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DBMS Concepts and Security Worksheet (Grade 13)

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 61hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Automated indexing in modern DBMS

a)

Uses AI to create or drop indexes based on query patterns

b)

Deletes indexes

c)

Ignores indexes

d)

Manual only

2.

What is business continuity planning (BCP)?

a)

Business encryption

b)

Ensuring operations continue post-disaster

c)

Planning queries

d)

No planning

3.

What is session hijacking?

a)

Session encryption

b)

Stealing active user sessions to gain access

c)

No sessions

d)

Hijacking queries

4.

Inverted indexes are commonly used in

a)

Relational DBMS for primary keys

b)

Buffer management

c)

Text search and information retrieval

d)

RAID setups

5.

What is Discretionary Access Control (DAC) in DBMS?

a)

Access based on mandatory labels like security clearances

b)

No access control mechanism

c)

Owners granting permissions to others at their discretion

d)

Access controlled solely by roles

6.

Automated compression

a)

Manual compression

b)

Compression deletion

c)

Reduces storage

d)

No compression

7.

What is zero-trust security in DBMS?

a)

Assuming no trust, verifying every access

b)

No auditing

c)

Trusting all internal users

d)

Zero encryption

8.

In DBMS, a trigger can be used for security by

a)

Automatically enforcing rules or logging changes

b)

Optimizing performance

c)

Querying data

d)

Creating tables

9.

What is a database schema?

a)

A query to retrieve data

b)

The actual data stored in the database

c)

A backup copy of the database

d)

The structure or blueprint of the database, including tables and relationships

10.

The SQL language is used for

a)

Hardware configuration

b)

Network management

c)

Defining, manipulating, and controlling data in relational databases

d)

Programming applications

11.

Automation in big data with Kafka

a)

No Kafka

b)

Manual Kafka

c)

Kafka deletion

d)

Automates streaming pipelines

12.

Git for DB schemas

a)

Git deletion

b)

No Git

c)

Versions changes

d)

Manual Git

13.

Which RAID level uses striping with dedicated parity disks?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 3

d)

RAID 5

14.

What is RTO in backup and recovery?

a)

Data encryption time

b)

Recovery Point Objective

c)

Recovery Time Objective – time to restore operations

d)

Backup frequency

15.

Automated encryption rotation

a)

Manual rotation

b)

Rotation deletion

c)

No rotation

d)

Changes keys periodically

16.

What is a side-channel attack?

a)

Side encryption

b)

Channel optimization

c)

Direct access

d)

Exploiting indirect information like timing or power usage

17.

Durability in ACID ensures

a)

Changes are permanent after commit

b)

Data is compressed

c)

No concurrency issues

d)

Transactions are fast

18.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) includes

a)

Query plans

b)

Procedures for restoring after major disruptions

c)

Only backups

d)

No planning

19.

ETL automation tools include

a)

ETL encryption

b)

Talend or Apache NiFi for data flows

c)

No ETL

d)

Manual ETL

20.

In DBMS, authentication refers to

a)

Verifying user identity before granting access

b)

Logging user activities

c)

Encrypting data at rest

d)

Scheduling backups

21.

RAID 5 features:

a)

Single parity disk

b)

Mirroring only

c)

No parity

d)

Distributed parity across disks

22.

For a table to be in 2NF, it must:

a)

Have no primary key

b)

Have repeating groups

c)

Allow transitive dependencies

d)

Be in 1NF and have no partial dependencies

23.

Data pipeline automation with Luigi:

a)

Manages dependencies in workflows

b)

Manual pipelines

c)

No pipelines

d)

Pipeline deletion

24.

Bitmap indexes are efficient for:

a)

Low-cardinality attributes with bit vectors

b)

Hash-based searches

c)

Range queries only

d)

High-cardinality attributes

25.

In big data, HDFS backups use:

a)

No backups

b)

HDFS encryption

c)

Snapshots and distcp for copying

d)

Big queries

26.

Automated ETL with Informatica:

a)

Designs data flows

b)

No etl

c)

Etl deletion

d)

Manual etl

27.

A data warehouse is designed for:

a)

Analytical processing and decision support

b)

Small-scale storage

c)

Real-time updates

d)

Transaction processing

28.

Robotic Process Automation (RPA) in DBMS:

a)

Automates routine data tasks

b)

Manual RPA

c)

No RPA

d)

RPA deletion

29.

Machine learning for anomaly detection in DB:

a)

No ML

b)

Manual ML

c)

Automates security monitoring

d)

ML deletion

30.

What is a buffer overflow attack?

a)

A logging overflow

b)

Exploiting memory vulnerabilities to inject code

c)

Overflowing buffers with data

d)

Network buffer

31.

What is SQL injection?

a)

A way to encrypt SQL statements

b)

A method to optimize queries

c)

An attack inserting malicious SQL code via input fields

d)

A logging technique

32.

Automated data masking:

a)

No masking

b)

Masking deletion

c)

Obfuscates sensitive data

d)

Manual masking

33.

Shadow paging is a recovery technique using:

a)

Paging queries

b)

Copy pages for non-overwrite updates

c)

No pages

d)

Shadow encryption

34.

In DBMS, what is an 'extent'?

a)

An index entry

b)

A contiguous allocation of blocks for a file

c)

A single record

d)

A buffer frame

35.

In a hierarchical data model, data is organized in which structure?

a)

Graphs with nodes and edges

b)

Tables

c)

Tree-like structure with parent-child relationships

d)

Key-value pairs

36.

In SQL, the GRANT command is used to:

a)

Encrypt data

b)

Assign privileges to users or roles

c)

Revoke permissions

d)

Create tables

37.

Bulk-logged recovery model is best for:

a)

No bulk operations

b)

Minimal logging of bulk operations

c)

Encrypted backups

d)

Full point-in-time recovery always

38.

What is a candidate key?

a)

A foreign key in disguise

b)

A key used only for encryption

c)

A minimal superkey that can uniquely identify a tuple

d)

A key that is not unique

39.

In SQL Server, the simple recovery model:

a)

Requires manual log backups

b)

Automatically truncates the transaction log

c)

Allows point-in-time recovery

d)

Is used for bulk operations only

40.

What is database automation in DBMS?

a)

Deleting databases automatically

b)

Ignoring performance issues

c)

Using tools and scripts to streamline DB operations like provisioning and tuning

d)

Manual management of all tasks

41.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a database?

a)

Data integrity

b)

Data independence

c)

Data redundancy (Database aims to minimize this)

d)

Concurrent access

42.

Authorization in DBMS involves:

a)

Backing up the database

b)

Determining what actions a verified user can perform

c)

Compressing data

d)

Indexing tables

43.

What is tokenization in data security?

a)

Encrypting tokens

b)

Replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens

c)

Indexing tokens

d)

Deleting data

44.

Log shipping in DBMS is:

a)

Shipping physical disks

b)

Sending transaction logs to a secondary for recovery

c)

Log encryption

d)

Deleting logs

45.

What is a transaction in DBMS?

a)

A database backup

b)

A logical unit of work that must be entirely completed or aborted

c)

A single query

d)

A user login session

46.

What is the primary function of storage architecture in a DBMS?

a)

To perform data encryption

b)

To organize and access data efficiently on persistent storage devices

c)

To handle query optimization

d)

To manage user interfaces

47.

What is the Bell-LaPadula model in MAC?

a)

Role-based only

b)

Focuses on confidentiality with no read-up, no write-down

c)

Allows all access

d)

For integrity only

48.

Database sharding impacts security by:

a)

No impact

b)

Distributing data, requiring consistent security across shards

c)

Centralizing data

d)

Sharding encryption

49.

Media recovery involves:

a)

Network issues

b)

Software crashes

c)

Recovering from disk failures using backups

d)

Query optimization

50.

Automated alerting in monitoring:

a)

Alerting deletion

b)

Notifies on thresholds

c)

Manual alerting

d)

No alerting

51.

What is secure multi-party computation (SMPC)?

a)

No computation

b)

Insecure computation

c)

Allowing computations on data from multiple parties without revealing inputs

d)

Single party only

52.

The REVOKE command in SQL does what?

a)

Removes previously granted privileges

b)

Audits user actions

c)

Backs up data

d)

Grants new permissions

53.

ML for query tuning:

a)

Manual ml

b)

No ml

c)

Ml deletion

d)

Suggests improvements

54.

Isolation in ACID means:

a)

Transactions do not interfere with each other

b)

Only one user can access the database

c)

Transactions are permanent

d)

Data is isolated from backups

55.

In DBMS, what is the purpose of a buffer pool?

a)

To encrypt data on disk

b)

To manage network connections

c)

To cache frequently accessed data pages in memory

d)

To store permanent data backups

56.

What is tail-log backup?

a)

Full tail backup

b)

Index tail

c)

No log

d)

Backup of log after failure before restore

57.

Which of the following is a key component of the Entity-Relationship (ER) model?

a)

Tables and queries

b)

Entities, attributes, and relationships

c)

Classes and methods

d)

Files and directories

58.

What is data integrity?

a)

Deleting old data

b)

Storing data in multiple places

c)

Compressing data

d)

Ensuring data is accurate, consistent, and reliable

59.

RAID 10 combines:

a)

Parity only

b)

Striping only

c)

Striping and mirroring

d)

Double parity

60.

Fixed-length records are advantageous because:

a)

They simplify address calculations and reduce overhead

b)

They are used in heap files only

c)

They allow variable data sizes

d)

They require more space

61.

In DBMS, a firewall helps security by:

a)

Auditing logs

b)

Creating views

c)

Encrypting data

d)

Controlling network traffic to the database server

62.

What is the CIA triad in information security?

a)

Create, Insert, Alter

b)

Compression, Indexing, Archiving

c)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

d)

No triad

63.

Failback means:

a)

Backing fails

b)

Returning to primary after failover

c)

Fail logs

d)

No return

64.

What is a checkpoint in DBMS recovery?

a)

Backup start

b)

Query checkpoint

c)

Encryption check

d)

Point where dirty pages are written to disk

65.

In object-oriented databases, data is stored as:

a)

Key-value pairs

b)

Trees

c)

Objects with attributes and methods

d)

Tables

66.

What is Big Data characterized by?

a)

Structured data only

b)

Volume, Velocity, Variety (3Vs)

c)

Only large volume

d)

Low speed processing

67.

The buffer replacement policy 'LRU' stands for:

a)

Last Recently Used

b)

Most Recently Used

c)

Least Recently Used

d)

Least Frequently Used

68.

Denormalization is performed to:

a)

Eliminate all keys

b)

Achieve higher normal forms

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Increase redundancy for better performance

69.

What is database mirroring?

a)

Encrypting mirrors

b)

Mirroring indexes

c)

Real-time copying to a secondary server for failover

d)

Backing up to tape

70.

What is the purpose of RAID in storage architecture?

a)

To manage memory buffers

b)

To create indexes

c)

To increase data redundancy and performance through disk arrays

d)

To compress data

71.

Automated security scans in DBMS:

a)

Manual scans

b)

Scan deletion

c)

Use tools like SQLMap for vulnerability checks

d)

No scans

72.

Compliance standards like GDPR focus on:

a)

Data privacy and protection

b)

Backup frequency

c)

Storage optimization

d)

Query speed

73.

Compression in backups:

a)

Increases size

b)

Compresses queries

c)

Reduces storage size

d)

No effect

74.

What is row-level security (RLS)?

a)

Indexing rows

b)

Encrypting rows

c)

Restricting access to specific rows based on policies

d)

Deleting rows

75.

AI for predictive maintenance in DB:

a)

Ai deletion

b)

No ai

c)

Manual ai

d)

Forecasts failures

76.

Reverse delta backups store:

a)

Delta encryption

b)

No delta

c)

Differences backward from latest full

d)

Reverse queries

77.

Automated disaster recovery:

a)

Failover scripts (hoặc recovery workflows)

b)

Dr deletion

c)

No dr

d)

Manual dr

78.

Hot standby is:

a)

Immediate failover ready secondary

b)

Offline

c)

Periodic updates

d)

No standby

79.

What is metadata in DBMS?

a)

Data about data

b)

Backup data

c)

Actual user data

d)

Encrypted data

80.

What is auto-scaling in big data DBMS like Cassandra?

a)

Scaling queries

b)

No scaling

c)

Manual scaling

d)

Automatically adding/removing nodes based on load

81.

Database anomaly detection involves:

a)

Identifying unusual patterns in access or queries

b)

Backing up anomalies

c)

Normalizing data

82.

Automated compliance checks:

a)

Compliance deletion

b)

Scans for regulations

c)

No compliance

d)

Manual compliance

83.

Scripting for automation in DBMS uses:

a)

No scripting

b)

Manual scripts only

c)

Scripting deletion

d)

PL/SQL or Python for tasks like backups

84.

What is the main advantage of hashed file organization?

a)

No need for overflow handling

b)

Always uses less space than sequential files

c)

Supports range queries efficiently

d)

Fast average-case access for equality searches

85.

Snapshot backups capture:

a)

Logs only

b)

Future state

c)

No state

d)

Point-in-time state using storage features

86.

What is deduplication in backups?

a)

Duplicating data

b)

No removal

c)

Encrypting duplicates

d)

Removing duplicate data to save space

87.

Automated index rebuild:

a)

Optimizes performance

b)

Manual rebuild

c)

Rebuild deletion

d)

No rebuild

88.

In DBMS, undo phase in recovery:

a)

Undoes backups

b)

Undo logs

c)

Rolls back uncommitted transactions

d)

No undo

89.

Backup verification ensures:

a)

Verification ignored

b)

Encryption verified

c)

Data deleted

d)

Backups are restorable and valid

90.

What is bare-metal recovery?

a)

Metal encryption

b)

Restoring entire system including OS

c)

Bare data

d)

No restore

91.

In DBMS, security involves:

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Normalization

c)

Authorization, authentication, and encryption

d)

Only passwords

92.

Incremental backup in DBMS backs up:

a)

Changes since the last incremental or full backup

b)

All data every time

c)

Schema only

d)

Only deleted data

93.

What is a privilege escalation attack?

a)

Revoking all privileges

b)

Gaining higher access levels than authorized

c)

Auditing escalations

d)

Encrypting privileges

94.

What is column-level encryption?

a)

Encrypting specific sensitive columns (e.g., credit cards)

b)

No encryption

c)

Encrypting indexes only

d)

Encrypting entire databases

95.

Indexes in databases are used to:

a)

Store data redundantly

b)

Enforce integrity

c)

Speed up data retrieval

d)

Perform backups

96.

What is API security in DBMS?

a)

Query APIs

b)

API encryption only

c)

Protecting database APIs from abuse (e.g., rate limiting)

d)

No APIs

97.

In cloud DBMS, automated patching:

a)

No patching

b)

Applies security updates without downtime

c)

Patching deletion

d)

Manual patching

98.

In RAID 0, data is:

a)

Stored on a single disk

b)

Protected with parity bits

c)

Mirrored for redundancy

d)

Striped across disks without parity

99.

In DBMS, what does data independence mean?

a)

Data is stored in independent files

b)

Data is only accessible by one user

c)

Data can be changed without affecting applications

d)

All data is redundant

100.

Automated sharding in big data:

a)

Sharding deletion

b)

Distributes data automatically for scale

c)

Manual sharding

d)

No sharding

101.

A foreign key in a table refers to:

a)

A duplicate value

b)

An index for faster searches

c)

A primary key in another table

d)

A unique key in the same table

102.

Columnar storage is beneficial for:

a)

Transactional updates

b)

Analytical queries on large datasets

c)

Random single-row writes

d)

Real-time transactional logging

103.

Kubernetes for DBMS automation:

a)

Orchestrates containerized DBs for scaling

b)

No orchestration

c)

Manual k8s

d)

K8s deletion

104.

What is 'garbage collection' in SSDs?

a)

RAID parity calculation

b)

Buffering writes

c)

Indexing data

d)

Erasing and reclaiming invalid pages

105.

What is the primary goal of database security?

a)

To optimize query performance

b)

To manage data backups

c)

To increase data redundancy

d)

To protect data from unauthorized access, modification, or destruction

106.

Automated user provisioning:

a)

Manual users

b)

No users

c)

Creates users via scripts

d)

User deletion

107.

In big data, HDFS uses:

a)

Tape backups

b)

Single disk storage

c)

In-memory only

d)

Block-based replication across nodes

108.

What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) for DBMS?

a)

No code

b)

Automating DB setup via code like Terraform

c)

Manual infra

d)

Code deletion

109.

What is a deadlock in DBMS?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

A successful transaction commit

c)

A situation where two or more transactions wait indefinitely for each other

d)

A backup process

110.

3NF requires that a table is in 2NF and:

a)

Has no transitive dependencies

b)

Allows multivalued attributes

c)

Has partial dependencies

d)

Lacks a primary key

111.

What is synthetic full backup?

a)

Synthetic encryption

b)

Full queries

c)

Combining incremental to create full without source load

d)

No synthetic

112.

The full recovery model in DBMS supports:

a)

No log backups

b)

Automatic data loss

c)

Point-in-time restores using log backups

d)

Only full backups

113.

DataOps automates:

a)

No dataops

b)

Data lifecycle

c)

Manual dataops

d)

Dataops deletion

114.

Automated load balancing in DBMS:

a)

Serverless deletion

b)

No serverless

c)

Scaling and maintenance

d)

Manual server

115.

A common database security certification is:

a)

Backup cert

b)

ISO 27001 for information security management

c)

SQL standard

d)

Data compression cert

116.

Zabbix for DB monitoring:

a)

Automates alerts

b)

Manual zabbix

c)

No zabbix

d)

Zabbix deletion

117.

What is a common threat in statistical databases?

a)

Inference attacks deriving sensitive info from aggregates

b)

Network eavesdropping

c)

Direct access attacks

d)

Physical theft

118.

Recovery testing should be:

a)

Regular to validate procedures

b)

Test encryption

c)

No testing

d)

Testing queries

119.

A superkey is:

a)

A subset of attributes that uniquely identifies a tuple

b)

Always a primary key

c)

A set of attributes that may include extras but uniquely identifies a tuple

d)

A foreign key

120.

Hot backup allows:

a)

Logs ignored

b)

Backups while database is operational

c)

Shutdown required

d)

No consistency

121.

File-level backups are:

a)

No files

b)

Granular for individual files

c)

File encryption

d)

Block only

122.

Grandfather-father-son is a:

a)

Son queries

b)

No rotation

c)

Rotation scheme for backups

d)

Family encryption