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Defining IT Infrastructure

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines IT infrastructure in a firm?

a)

Temporary project tools without firm-wide use

b)

A single enterprise application for all departments

c)

Shared technology resources forming application platforms

d)

Individual employee devices used for personal tasks

2.

Fill in the blank: IT infrastructure provides the (a)   for a firm’s specific information system applications.

3.

Which investment is typically part of IT infrastructure and shared across business units?

a)

Hardware, software, and consulting services

b)

Physical office layouts and furniture

c)

Marketing campaigns and brand assets

d)

Human resources policies and payroll

4.

A firm wants to improve vendor collaboration and internal process management. What should it prioritize to enable these services?

a)

Outsourcing all development offshore

b)

Launching more consumer advertisements

c)

Hiring only non-technical sales staff

d)

Strengthening IT infrastructure capabilities

5.

In the diagram showing Business Strategy, IT Strategy, and IT Services and Infrastructure, what is the primary role of infrastructure regarding strategy alignment?

a)

Support business and information systems strategies

b)

Replace business strategy with technology choices

c)

Limit services offered to customers and suppliers

d)

Operate independently from strategic planning

6.

A company adopts a new cloud platform. Using strategic reasoning, which outcome aligns with the service-oriented view presented?

a)

Expanded customer, supplier, and enterprise services

b)

Reduced service availability across all stakeholders

c)

No change to business or IT strategies at all

d)

Elimination of the need for shared resources

7.

Which statement best describes firmwide IT services within an enterprise?

a)

Shared human and technical capabilities across all units

b)

Isolated tools for individual departments only

c)

Ad hoc systems built by employees informally

d)

External vendor solutions without internal roles

8.

Computing platforms primarily enable which outcome for a firm?

a)

Replace organizational policies with automation

b)

Eliminate the need for mobile devices entirely

c)

Encrypt all files using end‑to‑end algorithms

d)

Connect stakeholders in a coherent digital environment

9.

Telecommunication services provide connectivity for which types of media?

a)

Data, voice and video

b)

Voice and print

c)

Audio and graphics

d)

Text and images

10.

Data management services are mainly responsible for what function?

a)

Train employees in basic system use

b)

Design user interfaces for applications

c)

Configure wireless network hardware

d)

Store, manage and enable data analysis

11.

Application software services typically include enterprise-wide tools such as ERP, CRM, SCM and KMS.

a)

True but limited to finance modules

b)

False because they are only desktop apps

c)

True for shared online capabilities

d)

False since CRM is a telecom system

12.

Fill in the blank: Physical facilities management services develop and manage the physical (a)   required for computing and telecommunications.

13.

IT management services coordinate with business units to plan infrastructure and handle which additional responsibility?

a)

Write all application code in-house

b)

Draft national telecom regulations

c)

Operate external data centers alone

d)

Manage accounting for IT expenditure

14.

IT standards services establish policies that determine which technology will be used, along with what two aspects?

a)

Cost and staffing

b)

When and how

c)

Security and privacy

d)

Why and where

15.

IT education services mainly provide which support to staff and managers?

a)

Training in system use and investment planning

b)

Daily hardware repairs and replacements

c)

On-call network encryption services

d)

Personal productivity coaching only

16.

IT research and development services help a firm differentiate itself by doing what?

a)

Standardize legacy system documentation

b)

Research future IT projects and investments

c)

Run the help desk for password resets

d)

Limit experimentation to proven tools

17.

Which combination best illustrates the scope of computing platforms in a firm?

a)

Cloud‑only infrastructure without endpoints

b)

Mainframes, midrange, desktops, laptops, mobile, cloud

c)

Desktops only for on‑premises development

d)

Smartphones and tablets for executives

18.

A retail company wants seamless collaboration among employees, customers and suppliers. Which firmwide service is most central to achieving this?

a)

IT standards services for policy compliance only

b)

Data management services for archival storage

c)

Physical facilities management for building maintenance

d)

Computing platforms enabling a coherent digital environment

19.

Which era marks the beginning of general‑purpose mainframe and minicomputer use in organizations?

a)

1992 to present era

b)

1981 to present era

c)

1959 to present era

d)

1983 to present era

20.

Fill in the blank: The personal computer era spans from (a)   to present.

21.

Which era most directly enabled widespread distributed applications between clients and servers?

a)

Cloud and mobile computing, 2000 to present

b)

Enterprise computing era, 1992 to present

c)

Client/server era, 1983 to present

d)

Personal computer era, 1981 to present

22.

Organizations aiming to integrate systems across departments most likely emerged in which listed era?

a)

Client/server era, 1983 to present

b)

Personal computer era, 1981 to present

c)

Enterprise computing era, 1992 to present

d)

General‑purpose mainframe era, 1959 to present

23.

A startup prioritizing on‑demand resources and mobile access is aligning with which era?

a)

General‑purpose mainframe era, 1959 to present

b)

Enterprise computing era, 1992 to present

c)

Client/server era, 1983 to present

d)

Cloud and mobile computing, 2000 to present

24.

Which IBM series first offered commercial time sharing, multitasking, and virtual memory?

a)

IBM 1401 transistorized line

b)

IBM 7090 scientific series

c)

IBM System/360 family

d)

IBM VAX compatible line

25.

In 1959, the introduction of which machines marked widespread commercial use of mainframes?

a)

DEC PDP-11 and VAX

b)

Cray-1 and Cray-2

c)

IBM 1401 and 7090

d)

UNIVAC I and II

26.

Mainframe computing in large corporations was characterized primarily by (a)   control.

27.

What infrastructure pattern distinguished the mainframe era in corporate data centers?

a)

Peer-to-peer community networks

b)

Single-vendor hardware and software

c)

Open-source multi-vendor stacks

d)

Cloud-native microservices

28.

Which DEC product line enabled decentralized computing at lower cost than IBM mainframes?

a)

DEC Rainbow PCs

b)

DEC Alpha servers

c)

DEC PDP-11 minicomputers

d)

DEC VT terminal series

29.

Why did minicomputers gain traction in the late 1960s and 1970s?

a)

They required fewer programmers overall

b)

They offered powerful machines at lower price

c)

They eliminated proprietary data lines entirely

d)

They were smaller but less powerful

30.

Describe a realistic scenario where a university shifts from a single mainframe to minicomputers. Which benefit most directly motivates the change?

a)

Elimination of networking needs

b)

Increased dependence on one vendor

c)

Customized computing for departments

d)

Centralized control over all terminals

31.

In recent years, the minicomputer evolved into which role within networks?

a)

Supercomputing accelerator

b)

Mobile handheld device

c)

Midrange computer or server

d)

Personal desktop computer

32.

In the leftmost image, identify the system often credited as a modular mainframe design that influenced enterprise computing in the 1960s.

a)

UNIVAC I business data processor

b)

Cray-1 vector supercomputer

c)

DEC PDP-8 laboratory minicomputer

d)

IBM System/360 modular mainframe

33.

Compare the middle images featuring DEC PDP-11 racks with the rightmost modern server row. What key difference in I/O interaction is most evident from the visuals?

a)

Batch card readers versus GPU accelerators

b)

Tape reels versus optical networking gear

c)

Front-panel switches versus remote management

d)

Analog meters versus liquid cooling manifolds

34.

In the modern data center image on the second slide, the standardized enclosure used to mount servers is called a (a)   .

35.

Which event is commonly marked as the start of the modern personal computer era?

a)

Debut of Windows 3.0 in 1990

b)

Launch of MS-DOS in 1983

c)

Release of IBM PC in 1981

d)

Introduction of Ethernet in 1973

36.

Fill in the blank: A Wintel PC refers to a computer running (a)   on an Intel microprocessor.

37.

Which statement best explains why early machines like the Xerox Alto and MITS Altair 8800 did not define the PC era?

a)

They were only used in government labs

b)

They lacked graphical displays for users

c)

They were more expensive than mainframes

d)

They had limited distribution to enthusiasts

38.

Which combination lists typical personal desktop productivity tools that proliferated with PCs in the 1980s and early 1990s?

a)

Word processors, spreadsheets, presentations

b)

Compilers, debuggers, kernel modules

c)

Antivirus, firewalls, intrusion systems

d)

CAD suites, PLC controllers, SCADA

39.

Before widespread networking in the 1990s, how were most PCs deployed?

a)

As cloud-connected terminals

b)

As thin clients to mainframes

c)

As clustered supercomputers

d)

As stand-alone systems

40.

Reasoning task: A firm in 1982 wants to decentralize computing. Which choice aligns with the trend described for that period?

a)

Adopt IBM PCs across departments

b)

Expand a centralized mainframe

c)

Delay purchases until Windows 95

d)

Replace microprocessors with minicomputers

41.

Identify the device category shown in the middle image labeled “Altair 8800 Microcomputer.”

a)

An early microcomputer kit

b)

A vector graphics terminal

c)

A dedicated network router

d)

A tape-based storage unit

42.

Which statement best describes client/server computing?

a)

Servers only store files without processing

b)

Clients run all tasks without network support

c)

Servers connect to clients for local backups

d)

Clients connect to servers to split processing

43.

In a client/server setup, what is the primary role of the client?

a)

Hosting web pages for browsers

b)

Managing network routing tasks

c)

Processing shared enterprise data

d)

User entry point for applications

44.

Fill in the blank: The term (a)   refers to both the software application that provides services and the physical computer running network software.

45.

Which example best matches a two-tier architecture in this era?

a)

Server clusters forward to multiple proxies

b)

Desktop client talks directly to server

c)

Client runs database locally and remotely

d)

Client communicates through three middleware layers

46.

A company needs to serve millions of web requests. Which server hardware choice aligns with the described era’s trend?

a)

Low-power thin client appliance

b)

Multi-processor commodity server racks

c)

Single-user desktop with large HDD

d)

Legacy mainframe without networking

47.

Consider the division of work in client/server computing. Which pairing is most appropriate?

a)

Client: routing; Server: user input handling

b)

Client: database; Server: keyboard management

c)

Client: backups; Server: display rendering

d)

Client: interface; Server: processing and storage

48.

Which networking standard enabled firms to tie disparate networks into an enterprise-wide infrastructure in the mid-1990s?

a)

Common Object Request Broker Architecture

b)

File Transfer Protocol over dial-up

c)

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

d)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol suite

49.

Fill in the blank: By the early 1990s, firms adopted networking standards and software tools to integrate (a)   networks and applications across the organization.

50.

Which combination best describes the hardware linked by an enterprise-wide infrastructure?

a)

Game consoles, smart TVs, drones

b)

Mainframes, servers, PCs, mobile devices

c)

Printers, scanners, webcams only

d)

Single supercomputer without peripherals

51.

Why did information start to flow freely across organizations after adoption of TCP/IP? Choose the best explanation.

a)

It reduced hardware costs dramatically

b)

It standardized communication across heterogeneous networks

c)

It replaced all legacy applications instantly

d)

It required private leased lines for every site

52.

A company plans to connect its telephone system, Internet access, and public network services with internal applications. What must be included besides hardware to enable seamless data flow?

a)

Manual data entry between departments

b)

High-end GPUs for visualization

c)

Software to link applications and enable data flow

d)

Proprietary cabling standards only

53.

You are tasked with modernizing a firm that still uses isolated departmental networks. Outline the first strategic step to move toward an enterprise-wide infrastructure.

a)

Adopt TCP/IP and integrate networks using standardized tools

b)

Eliminate mobile devices from the environment

c)

Replace every PC with a new model immediately

d)

Disconnect mainframes to avoid complexity

54.

Which statement best describes cloud computing in modern IT infrastructure?

a)

Replacing the Internet with private leased lines

b)

Running all applications only on local desktops

c)

Using offline storage for data backups exclusively

d)

Accessing a shared pool of resources over networks

55.

Fill in the blank: In cloud computing, resources are provided on an (a)   basis from any connected device.

56.

Which example aligns with Software as a Service (SaaS)?

a)

Building custom middleware for internal APIs

b)

Subscribing to a web-based CRM platform monthly

c)

Installing a desktop-only spreadsheet program

d)

Buying servers for in-house database hosting

57.

A firm needs to rapidly add compute and storage during peak season. Which cloud characteristic enables this?

a)

Fixed capacity purchased upfront

b)

Elastic scalability in data centers

c)

Manual hardware installation onsite

d)

Periodic offline resource pooling

58.

Which scenario best applies the client device concept in cloud computing?

a)

An IoT sensor logging to onboard memory only

b)

A printer storing backups locally overnight

c)

A mainframe isolated from any network

d)

A tablet accessing applications via the Internet

59.

You are evaluating providers for remote IT infrastructure. Which evidence supports choosing a hyperscale cloud operator?

a)

Specializes in low-speed dial-up connectivity

b)

Provides only offline packaged software media

c)

Focuses on single-office LAN installation services

d)

Operates huge centers with compute, storage, high-speed links

60.

A company wants to maintain IT infrastructure remotely while delivering software to customers over the Internet. Which combination fits this goal?

a)

Migrate to offline backups and disable web access

b)

Use scalable cloud centers and deliver apps as SaaS

c)

Purchase local hardware and ship CDs to clients

d)

Deploy private dial-up and install desktop binaries

61.

Which stage in IT infrastructure evolution first introduces distributed client machines connecting to a central server over local networks, as depicted in the left diagram?

a)

Cloud and mobile computing era with Internet

b)

Client/server era with networked clients

c)

Personal computer era with standalone devices

d)

Mainframe/minicomputer era with terminals

62.

In an N-tier client/server network, which tier is responsible for business logic processing between the web server and the data store?

a)

Application server tier

b)

Web presentation tier

c)

Client workstation tier

d)

Database storage tier

63.

Fill in the blank: The seven major components of IT infrastructure include (a)   , operating system platforms, and enterprise software applications.

64.

Which item is NOT listed among the seven major components of IT infrastructure?

a)

Data management and storage

b)

Internet platforms

c)

Project management methodologies

d)

Consulting system integration services

65.

Which component category would include Microsoft Windows, Linux, macOS, Android, and iOS in the ecosystem diagram?

a)

Networking/telecommunications

b)

Enterprise software applications

c)

Internet platforms

d)

Operating systems platforms

66.

Which vendor appears under data management and storage in the ecosystem diagram?

a)

SAP for enterprise middleware

b)

Apple for client devices

c)

Cisco for networking hardware

d)

IBM DB2 for databases

67.

Select the best description of an N-tier architecture benefit illustrated in the right diagram.

a)

Combines all logic on client machines

b)

Separates presentation, logic, and data layers

c)

Requires a single monolithic mainframe

d)

Eliminates need for Internet connectivity

68.

Which evolution era emphasizes company-wide connectivity with multiple servers linking departments?

a)

Cloud and mobile computing era

b)

Personal computer era

c)

Enterprise computing era

d)

Mainframe/minicomputer era

69.

Which ecosystem category lists Apache and Microsoft IIS as examples?

a)

Consultants and system integrators

b)

Operating systems platforms

c)

Internet platforms

d)

Data management and storage

70.

A company needs expert help to integrate SAP with existing systems. Which component category is most relevant?

a)

Computer hardware platforms

b)

Internet platforms

c)

Operating systems platforms

d)

Consultants and system integrators

71.

Which device category is primarily used by end users for personal productivity and mobile tasks?

a)

Mainframes for transaction processing

b)

Servers in data center racks

c)

Network routers and switches

d)

Client machines like laptops and phones

72.

Identify the platform designed to handle huge volumes of transactions and data in banking and telecommunications.

a)

Personal desktop towers

b)

Enterprise mainframe systems

c)

Departmental file servers

d)

Client laptops and smartphones

73.

Fill in the blank: The leading provider historically associated with mainframes is (a)   .

74.

Which statement best distinguishes client machines from servers?

a)

Client machines mount in data center racks

b)

Servers are optimized for handheld use

c)

Servers primarily provide touch interfaces

d)

Client machines run user applications locally

75.

Which operating systems are commonly used for corporate servers?

a)

Windows 10 Home, macOS, iPadOS

b)

DOS, BeOS, AmigaOS

c)

Android, iOS, Chrome OS

d)

Windows Server, Unix, Linux

76.

Which operating systems typically run on client devices like laptops, phones, and Chromebooks?

a)

Unix and BSD variants

b)

Proprietary middleware platforms

c)

Windows OS, Android, iOS, Chrome OS

d)

Only Linux server distributions

77.

A bank needs reliable batch processing and high-throughput transaction handling. Which hardware platform should it prioritize?

a)

Consumer tablets for mobility

b)

Distributed web servers only

c)

Mainframes as digital workhorses

d)

Desktop PCs with gaming GPUs

78.

Explain the trade-off implied by “desktop chips vs. mobile chips.” Which option captures the typical difference?

a)

Mobile chips always have more cores than desktop chips

b)

Mobile chips favor performance; desktop chips favor battery life

c)

Both chip types are identical in design and power

d)

Desktop chips favor performance; mobile chips favor efficiency

79.

Choose the best OS for hosting enterprise applications that need strong multiuser and security features on servers.

a)

Unix or Linux distributions

b)

Android with multitouch UI

c)

iOS for mobile devices

d)

Windows 10 Home edition

80.

Fill in the blank: Google’s lightweight client operating system focused on cloud computing is (a)   .

81.

Which feature best explains why organizations choose Windows Server for enterprise IT infrastructures?

a)

Exclusive support for legacy peripherals

b)

Built-in gaming services for consumers

c)

Low-cost desktop customization tools

d)

Enterprise-wide OS and network services

82.

Fill in the blank: Unix and Linux are (a)   , reliable, and less expensive than mainframe operating systems.

83.

Which statement describes a scalability advantage of Unix/Linux in heterogeneous environments?

a)

They only run on proprietary chipsets

b)

They can run on many processor types

c)

They require specialized mainframe CPUs

d)

They depend on single-vendor hardware

84.

A company wants Windows across PCs and tablets with multitouch. Which versions meet this need?

a)

Windows Vista and XP editions

b)

Windows 10 and Windows 8

c)

Windows Server Core only

d)

Windows 7 Starter releases

85.

Which characteristic defines Android’s development model for mobile devices?

a)

Open-source by the Open Handset Alliance

b)

Shareware maintained by volunteers

c)

Proprietary licensed to handset makers

d)

Closed-source managed by a single vendor

86.

Fill in the blank: Android competes with iOS, Apple’s mobile operating system for the iPhone, (a)   , and iPod Touch.

87.

An IT planner must choose a server OS that appeals to organizations seeking Windows-based infrastructures. Which option fits best?

a)

Android Enterprise Edition

b)

Microsoft Windows Server

c)

Unix with GNOME desktop

d)

Linux for smartphones

88.

Which market reality supports adopting Android for broad device deployment worldwide?

a)

Installed on less than ten percent of phones

b)

Installed only on niche developer devices

c)

Installed exclusively on Apple hardware

d)

Installed on more than half of mobile devices