data compression cert

119.

Zabbix for DB monitoring:

a)

Automates alerts

b)

Manual zabbix

c)

No zabbix

d)

Zabbix deletion

120.

What is a common threat in statistical databases?

a)

Inference attacks deriving sensitive info from aggregates

b)

Network eavesdropping

c)

Direct access attacks

d)

Physical theft

121.

Recovery testing should be:

a)

Regular to validate procedures

b)

Test encryption

c)

No testing

d)

Testing queries

122.

A superkey is:

a)

A subset of attributes that uniquely identifies a tuple

b)

Always a primary key

c)

A set of attributes that may include extras but uniquely identifies a tuple

d)

A foreign key

123.

Hot backup allows:

a)

Logs ignored

b)

Backups while database is operational

c)

Shutdown required

d)

No consistency

124.

File-level backups are:

a)

No files

b)

Granular for individual files

c)

File encryption

d)

Block only

125.

Grandfather-father-son is a:

a)

A backup rotation scheme

b)

A database normalization rule

c)

A user role hierarchy

d)

A query optimization strategy

126.

Automated testing for DB includes:

a)

Unit tests for stored procedures

b)

Manual testing

c)

No testing

d)

Test deletion

127.

The Biba model in MAC emphasizes:

a)

Availability

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Encryption

d)

Integrity with no read-down, no write-up

128.

Automated partitioning in DBMS:

a)

Splits tables for performance

b)

Partitioning deletion

c)

Manual partitioning

d)

No partitioning

129.

A B+ tree differs from a B-tree in that:

a)

It uses hashing

b)

All values are stored in leaf nodes, with internal nodes for navigation

c)

Leaves are not linked

d)

It allows unbalanced structures

130.

What is a honeypot in database security?

a)

An encryption tool

b)

A query optimizer

c)

A decoy system to attract and detect attackers

d)

A backup mechanism

131.

Automated failover in high availability:

a)

Failover deletion

b)

Switches to replica on primary failure

c)

No failover

d)

Manual failover

132.

NoSQL backup strategies include:

a)

No NoSQL

b)

SQL only

c)

NoSQL encryption

d)

Consistent dumps or replication snapshots

133.

What is fanout in a B-tree?

a)

The number of leaf nodes

b)

The number of levels in the tree

c)

The maximum number of children per node

d)

The height of the tree

134.

What does 'seek time' refer to in hard disk drives?

a)

Time to move the read/write head to the correct track

b)

Time for error correction

c)

Time to rotate the disk to the correct sector

d)

Time to transfer data from disk to memory

135.

Referential integrity maintains:

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Consistency between related tables via foreign keys

c)

Null values in primary keys

d)

Duplicate records

136.

To prevent SQL injection, DBMS applications should use:

a)

Plain text inputs

b)

Static SQL only

c)

No input validation

d)

Prepared statements and parameterized queries

137.

A table is in 1NF if:

a)

It has a primary key

b)

It has no composite attributes and no repeating groups

c)

All attributes depend on the primary key

d)

It allows partial dependencies

138.

Automated data cleansing:

a)

Uses scripts to fix inconsistencies

b)

Cleansing deletion

c)

Manual cleansing

d)

No cleansing

139.

Which of the following is considered a secondary storage device in DBMS?

a)

Cache memory

b)

CPU registers

c)

Magnetic disks

d)

RAM

140.

Warm standby server means:

a)

Cold with no data

b)

Always online primary

c)

Secondary server with periodic restores

d)

Hot with real-time sync

141.

What does two-factor authentication (2FA) add to DBMS security?

a)

Query optimization

b)

Automatic data backups

c)

A second verification step beyond passwords

d)

Role creation

142.

In flash-based SSDs, what is 'wear leveling'?

a)

Compressing data

b)

Mirroring

c)

Distributing writes evenly to prolong lifespan

d)

Striping data

143.

PowerShell for DB scripting:

a)

Manual powershell

b)

Automates Windows DB tasks

c)

No powershell

d)

Powershell deletion

144.

Disk backups offer:

a)

Encryption only

b)

No restores

c)

Faster restores than tape

d)

Slower than tape

145.

Automated performance tuning in DBMS involves:

a)

Ignoring query plans

b)

No tuning

c)

Tools like Oracle ADDM or MySQL Advisor for automatic optimizations

d)

Manual indexing always

146.

What is pitting in tape media?

a)

Degradation over time

b)

Tape queries

c)

No pitting

d)

Pitting encryption

147.

Jenkins for DB CI/CD:

a)

Builds pipelines for schema deploys

b)

No jenkins

c)

Jenkins deletion

d)

Manual jenkins

148.

Which ACID property ensures that a transaction is treated as a single unit?

a)

Atomicity

b)

Durability

c)

Isolation

d)

Consistency

149.

Cloud database security often involves:

a)

No responsibility

b)

Shared responsibility models between provider and user

c)

User only

d)

Provider only

150.

Which tool is commonly used for automated database schema migrations?

a)

Liquibase or Flyway

b)

Manual SQL scripts only

c)

Query optimizers

d)

Data encryption tools