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A&P Midterm Worksheet Questions (Grade 10)

Total questions: 183

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How an organ functions is the study of:

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Chemistry

d)

Biology

2.

All the organ systems working together forms:

a)

An organ

b)

A tissue

c)

An organism

d)

Homeostasis

3.

Which body region includes the lungs?

a)

Cranial

b)

Vertebral

c)

Abdominopelvic

d)

Thoracic

4.

Which body region is the most superior?

a)

Orbital Region

b)

Oral Region

c)

Sternal Region

d)

Thoracic Region

5.

What body region is the most lateral?

a)

Nasal

b)

Umbilical

c)

Brachial

d)

Sternal

6.

This model shows a _____ section or plane view of the head.

a)

Transverse

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Frontal

d)

Acute

7.

True or False: The stomach is anterior to the back.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which of the following is not a part of the 4 requirements of human life?

a)

Water

b)

Light

c)

Oxygen

d)

Pressure

9.

What is the name of the process of regulating the level of glucose, water, ions, and temperature in the body so that it can remain at equilibrium?

a)

Respiration

b)

Gross Anatomy

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Anabolism

10.

Which level of the structural organization of the human body is the least complex?

a)

Cellular

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Chemical

11.

True or False: Body temperature is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

______ feedback mechanisms enhance or accelerate processes.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Reactive

13.

______ is a metabolic reaction where smaller molecules are created into larger molecules (building reaction).

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

c)

Hydrophilic

14.

Which of the following is not one of the four elements that make up about 96% of the human body?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Calcium

d)

Hydrogen

15.

Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called:

a)

Ions

b)

Isotopes

c)

Molecules

d)

Compounds

16.

Which chemical bond is responsible for sharing electrons

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

17.

Which type of chemical bond involves the transfer of electrons?

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Peptide bond

18.

A substance with a pH of 2 is best described as:

a)

A weak base

b)

Neutral

c)

A strong acid

d)

A strong base

19.

Which state of matter maintains a constant volume but not a fixed shape?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

20.

Which organic compound is made of amino acids linked by peptide bonds?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

21.

Which of the following reactions builds larger molecules from smaller ones?

a)

Decomposition (catabolism)

b)

Synthesis (anabolism)

c)

Exchange

d)

Hydrolysis

22.

What determines the chemical properties of an element:

a)

Number of protons

b)

Number of electrons in the valence shell

c)

Number of neutrons

d)

Atomic mass

23.

Which type of transport requires ATP?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Filtration

24.

______ occurs when the genetic code is converted to messenger RNA (mRNA).

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

25.

______ occurs when a copy of the genetic code is converted into an amino acid sequence (protein) by ribosomes.

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

26.

Ribosome — match the correct function.

a)

Synthesizes lipids, steroids, and glycogen

b)

Site of protein synthesis

c)

Packages proteins for export and modifies plasma membrane

d)

Digests worn-out organelles and pathogens

e)

Synthesizes proteins for export; has ribosomes attached

27.

Lysosome — match the correct function.

a)

Synthesizes lipids, steroids, and glycogen

b)

Site of protein synthesis

c)

Packages proteins for export and modifies plasma membrane

d)

Digests worn-out organelles and pathogens

e)

Synthesizes proteins for export; has ribosomes attached

28.

Rough ER — match the correct function.

a)

Synthesizes lipids, steroids, and glycogen

b)

Site of protein synthesis

c)

Packages proteins for export and modifies plasma membrane

d)

Digests worn-out organelles and pathogens

e)

Synthesizes proteins for export; has ribosomes attached

29.

Smooth ER — match the correct function.

a)

Synthesizes lipids, steroids, and glycogen

b)

Site of protein synthesis

c)

Packages proteins for export and modifies plasma membrane

d)

Digests worn-out organelles and pathogens

e)

Synthesizes proteins for export; has ribosomes attached

30.

Golgi apparatus — match the correct function.

a)

Synthesizes lipids, steroids, and glycogen

b)

Site of protein synthesis

c)

Packages proteins for export and modifies plasma membrane

d)

Digests worn-out organelles and pathogens

e)

Synthesizes proteins for export; has ribosomes attached

31.

Hypotonic means

a)

Water moves in to the cell

b)

Water moves out of the cell

c)

No net movement

32.

Which direction does water move during osmosis?

a)

Up & Down

b)

Side to Side

c)

Low to High

d)

High to Low

33.

Which phrase best fits the function of epithelial tissue?

a)

Movement

b)

Boundary

c)

Sending messages

d)

Connecting

34.

What is the difference between the apical surface of epithelial tissue and the basal surface?

a)

The apical surface is not attached and is exposed; the basal surface is attached to underlying connective tissue

b)

The basal surface is not attached and is exposed; the apical surface is attached to the underlying connective tissue

c)

The apical surface attaches to the basement membrane; the basal surface does not

d)

The apical surface is avascular; the basal surface is vascular

35.

Which type of epithelial cell classification describes a flat cell?

a)

Squamous

b)

Simple

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Columnar

e)

Pseudostratified

36.

Which is true about the layers of the epidermis versus the dermis?

a)

There are 5 layers of the epidermis and 2 layers of the dermis

b)

There are 5 layers of the epidermis and 5 layers of the dermis

c)

There are 2 layers of the epidermis and 5 layers of the dermis

d)

There are 5 layers of the epidermis, but no layers of the dermis

e)

There are no layers to the epidermis, but 5 layers of the dermis

37.

Which is the proper order of the layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep?

a)

Stratum basale – stratum spinosum – stratum granulosum – stratum lucidum – stratum corneum

b)

Stratum corneum – stratum lucidum – stratum spinosum – stratum granulosum – stratum basale

c)

Stratum corneum – stratum lucidum – stratum granulosum – stratum spinosum – stratum basale

d)

Stratum corneum – stratum granulosum – stratum lucidum – stratum spinosum – stratum basale

e)

Stratum corneum – stratum granulosum – stratum spinosum – stratum lucidum – stratum basale

38.

Which is NOT a function of connective tissue?

a)

Binding & supporting

b)

Insulating

c)

Sending messages

d)

Transporting substances

39.

What is the difference between loose and dense connective tissue proper?

a)

Dense has many spaces in the matrix, loose has few spaces in the matrix

b)

Loose has many spaces in the matrix, dense has few spaces in the matrix

40.

Which type of cell produces new bone matrix?

a)

Chondrocytes

b)

Condroblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoblasts

41.

A muscle is contracted when it is

a)

Flexed because electricity is present

b)

Lengthened because electricity is absent

c)

Shortened because electricity is present

d)

Lengthened because electricity is present

42.

Which type of muscle tissue is completely voluntary?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

d)

Both a & b

43.

Which characteristic of muscle tissue allows it to return to its original shape after being stretched or contracted?

a)

Extensibility

b)

Contractility

c)

Flexibility

d)

Elasticity

44.

Which characteristic of muscle tissue enables it to receive and respond to stimulation from nerves?

a)

Excitability

b)

Responsiveness

c)

Contractility

d)

Elasticity

45.

What is the proper order of structures of a skeletal muscle from largest to smallest?

a)

Muscle – muscle fiber – fascicle – sarcomere – myofilament – myofibril

b)

Muscle – fascicle – muscle fiber – myofibril – sarcomere – myofilament

c)

Muscle – fascicle – myofibril – sarcomere – muscle fiber – myofilament

46.

What happens first in muscle contraction?

a)

Cross-bridge cycling

b)

Delivery of an action potential at the neuromuscular junction

c)

Myosin detachment

d)

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

47.

What happens first in muscle contraction?

a)

Cross-bridge cycling

b)

Delivery of an action potential at the neuromuscular junction

c)

Myosin detachment

d)

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

48.

A cross-bridge forms when which two specific components meet?

a)

Actin & troponin

b)

Myosin & ATP

c)

Myosin heads & myosin binding sites

d)

Calcium ions & troponin

49.

Which of the major four types of tissue includes bone?

a)

Adipose tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Skeletal muscle tissue

d)

Connective tissue

e)

Nervous tissue

50.

The skull is part of which skeleton?

a)

Axial

b)

Appendicular

c)

Peripheral

d)

Sagittal

51.

Which type of bone is typically cube-shaped and found in areas like the wrist and ankle?

a)

Flat bone

b)

Irregular bone

c)

Short bone

d)

Sesamoid bone

52.

Which type of bone includes examples like the ribs, sternum, and some skull bones, and provides protection for underlying structures?

a)

Flat bone

b)

Long bone

c)

Short bone

d)

Irregular bone

53.

What role do osteoblasts play in bone development?

a)

Break down bone

b)

Reabsorb calcium

c)

Building and forming new bone matrix

d)

Forming new blood vessels

54.

True or False: Blood vessels do not regrow in a bone after a fracture.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Cells require oxygen for which essential biological process?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Hormone regulation

c)

ATP production through cellular respiration

d)

Clot formation

56.

The purpose of your cardiovascular system is to ________.

a)

Produce hormones that function as chemical messengers through the body

b)

Bring oxygen into the body and send CO2 out of the body

c)

Send, receive, and interpret electrical impulses

d)

Transport blood to and from every living cell in the body

e)

Rid the body of waste products, such as urea and excess vitamins

57.

What is your heart made of?

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Dense regular connective tissue

58.

What is the difference between an artery and a vein?

a)

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood to the heart

b)

Arteries carry blood to the heart; veins carry blood away from the heart

c)

Arteries deliver blood to the lungs; veins deliver blood to the body cells

d)

Arteries deliver blood to the body cells; veins deliver blood to the lungs

59.

Where does the left side of the heart pump blood to?

a)

The lungs

b)

The body tissues

c)

The right side of the heart

60.

The pulmonary veins carry ______ blood.

a)

Oxygen-rich

b)

Oxygen-poor

61.

The right side of the heart carries ______ blood.

a)

Oxygen-rich

b)

Oxygen-poor

62.

What does an EKG measure?

a)

Blood sugar levels

b)

Oxygen saturation in the bloodstream

c)

Electrical activity of the brain

d)

Electrical activity of the heart

63.

What is the valve that opens to send blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Bicuspid valve

c)

Aortic valve

d)

Pulmonary valve

64.

Which blood vessels carry blood from the heart to the lungs?

a)

Aorta

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Pulmonary arteries

d)

Pulmonary veins

65.

Which is NOT a process of respiration?

a)

External respiration

b)

Transport of O2 and CO2

c)

Internal respiration

d)

Filtration and secretion

e)

Pulmonary ventilation

66.

Pulmonary ventilation is also known as ________.

a)

External respiration

b)

Internal respiration

c)

Breathing

d)

Diffusion

67.

Where does external respiration occur?

a)

Tissue cells

b)

Mouth and nose

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

68.

Which system most directly helps the respiratory system to transport oxygen to our cells?

a)

Nervous system

b)

Reproductive system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Cardiovascular system

69.

Which body cavities is the diaphragm between?

a)

Cranial and thoracic

b)

Abdominal and pelvic

c)

Thoracic and abdominal

d)

Thoracic and spinal

70.

Which structure monitors the level of CO2 carried in the blood?

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

Kidneys

d)

Brain stem

71.

Which best describes breathing rate?

a)

It is completely voluntary

b)

It is completely involuntary

c)

It is typically voluntary, but the body can take over in times of high anxiety and stress

d)

It is mainly involuntary, but a person can override the system and control their own breathing rate

72.

When blood reaches the tissue cells, which is true of the concentration of CO2?

a)

CO2 is higher in the blood than it is in the body tissues, so it diffuses into the body tissues from the blood

b)

CO2 is lower in the blood than it is in the body tissues, so it diffuses out of the body tissues and enters the blood

c)

CO2 is equal in the blood and body tissues, so it passes by the body tissues without diffusing

73.

Which type of bone has a long diaphysis and two epiphyses?

a)

Long bone

b)

Short bone

c)

Flat bone

d)

Irregular bone

e)

All types of bones!

74.

Which of the following is the final step in the fracture repair process?

a)

Hard callus formation

b)

Hematoma formation

c)

Soft callus formation

d)

Bone remodeling

75.

Fill in the blanks below to label the 3 different body planes. Identify the plane that divides the body into left and right portions.

a)

Sagittal (median) plane

b)

Frontal (coronal) plane

c)

Transverse (horizontal) plane

d)

Oblique plane

76.

Fill in the blanks below to label the 3 different body planes. Identify the plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.

a)

Frontal (coronal) plane

b)

Sagittal (median) plane

c)

Transverse (horizontal) plane

d)

Oblique plane

77.

Fill in the blanks below to label the 3 different body planes. Identify the plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions.

a)

Transverse (horizontal) plane

b)

Frontal (coronal) plane

c)

Sagittal (median) plane

d)

Oblique plane

78.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the armpit region on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Axillary

b)

Antebrachial

c)

Carpal

d)

Coxal

79.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the forearm region on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Antebrachial

b)

Brachial

c)

Carpal

d)

Crural

80.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the arm (upper limb proximal segment) on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Brachial

b)

Antebrachial

c)

Femoral

d)

Crural

81.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the wrist region on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Carpal

b)

Tarsal

c)

Patellar

d)

Pubic

82.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term labels the digits of the upper limb on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Digital (upper limb)

b)

Patellar

c)

Pelvic

d)

Frontal

83.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term labels the digits of the lower limb on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Digital (lower limb)

b)

Carpal

c)

Tarsal

d)

Coxal

84.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the ankle region on the anterior view diagram?

a)

Tarsal

b)

Carpal

c)

Crural

d)

Femoral

85.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the anterior knee region on the diagram?

a)

Patellar

b)

Femoral

c)

Pubic

d)

Pelvic

86.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the thigh region on the diagram?

a)

Femoral

b)

Crural

c)

Coxal

d)

Brachial

87.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the leg (lower limb between knee and ankle) on the diagram?

a)

Crural

b)

Femoral

c)

Coxal

d)

Brachial

88.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the hip region on the diagram?

a)

Coxal

b)

Pelvic

c)

Pubic

d)

Axillary

89.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the pelvis region on the diagram?

a)

Pelvic

b)

Pubic

c)

Coxal

d)

Abdominal

90.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the genital/groin area on the diagram?

a)

Pubic

b)

Pelvic

c)

Coxal

d)

Abdominal

91.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the mouth region on the diagram?

a)

Oral

b)

Otic

c)

Nasal

d)

Buccal

92.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the ear region on the diagram?

a)

Otic

b)

Oral

c)

Buccal

d)

Frontal

93.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the cheek region on the diagram?

a)

Buccal

b)

Oral

c)

Otic

d)

Mental

94.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the chin region on the diagram?

a)

Mental

b)

Nasal

c)

Frontal

d)

Buccal

95.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the nose region on the diagram?

a)

Nasal

b)

Oral

c)

Buccal

d)

Frontal

96.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which anatomical term refers to the forehead region on the diagram?

a)

Frontal

b)

Nasal

c)

Mental

d)

Buccal

97.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Choose the positional description that labels an area above the umbilical region on the diagram.

a)

Superior to the umbilical region

b)

Inferior to the umbilical region

c)

Lateral thoracic

d)

Medial thoracic

98.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Choose the positional description that labels an area below the umbilical region on the diagram.

a)

Inferior to the umbilical region

b)

Superior to the umbilical region

c)

Lateral thoracic

d)

Medial thoracic

99.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which label best describes a mark near the midline of the chest on the diagram?

a)

Medial thoracic

b)

Lateral thoracic

c)

Axillary

d)

Pelvic

100.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which label best describes a mark toward the sides of the chest on the diagram?

a)

Lateral thoracic

b)

Medial thoracic

c)

Axillary

d)

Pelvic

101.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which regional term labels the abdomen on the diagram?

a)

Abdominal

b)

Pelvic

c)

Pubic

d)

Coxal

102.

Use the directional terms below to label the anterior view of the cadaver. Which label indicates the far end of the femur near the knee on the diagram?

a)

Distal end of femur

b)

Proximal end of femur

c)

Distal end of tibia

d)

Proximal end of humerus

103.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled Flat cells with its correct shape classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Squamous epithelium

b)

Cuboidal epithelium

c)

Columnar epithelium

104.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled Box-like cells with its correct shape classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Squamous epithelium

b)

Cuboidal epithelium

c)

Columnar epithelium

105.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled Tall & skinny cells with its correct shape classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Squamous epithelium

b)

Cuboidal epithelium

c)

Columnar epithelium

106.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled One layer of cells with its correct layering classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Simple epithelium

b)

Stratified epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified epithelium

107.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled Two or more layers of cells with its correct layering classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Simple epithelium

b)

Stratified epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified epithelium

108.

Label the epithelium shown under the panel titled Appears layered, but is only one layer with its correct layering classification. Use the image as reference.

a)

Simple epithelium

b)

Stratified epithelium

c)

Pseudostratified epithelium

109.

Using the word bank (biceps brachii, sternocleidomastoid, soleus, gracilis, sartorius, gastrocnemius, rectus abdominis, adductors, deltoid), identify the muscle labeled at the rounded shoulder cap in the anterior view.

a)

Deltoid

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Rectus abdominis

110.

Using the word bank, identify the long anterior neck muscle labeled at the side of the neck in the anterior view.

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Deltoid

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Gastrocnemius

111.

Using the word bank, identify the anterior upper arm muscle labeled on the front of the humerus.

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Deltoid

c)

Sartorius

d)

Gracilis

112.

Using the word bank, identify the vertical muscle group labeled in the midline of the abdomen (the "six-pack") in the anterior view.

a)

Rectus abdominis

b)

Adductors

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Soleus

113.

Using the word bank, identify the medial thigh muscle group labeled along the inner thigh responsible for bringing the legs together.

a)

Adductors

b)

Sartorius

c)

Gracilis

d)

Soleus

114.

Using the word bank, identify the long strap-like muscle labeled that runs diagonally across the anterior thigh from the hip to the medial knee.

a)

Sartorius

b)

Gracilis

c)

Adductors

d)

Gastrocnemius

115.

Using the word bank, identify the slender medial thigh muscle labeled near the inner knee that lies superficial to the adductors.

a)

Gracilis

b)

Sartorius

c)

Adductors

d)

Deltoid

116.

Using the word bank, identify the prominent calf muscle labeled on the posterior portion visible from the anterior view near the upper calf.

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Soleus

c)

Tibialis anterior

d)

Rectus abdominis

117.

Using the word bank, identify the deeper calf muscle labeled along the lower sides of the calf just above the ankle in the anterior view.

a)

Soleus

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Deltoid

118.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
119.
Armpit
a)
Brachial
b)
Axillary
c)
Deltoid
d)
Acromila
120.
The scapula is on the anterior/posterior side of the body?
a)
deep
b)
posterior
c)
medial
d)
anterior
121.
A body part is above another part, or is closer to the head
a)
Superficial
b)
Lateral
c)
Superior
d)
Deep
122.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
123.

The spine is _______ compared to the face.

a)

anterior

b)

lateral

c)

posterior

d)

proximal

124.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
125.
uncharged subatomic partical
a)
proton
b)
neutron
c)
electron
d)
atoms
126.
area around the nucleus of an atom that contains negatively charged subatomic particles
a)
electron cloud
b)
active site
c)
buffer cloud
d)
electron helix
127.
To catalyze a chemical reaction means to _______ the activation energy required to complete the chemical reaction. 
a)
raise
b)
lower
c)
keep at the same level
d)
Blah, blah, blah
128.
Which of the following is not an inorganic compound?
a)
water
b)
salts
c)
acids
d)
nucleic acids
129.
energy source, energy storage, and insulation
a)
carb
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
130.
Enzymes are 
a)
carbs
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
131.

What does pseudostratified mean?

a)

Many layers of cells

b)

Single layer that looks like many layers of cells

c)

Single layer of cells

d)

No layer of cells

132.
Where is epithelial tissue found?
a)
glands
b)
covering body surfaces
c)
lines organs
d)
all of the above
133.

Which type of tissue is avascular (no blood vessels) and tightly packed?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Areolar

d)

Adipose

134.
Which tissue is this?
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Stratified Squamous
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Pseudostratified columnar
135.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
136.

The hypodermis is part of your skin.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Sweat is also known as sebum.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

Hair is made of dead melanocytes.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Which is NOT an appendage of the skin?

a)

Sweat glands

b)

Oil glands

c)

Hair

d)

The hypodermis

e)

Nails

140.

Which is NOT a function of your skin?

a)

Protecting your body from outside invaders

b)

Regulating temperature

c)

Taking in oxygen

d)

Sensing touch and temperature

141.
Skin color is due to a pigment called
a)
Keratin
b)
Melanin
c)
Chromatin
d)
Epithelium
142.

Which layer of your skin is replaced about every 4 weeks?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

All of them

143.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
144.

During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

145.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
146.

PMAT helps us remember the correct order of the phases of Mitosis. Which of the following has the phases of Mitosis in the correct Order

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase

c)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

147.
During which stage of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm and its contents divide?
a)
Interphase
b)
Synthesis
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
148.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
149.

The functions are the skeletal system are

a)

To support the body, protect the organs, store calcium, and produce blood cells

b)

to regulate the composition of body fluids by removing metabolic wastes and retain the balance of water, salt, and other nutrients

c)

to regulate and maintain bodily functions by producing hormones and releasing them into the blood stream

d)

to enable the diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream and the removal of carbon dioxide from the bloodstream

150.

Where is new blood cells created?

a)

In the scapula

b)

In bone marrow, located inside the bone

c)

In the patella

d)

In bone marrow, located inside the muscle tissue

151.

This is present at the end of a bone and acts as a cushion.

a)

cartilage

b)

tendon

c)

ligament

d)

bone marrow

152.
The human skeleton can be subdivided into two parts. What part is made up of the skull, sternum, vertebral column and rib cage?
a)
appendicular
b)
axial
153.
What type of bone is the scapula?
a)
long bone
b)
short bone
c)
flat bone
d)
sesamoid bone
154.
What type of bone is the femur?
a)
Long bone
b)
Short bone
c)
Flat bone
d)
Irregular bone
155.
Calcium, fat, and other nutrients are ______ in the _______ marrow of long bones.
a)
synthesized/yellow
b)
synthesized/red
c)
stored/yellow
d)
stored/red
156.
The shaft of the bone
a)
diaphysis
b)
epiphysis
c)
medullary cavity
d)
matrix
157.

The axial skeleton is

a)

the head and trunk

b)

the limbs

c)

the whole skeleton

d)

just the head

158.

Where does the bone get its nutrients?

a)

yellow marrow

b)

arteries

c)

red marrow

d)

calcium

159.

Epiphyseal plate is also known as the

a)

epiphyseal line

b)

growth plate

c)

kid bone plate

160.

Cartilage on the ends of the bone is the

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

articular cartilage

c)

soft cartilage

161.

When a bone is broken and a fragment of bone protrudes through an open wound in the skin it is __________.

a)

Open Fracture

b)

Closed Fracture

c)

Simple Fracture

d)

Compound Fracture

162.

What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To digest food

b)

To transport nutrients, gases, and waste products throughout the body

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To control body temperature

163.

Which blood vessel carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Superior vena cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary vein

164.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the intrinsic conduction system?

a)

SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers → bundle branches

b)

AV node → SA node → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

c)

AV node → AV bundles → Purkinje fibers → SA node

d)

SA node → AV node → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

165.

Which numbers represent the Right atria and ventricle?

a)

9 & 7

b)

8 & 6

c)

8 & 9

d)

6 & 7

166.

Identify the following structures based on the diagram below Which numbers represent the pulmonary artery and veins?

a)

1 & 13

b)

2 & 3

c)

2 & 10

d)

3 & 13

167.

Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the _____.

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary Arteries

c)

Vena Cava

d)

Pulmonary Veins

168.

Oxygenated blood is brought from the lungs to the heart through the ___.

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Pulmonary Arteries

169.

This is the site of gas exchange in the lungs.

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchus

c)

Trachea

d)

Pharynx

170.

Which is NOT a process of respiration?

a)

External respiration

b)

Transport of O2 and CO2

c)

Internal respiration

d)

Filtration and secretion

e)

Pulmonary ventilation

171.

Pulmonary ventilation is also known as _______________________.

a)

External respiration

b)

Internal respiration

c)

Breathing

d)

Diffusion

172.

What happens during internal respiration?

a)

O2 diffuses out from the lungs into the blood; CO2 diffuses into the lungs from the blood

b)

O2 diffuses into the lungs into the blood; CO2 diffuses out of the lungs from the blood

c)

O2 diffuses out from the tissues into the blood; CO2 diffuses into the tissues from the blood

d)

O2 diffuses into the tissues into the blood; CO2 diffuses out of the tissues from the blood

173.

Which best describes breathing rate?

a)

It is completely voluntary

b)

It is completely involuntary

c)

It is typically voluntary, but the body can take over in times of high anxiety and stress

d)

It is mainly involuntary, but a person can override the system and control their own breathing rate

174.

Matching: Respiratory Tract Anatomy – Select the structure that matches: 300 million air-filled sacs in each lung.

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchioles

c)

Bronchi

d)

Nasal cavity

175.

Matching: Respiratory Tract Anatomy – Select the structure that matches: Covered in capillaries.

a)

Alveoli

b)

Trachea

c)

Larynx

d)

Nose

176.

Matching: Respiratory Tract Anatomy – Select the structure that matches: Full of hair and mucous to trap microbes.

a)

Nose

b)

Nasal cavity

c)

Pharynx

d)

Mouth

177.

Matching: Respiratory Tract Anatomy – Select the structure that matches: Contracts and relaxes to cause inspiration and expiration.

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Larynx

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Trachea

178.

Fill-in-the-Blank: Vocabulary – Choose the correct term to complete the sentence: The process by which our cells convert oxygen and glucose to ATP is known as _____.

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

External respiration

c)

Internal respiration

d)

Ventilation

179.

Fill-in-the-Blank: Vocabulary – Choose the correct term to complete the sentence: When a substance moves from high to low concentration, this is known as _____.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Filtration

d)

Ventilation

180.

How do the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system work together? (3 points)

a)

The respiratory system loads oxygen into the blood and removes CO2, and the cardiovascular system transports these gases between the lungs and body tissues

b)

The cardiovascular system controls breathing rhythm while the respiratory system pumps blood

c)

The respiratory system digests nutrients for the heart, and the cardiovascular system absorbs them through alveoli

d)

The cardiovascular system filters air in the trachea, while the respiratory system moves blood through arteries

181.

Do alveoli have large or small surface area? Why? (2 points)

a)

Large surface area to maximize diffusion and gas exchange

b)

Small surface area to reduce water loss

c)

Large surface area to prevent airflow resistance

d)

Small surface area to minimize oxygen uptake

182.

Which electron shell can hold a maximum of 8 electrons and has more energy than the k shell?

a)

L shell

b)

M shell

c)

Valence Shell

d)

Core shell

183.

What happens first in muscle contraction?

a)

Cross-bridge cycling

b)

Delivery of an action potential at the neuromuscular junction

c)

Myosin detachment

d)

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum