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Database Systems and Security Worksheet (Grade 13)

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Automated testing for DB includes:

a)

Unit tests for stored procedures

b)

Manual testing

c)

No testing

d)

Test deletion

2.

The Biba model in MAC emphasizes:

a)

Availability

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Encryption

d)

Integrity with no read-down, no write-up

3.

Automated partitioning in DBMS:

a)

Splits tables for performance

b)

Partitioning deletion

c)

Manual partitioning

d)

No partitioning

4.

A B+ tree differs from a B-tree in that:

a)

It uses hashing

b)

All values are stored in leaf nodes, with internal nodes for navigation

c)

Leaves are not linked

d)

It allows unbalanced structures

5.

What is a honeypot in database security?

a)

An encryption tool

b)

A query optimizer

c)

A decoy system to attract and detect attackers

d)

A backup mechanism

6.

Automated failover in high availability:

a)

Failover deletion

b)

Switches to replica on primary failure

c)

No failover

d)

Manual failover

7.

NoSQL backup strategies include:

a)

No NoSQL

b)

SQL only

c)

NoSQL encryption

d)

Consistent dumps or replication snapshots

8.

What is fanout in a B-tree?

a)

The number of leaf nodes

b)

The number of levels in the tree

c)

The maximum number of children per node

d)

The height of the tree

9.

What does 'seek time' refer to in hard disk drives?

a)

Time to move the read/write head to the correct track

b)

Time for error correction

c)

Time to rotate the disk to the correct sector

d)

Time to transfer data from disk to memory

10.

Referential integrity maintains:

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Consistency between related tables via foreign keys

c)

Null values in primary keys

d)

Duplicate records

11.

To prevent SQL injection, DBMS applications should use:

a)

Plain text inputs

b)

Static SQL only

c)

No input validation

d)

Prepared statements and parameterized queries

12.

A table is in 1NF if:

a)

It has a primary key

b)

It has no composite attributes and no repeating groups

c)

All attributes depend on the primary key

d)

It allows partial dependencies

13.

Automated data cleansing:

a)

Uses scripts to fix inconsistencies

b)

Cleansing deletion

c)

Manual cleansing

d)

No cleansing

14.

Which of the following is considered a secondary storage device in DBMS?

a)

Cache memory

b)

CPU registers

c)

Magnetic disks

d)

RAM

15.

Warm standby server means:

a)

Cold with no data

b)

Always online primary

c)

Secondary server with periodic restores (hoặc Log shipping, not fully real-time)

d)

Hot with real-time sync

16.

What does two-factor authentication (2FA) add to DBMS security?

a)

Query optimization

b)

Automatic data backups

c)

A second verification step beyond passwords

d)

Role creation

17.

In flash-based SSDs, what is 'wear leveling'?

a)

Compressing data

b)

Mirroring

c)

Distributing writes evenly to prolong lifespan

d)

Striping data

18.

PowerShell for DB scripting:

a)

Manual powershell

b)

Automates Windows DB tasks

c)

No powershell

d)

Powershell deletion

19.

Disk backups offer:

a)

Encryption only

b)

No restores

c)

Faster restores than tape

d)

Slower than tape

20.

Automated performance tuning in DBMS involves:

a)

Ignoring query plans

b)

No tuning

c)

Tools like Oracle ADDM or MySQL Advisor for automatic optimizations

d)

Manual indexing always

21.

What is pitting in tape media?

a)

Degradation over time

b)

Tape queries

22.

In DB CI/CD, Jenkins is used for what?

a)

Builds pipelines for schema deploys

b)

No jenkins

c)

Jenkins deletion

d)

Manual jenkins

23.

Which ACID property ensures that a transaction is treated as a single unit?

a)

Atomicity

b)

Durability

c)

Isolation

d)

Consistency

24.

Cloud database security often involves:

a)

No responsibility

b)

Shared responsibility models between provider and user

c)

User only

d)

Provider only

25.

Which tool is commonly used for automated database schema migrations?

a)

Liquibase or Flyway

b)

Manual SQL scripts only

c)

Query optimizers

d)

Data encryption tools

26.

What is the primary purpose of a Database Management System (DBMS)?

a)

To perform arithmetic calculations on data

b)

To manage and organize data efficiently, ensuring data integrity and security

c)

To create graphical user interfaces for applications

d)

To store data in files without any structure

27.

What is a recovery catalog?

a)

No metadata

b)

Query catalog

c)

Metadata repository for backups

d)

Catalog encryption

28.

NoSQL databases are typically used for:

a)

Strictly structured data

b)

Small datasets

c)

Unstructured or semi-structured data with high scalability

d)

Only relational data

29.

Backup retention policy defines:

a)

No retention

b)

Policy queries

c)

How long backups are kept

d)

Retention encryption

30.

Puppet is used for:

a)

Data entry

b)

Manual puppet

c)

Puppet encryption

d)

Automating infrastructure and DB config

31.

What is a common big data security challenge?

a)

Small data only

b)

Securing vast, distributed datasets in environments like Hadoop

c)

No distribution

d)

Centralized big data

32.

Backup encryption protects:

a)

Data in backups from unauthorized access

b)

Backup deletion

c)

No protection

d)

Encryption queries

33.

Ansible is a tool for:

a)

Encryption

b)

Manual config

c)

Data querying

d)

Configuration management and automation of DB deployments

34.

RPO stands for:

a)

Backup point

b)

Recovery Time Objective

c)

Point of encryption

d)

Recovery Point Objective - acceptable data loss

35.

Crash recovery in DBMS refers to:

a)

Recovering from media failure

b)

Restoring after system crash using logs

c)

Network recovery

d)

Physical backups

36.

What is the primary purpose of data backup in DBMS?

a)

To normalize tables

b)

To encrypt data

c)

To protect against data loss due to failures or disasters

d)

To increase query performance

37.

Automated vacuuming in PostgreSQL:

a)

Reclaims space automatically

b)

Manual vacuum

c)

No vacuum

d)

Vacuum deletion

38.

In DBMS, what is fragmentation?

a)

Backup

b)

Data corruption

c)

Normalization

d)

Dividing data across sites in distributed systems

39.

In disk storage, what is a 'block' or 'page'?

a)

A variable-length record

b)

A RAID level

c)

An index structure

d)

A fixed-size unit of data transfer between disk and memory

40.

What is the main advantage of the network data model over the hierarchical model?

a)

It eliminates all data redundancy

b)

It allows many-to-many relationships

c)

It uses tables for data storage

d)

It is based on objects

41.

In storage, 'IOPS' stands for:

a)

Internal Operations Per Second

b)

Input Operations Per Stripe

c)

Input/Output Operations Per Second

d)

Index Optimization Per Scan

42.

Privacy-Enhancing Technologies (PETs) in DBMS include:

a)

Data deletion only

b)

No privacy

c)

Techniques like differential privacy for data analysis

d)

Full disclosure

43.

CI/CD for databases ensures:

a)

Data loss

b)

No changes

c)

Automated testing and deployment of schema changes

d)

Manual deployment

44.

Immediate update allows:

a)

Update delays

b)

Immediate encryption

c)

Changes written before commit, with undo logs

d)

No writes

45.

The database life cycle includes:

a)

Hardware purchase only

b)

Only coding

c)

Requirements analysis, design, implementation, maintenance

d)

Data deletion

46.

What is slotted page organization?

a)

Used only for indexes

b)

For sequential files

c)

A header with pointers to variable-length records in a page

d)

Records stored in fixed slots

47.

What is a composite index?

a)

Index on a single attribute

b)

Hash index

c)

Sparse index

d)

Index on multiple attributes concatenated

48.

Cloud backups provide:

a)

Scalable, offsite storage with redundancy

b)

Manual redundancy

c)

No scalability

d)

Local only

49.

In hash indexing, what is a bucket?

a)

A collection of records sharing the same hash value

b)

A disk block

c)

An index node

d)

A single record

50.

Hot swapping in storage systems allows:

a)

Indexing hot spots

b)

Compressing hot data

c)

Buffering swaps

d)

Replacing disks without shutting down the system

51.

Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) in DBMS encrypts:

a)

User passwords only

b)

Data in transit only

c)

Query results

d)

Data at rest without application changes

52.

Redo phase reapplies:

a)

No reapply

b)

Redo encryption

c)

Uncommitted transactions

d)

Committed transactions

53.

Cold backup is taken when:

a)

During transactions

b)

With logs only

c)

Database is online

d)

Database is shut down

54.

SaltStack for automation:

a)

No salt

b)

Manages configs

c)

Salt deletion

d)

Manual salt

55.

Replication in DBMS for recovery:

a)

Replicates backups only

b)

Copies data changes to replicas for redundancy

c)

Replicates queries

d)

No redundancy

56.

What is data encryption in DBMS?

a)

Indexing data for faster retrieval

b)

Transforming data to protect it from unauthorized access

c)

Compressing data for storage

d)

Converting data to a readable format

57.

In DBMS, data loss prevention (DLP) tools:

a)

Optimize loss

b)

Monitor and block unauthorized data exfiltration

c)

Prevent backups

d)

Lose data intentionally

58.

Which type of backup copies all data since the last full backup?

a)

Differential backup

b)

Incremental backup

c)

Full backup

d)

Transaction log backup

59.

What is 'mirroring' in RAID?

a)

Copying data to multiple disks for redundancy

b)

Merging logs

c)

Striping without parity

d)

Parity calculation

60.

What is federated identity management?

a)

Federated encryption

b)

No management

c)

Isolated identities

d)

Centralized authentication across multiple systems

61.

In a clustered index:

a)

Indexes are stored separately from data

b)

Only one per database

c)

Multiple indexes share the same structure

d)

Data records are physically ordered by the index key

62.

In ER diagrams, relationships are represented by:

a)

Circles

b)

Rectangles

c)

Ovals

d)

Diamonds

63.

Automated data replication:

a)

Syncs data across sites

b)

Replication deletion

c)

Manual replication

d)

No replication

64.

What is 'pinning' a buffer frame?

a)

Compressing it

b)

Deleting it

c)

Marking it as unavailable for replacement

d)

Indexing it

65.

Automated load balancing in DBMS (duplicate):

a)

No balancing

b)

Distributes queries across replicas

c)

Balancing deletion

d)

Manual balancing

66.

DevOps tools for DB like DBMaestro:

a)

Devops deletion

b)

No devops

c)

Enforces change management

d)

Manual devops

67.

In the three-schema architecture of DBMS, which level deals with how data is stored on disk?

a)

Conceptual schema

b)

External schema

c)

Internal schema

d)

User schema

68.

Which concurrency control technique uses locks?

a)

Timestamping

b)

Multiversion concurrency control

c)

Locking protocols

d)

Validation

69.

Tape backups are suitable for:

a)

Online access

b)

Small data

c)

Archival and large-volume storage

d)

Fast restores

70.

What is 'defragmentation' in file systems?

a)

Striping data

b)

Indexing fragments

c)

Reorganizing fragmented files for contiguous allocation

d)

Compressing files

71.

Auditing in DBMS involves:

a)

Granting permissions

b)

Recording user activities for review

c)

Backing up data

d)

Optimizing queries

72.

What is quantum-resistant encryption?

a)

Resistant to all

b)

Quantum encryption

c)

No resistance

d)

Algorithms secure against quantum computing attacks

73.

What is a view in DBMS?

a)

A virtual table derived from one or more base tables

b)

A physical table

c)

A backup file

d)

An index

74.

What is a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

a)

No events

b)

Event optimization

c)

Tool for real-time analysis of security alerts

d)

Information deletion

75.

What is phishing in the context of DBMS security?

a)

Network optimization

b)

Data compression

c)

A social engineering attack to steal credentials

d)

A fishing algorithm

76.

In DBMS, access control lists (ACLs) specify:

a)

Permissions for users on objects

b)

Data backups

c)

Encryption keys

d)

Query plans

77.

Partial recovery restores:

a)

Full only

b)

Partial encryption

c)

Specific objects like tables

d)

No partial

78.

Biometric authentication in DBMS uses:

a)

Only passwords

b)

Physical characteristics like fingerprints

c)

Query history

d)

IP addresses

79.

What is 'data striping' in storage?

a)

Buffering data

b)

Compressing data

c)

Distributing data blocks across multiple disks

d)

Indexing data

80.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on:

a)

Data encryption levels

b)

Individual user IDs

c)

Network IP addresses

d)

User roles within the organization

81.

What does the term "data abstraction" refer to in DBMS?

a)

Deleting unnecessary data

b)

Hiding the complexity of data storage from users

c)

Converting data into binary format

d)

Storing data in multiple locations for backup

82.

What is 'erasure coding' in storage?

a)

Using parity for data recovery with less overhead than replication

b)

Coding indexes

83.

In DBMS, certificate-based authentication uses:

a)

Query certificates

b)

Digital certificates for verifying identities

c)

Paper certificates

d)

No certificates

84.

What is a primary index?

a)

Created on the ordering key of a sorted file

b)

Used only for secondary storage

c)

Allows duplicate keys

d)

Built on a non-key attribute

85.

What is Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)?

a)

Allows transitive dependencies

b)

A weaker form of 1NF

c)

A stronger form of 3NF where every determinant is a candidate key

d)

Equivalent to 2NF

86.

Automated role management:

a)

No roles

b)

Role deletion

c)

Assigns privileges dynamically

d)

Manual roles

87.

The ARIES algorithm is used for:

a)

Encryption

b)

Crash recovery with write-ahead logging

c)

Indexing

d)

Data compression

88.

What does 'write-ahead logging' relate to in storage?

a)

RAID configuration

b)

Buffering reads

c)

Indexing

d)

Ensuring changes are logged before writing to disk for recovery

89.

In DBMS, an index is used to:

a)

Compress data on disk

b)

Store the actual data records

c)

Provide a faster way to locate records without scanning the entire file

d)

Encrypt sensitive fields

90.

The 'fill factor' in indexes refers to:

a)

Fanout

b)

Number of levels

c)

Percentage of space left empty in nodes for future inserts

d)

Height

91.

What is data mining?

a)

Storing data

b)

Extracting patterns from large datasets

c)

Deleting data

d)

Compressing data

92.

Chef for DB automation:

a)

Chef deletion

b)

Manual chef

c)

Manages configurations declaratively

d)

No chef

93.

What is normalization in database design?

a)

Encrypting data

b)

Increasing data redundancy

c)

Backing up data

d)

Organizing data to minimize redundancy and dependency

94.

Database vault technologies provide:

a)

Backup storage

b)

Data deletion

c)

Query caching

d)

Extra layers of access control for sensitive data

95.

A multivalued attribute in ER model is:

a)

Represented by a double oval

b)

Part of the primary key

c)

A single value attribute

d)

Always null

96.

AI-driven automation in DBMS can:

a)

Ignore AI

b)

Manual tuning

c)

AI deletion

d)

Tune parameters using machine learning

97.

Database recovery is needed after:

a)

Queries

b)

Backups

c)

Successful transactions

d)

System failures or errors

98.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) in DBMS is characterized by:

a)

No auditing requirements

b)

Role-based assignments only

c)

User-discretionary permissions

d)

System-enforced policies based on labels (e.g., classified, secret)

99.

Extendible hashing uses:

a)

Tree structures

b)

Fixed bucket sizes

c)

Sorted buckets

d)

A directory that doubles in size for dynamic growth

100.

Which data model represents data as a collection of tables with rows and columns?

a)

Object-oriented model

b)

Hierarchical model

c)

Relational model

d)

Network model

101.

What is a phantom read in transaction isolation?

a)

Non-repeatable read

b)

A dirty read

c)

Seeing new rows inserted by another transaction

d)

Reading committed data

102.

The 'C' in ACID stands for:

a)

Connectivity

b)

Compression

c)

Consistency

d)

Concurrency

103.

What is a stored procedure?

a)

A precompiled set of SQL statements stored in the database and executed by name

b)

A graphical user interface form for entering data

c)

A physical file where tables are stored

d)

A variable that holds session state for a user

104.

What is DBaaS in the context of automation?

a)

Database as a Service, automating provisioning and management

b)

Manual database setup

c)

Query service

d)

Data backup only

105.

In distributed DBMS, security challenges include:

a)

Automatic auditing

b)

Only local authentication

c)

Securing data across multiple sites and networks

d)

No need for encryption

106.

In storage hierarchies, tertiary storage is typically:

a)

Magnetic tapes or optical jukeboxes for archival

b)

SSDs

c)

Cache

d)

RAM

107.

Deferred update in recovery:

a)

Immediate update

b)

No update

c)

Deferred encryption

d)

Logs changes but applies after commit

108.

In DBMS, a full backup includes:

a)

Only changed data

b)

Only transaction logs

c)

Indexes only

d)

The entire database at a point in time

109.

What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 6?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

110.

What is two-phase commit in distributed databases?

a)

A locking mechanism

b)

Ensuring all sites commit or abort a transaction

c)

Query optimization

d)

Data normalization

111.

What does a primary key in a relational database ensure?

a)

Uniqueness of each record in a table

b)

Data redundancy

c)

Automatic backups

d)

Data encryption

112.

The main goal of query optimization is:

a)

To delete data

b)

To increase data redundancy

c)

To create views

d)

To find the most efficient way to execute a query

113.

What is a common method to secure data in transit?

a)

Avoiding networks

b)

Using SSL/TLS protocols

c)

Compressing data

d)

Storing data unencrypted

114.

Automated data migration tools:

a)

No migration

b)

Manual migration

c)

Migration deletion

d)

Like DMS in AWS for seamless transfers

115.

A database anomaly like insertion anomaly occurs due to:

a)

Too many indexes

b)

High concurrency

c)

Data encryption

d)

Poor normalization

116.

Variable-length records use:

a)

No separators

b)

Always null padding

c)

Delimiters or length prefixes to separate fields

d)

Fixed offsets

117.

What is 'index-only scan'?

a)

Retrieving data without accessing the table

b)

Using only primary indexes

c)

Full table scan

d)

Scanning buffers

118.

Automated monitoring in DBMS involves:

a)

Tools like Prometheus for alerting on metrics

b)

Monitoring deletion

c)

Manual checks

d)

No monitoring

119.

What does ETL stand for in data warehousing?

a)

Execute, Test, Launch

b)

Extract, Transform, Load

c)

Edit, Translate, Link

d)

Encrypt, Transmit, Log

120.

In DBMS, what is behavioral analytics?

a)

Analytic encryption

b)

Using AI to detect deviations from normal user behavior

c)

Behavior deletion

d)

No behavior

121.

Automated backup in DBMS:

a)

Backup deletion

b)

Schedules regular backups without manual intervention

c)

Manual backups only

d)

No backups

122.

Failover in recovery is:

a)

No switch

b)

Switching to secondary system

c)

Fail encryption

d)

Failing over data

123.

Continuous data protection (CDP) allows:

a)

Fixed points only

b)

CDP encryption

c)

No recovery

d)

Recovery to any point in time