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2024 NYS FBLA Business Law

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

“Straight Bankruptcy” is obtained under what chapter of the Bankruptcy Act?

a)

7

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

2.

The U.S. Constitution specifies that ______ has exclusive power to establish “uniform laws on the subject of bankruptcies throughout the United States.”

a)

the President

b)

the U.S. Supreme Court

c)

the Federal Trade Commission

d)

none of the above

3.

Under federal bankruptcy law, all is considered exempt property except

a)

alimony

b)

child support

c)

student loans

d)

pensions

4.

If a person owes $10,000 on a credit card that has a 36% annual interest rate, and they make only a minimum payment each month equal to the interest charge, how much is the monthly payment?

a)

$30

b)

$300

c)

$360

d)

$3,600

5.

The federal Fair Credit Billing Act provides that creditors must mail bills at least _____ days before the due date, must acknowledge billing inquiries within _____ days and must settle any complaints within _____ days.

a)

14, 30, 60

b)

14, 30, 90

c)

15, 30, 60

d)

15, 30, 90

6.

The Federal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act prevents the following practices except

a)

threats of violence

b)

communication with the debtor at work

c)

letters demanding payment

d)

harassment of debtors

7.

A claim against real property given to a builder, carpenter, plumber, or others involved in construction or repair of real property is

a)

mechanic’s lien

b)

suretyship

c)

artisan’s lien

d)

unsecured debt

8.

A(n) ______ party who agrees to be secondarily liable for the obligations of the principal debtor.

a)

guarantor

b)

insolvent

c)

garnishment

d)

pledgor

9.

A ______ is a brief, written notice of the existence of a security interest in the identified property.

a)

statement of perfection

b)

termination abatement

c)

repossession agreement

d)

none of the above

10.

A termination statement in a consumer goods secured transaction must be filed within _____ days of the payoff or within _____ days of a written request.

a)

30, 10

b)

30, 60

c)

60, 10

d)

60, 30

11.

If a consumer has paid ______ percent or more of the debt before having the collateral repossessed, the creditor may not keep the collateral in satisfaction of the debt unless the consumer agrees in writing.

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

40%

d)

60%

12.

A legal filing that makes subsequent creditors aware of a lien against potential collateral is called

a)

secured transaction

b)

secured agreement

c)

constructive notice

d)

pledge

13.

A ______ is a claim against specified property of the debtor, such as interest being created in favor of the creditor to assure payment of the debt.

a)

perfected security debt

b)

purchase money security debt

c)

security interest

d)

right of possession

14.

Rights to money, goods, or promises to perform specified contracts is called

a)

intangible property

b)

pledgor

c)

secured party

d)

creditor

15.

A ______ is a transfer of possession of property to a creditor to insure payment of debt.

a)

right of possession

b)

pledge

c)

termination statement

d)

constructive notice

16.

A document filed to provide notice of an established security interest to other potential creditors is

a)

financing statement

b)

security agreement

c)

transaction agreement

d)

creditor’s statement

17.

If, upon receiving an account statement, an error of overbilling is detected by a consumer in an EFT, it must be reported within _____ days from the date the statement was sent

a)

10

b)

15

c)

60

d)

none of the above

18.

Which of the following would not discharge an instrument?

a)

payment

b)

alteration

c)

unintentional destruction

d)

all of the above would discharge the instrument

19.

A holder who takes commercial paper in good faith without knowledge of any defect or overdue status and who gives value for it is known as

a)

consumer transaction

b)

holder through a holder in due course (HHDC)

c)

holder through limited defenses (HLD)

d)

holder in due course (HDC)

20.

In one day, Barbara bought a new couch and paid by check, bought lunch and paid with her credit card, took out cash from an ATM at her bank, and transferred funds by phone from her savings to checking account. Which of these transactions are EFTs?

a)

check and credit card

b)

credit card and ATM cash

c)

check and ATM cash

d)

check and transfer of funds by phone

21.

______ is commercial paper legally collectible by the party in possession.

a)

Bearer paper

b)

Order paper

c)

Unqualified indorsement

d)

Acceleration clause

22.

Status of paper that is to be paid on presentment or at sight is called

a)

payable on demand

b)

negotiable instrument

c)

payable at a definite time

d)

postdated

23.

Indorsement consisting only of the signature of the indorser is a ______ indorsement.

a)

qualified

b)

restrictive

c)

special

d)

blank

24.

A ______ indorsement that eliminates the indorser’s secondary liability to pay if the primarily liable party does not.

a)

special

b)

blank

c)

qualified

d)

restrictive

25.

Someone who joins another in signing as a maker, drawer, acceptor, or indorser of an instrument in order to bolster the creditworthiness of the latter party is known as

a)

bearer

b)

holder

c)

acceleration clause

d)

accommodation party

26.

_____ are the only two types of indorsements that determine how the instrument is to be negotiated are:

a)

Blank and qualified

b)

Blank and special

c)

Qualified and blank

d)

Qualified and restrictive

27.

An instrument that is payable on presentment is termed a ______ instrument.

a)

liquid

b)

collateral

c)

demand

d)

antedated

28.

A promissory note is physically issued on June 6 of this year. Which of the following dates, if actually entered on the face of the instrument as the date of issue, would make it antedated?

a)

June 5

b)

June 7

c)

July 7

d)

June 6

29.

Which of the following wordings would not result in the paper being payable to the party in possession of it?

a)

pay to bearer

b)

pay to cash

c)

pay to Sherlock Holmes

d)

all of the above would result in the paper being payable to the possessor.

30.

If the indorsement on a negotiable instrument reads: "pay to the order of Michelle Holley" it is properly termed ______ paper.

a)

bearer

b)

order

c)

on demand

d)

holder

31.

An unconditional written promise or order to pay money is defined as

a)

order

b)

commercial paper

c)

money order

d)

draft

32.

A ______ is a draft drawn by a bank on funds it has on deposit with another bank.

a)

cashier’s check

b)

traveler’s check

c)

teller’s check

d)

sight draft

33.

Written instrument acknowledging a bank’s receipt of money and promising to repay it at a definite future time is called

a)

money order

b)

bill of exchange

c)

certificate of deposit

d)

promissory note

34.

The type of check that requires the owner to sign twice on its face is a

a)

cashier’s check

b)

certified check

c)

teller’s check

d)

traveler’s check

35.

Unconditional written orders or promises to pay money is collectively known as

a)

commercial promises

b)

IOUs

c)

intentional credit instruments

d)

none of the above

36.

A(n) ______ is a form of business organization that offers limited liability only to the consequences of conduct involving torts.

a)

limited liability partnership-LLP

b)

limited liability corporation-LLC

c)

S corporation

d)

operating agreement

37.

Taxation of a corporation as an entity based on its earnings and then of the shareholders on corporate dividends is called

a)

distributive shares

b)

double taxation

c)

federal taxation

d)

state taxation

38.

Which of the following records do not have to be kept in the limited partnership’s designated office within the certifying state?

a)

tax records for the last five years

b)

names and addresses of all the general partners

c)

names and addresses of all the limited partners

d)

copies of the certificate of limited partnership and its amendments

39.

What is the maximum number of stockholders in a subchapter S corporation?

a)

15

b)

50

c)

100

d)

unlimited

40.

Individuals elected by the shareholders to be responsible for the general guidance of the corporation is known as

a)

directors

b)

debentures

c)

promoters

d)

incorporators

41.

Rules that protect management from being personally held criminally or civilly liable for a business decision made within the scope of power and authority granted by the corporate charter and applicable laws are called

a)

corporate charter rules

b)

preemptive right rules

c)

proxy rules

d)

business judgment rules

42.

_____ are rules for the internal organization and management of a corporation.

a)

Proxies

b)

Bylaws

c)

Articles of Incorporation

d)

Preemptive Rights

43.

Which of the following may result in a corporate dissolution?

a)

irresolvable internal corporate dispute

b)

corporate bankruptcy

c)

state-ordered forfeiture of the corporate charter

d)

all of the above

44.

Corporate debentures are

a)

secured

b)

unsecured

c)

state guaranteed

d)

federally guaranteed

45.

A legal device that allows the current stockholders of a corporation to maintain their percentage of ownership even when new stock offerings occur is called

a)

a permanent right

b)

a percentage right

c)

a preemptive right

d)

none of the above

46.

Which form of business is most likely to attract large sums of capital?

a)

sole proprietorship

b)

partnership

c)

limited liability partnership

d)

corporation

47.

Which of the following is not required to be in the articles of incorporation?

a)

name and address of each stockholder

b)

name of the corporation

c)

period of duration of the corporation

d)

purpose for which the corporation is organized

48.

A partner who is not publicly known but is actively managing is known as ______ partner.

a)

secret

b)

silent

c)

limited

d)

dormant

49.

A ______ partner is one whose potential liability is restricted to their investment in the partnership.

a)

secret

b)

silent

c)

limited

d)

non-trading

50.

Partner who is publicly known but not actively managing is known as a ______ partner.

a)

nominal

b)

dormant

c)

silent

d)

general

51.

Which of the following is not a duty of a partner?

a)

comply with partnership decisions

b)

not conduct competing business

c)

keep accurate records

d)

all of the above are duties

52.

Assumption of risk, contributory negligence, and negligence of a co-worker is called

a)

co-worker negligence

b)

positive law defenses

c)

common law defenses

d)

general duty clause

53.

Acting for the benefit of the employer is generally referred to as

a)

risk of employment

b)

scope of employment

c)

being an independent contractor

d)

none of the above

54.

Which of the following is not a common law defense to a negligence suit against an employer?

a)

contributory negligence

b)

OSHA violations in the workplace

c)

fellow-servant rule

d)

assumption of risk

55.

Which of the following is a preventative means of dealing with the potential for employee injuries?

a)

negligence suit

b)

job safety requirements

c)

worker’s compensation

d)

all of the above

56.

All the people who work for an employer that has been charged with employment discrimination is known as

a)

workforce pool

b)

hostile environment

c)

applicant pool

d)

unequal treatment

57.

An employer’s defense that actions were meant to advance the business rather than to create unjustified discrimination is called

a)

neutral on its face

b)

disparate impact

c)

business necessity

d)

bona fide seniority system

58.

Which of the following are grounds for illegal discrimination?

a)

disparate treatment

b)

disparate impact

c)

pattern and practice

d)

all of the above

59.

To win a case where the discrimination is admitted, the employee need only prove that they were denied employment because of membership in a:

a)

protected class

b)

religious group

c)

disabled group

d)

all of the above

60.

In a collective bargaining session, which of the following is an employer not required to bargain over?

a)

wages

b)

working conditions

c)

plant location

d)

the employer must bargain over all of the above

61.

A process by which a union ceases to be the exclusive bargaining agent for employees is

a)

decertification election

b)

boycott

c)

lockout

d)

ex-parte injunction

62.

______ is an attempt by a neutral third party to achieve a compromise between disputing parties.

a)

collective bargaining

b)

mediation

c)

representation election

d)

open shop

63.

Employment contracts in which employees agree not to join a union as a condition of employment is known as

a)

yellow-dog contracts

b)

open shop contract

c)

closed shop contracts

d)

agency shop contracts

64.

______ is the process whereby the union and the employer negotiate a contract of employment that binds both sides.

a)

Mediation

b)

Featherbedding

c)

Collective bargaining

d)

Boycotting

65.

A ______ occurs when an employer temporarily closes down operations to induce the workers and their representatives to alter their position on an issue.

a)

strike

b)

lockout

c)

shutout

d)

lockin

66.

Who determines the membership in the bargaining unit?

a)

the union

b)

the petitioning workers

c)

the National Labor Relations Board

d)

management

67.

Who conducts the certification elections?

a)

the union

b)

the petition workers

c)

the National Labor Relations Board

d)

management

68.

What percentage of workers in a union must petition the National Labor Relations Board to get it to conduct a decertification election?

a)

30%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

a majority

69.

The obligation to look out for the best interests of the employer is called duty of

a)

loyalty and honesty

b)

reasonable skill

c)

obedience

d)

reasonable performance

70.

_____ is known as the obligation to obey the reasonable orders of the employer.

a)

Duty of loyalty and honesty

b)

Duty of reasonable performance

c)

Duty of reasonable skill

d)

Duty of obedience

71.

Which of the following is not a duty owed by the employer to the employee?

a)

duty of reasonable treatment

b)

duty to provide safe working conditions

c)

duty to follow Fair Labor Standards

d)

all of the above are employer duties

72.

Any party who hires an independent contractor may be liable for the independent contractor’s torts if the work if it

a)

involves overtime

b)

is inherently dangerous

c)

requires professional skill

d)

was done without competence

73.

Which of the following is not a duty owed by employees to employers?

a)

duty of obedience

b)

duty of reasonable performance

c)

duty to follow immoral but not illegal instructions

d)

all of the above are employee duties

74.

Federal law is likely to supply which of the following terms in employment contracts?

a)

job title

b)

minimum wage

c)

job location

d)

work schedule

75.

Requirements that an agent act in the principal’s best interests is known as

a)

apparent authority

b)

power of attorney

c)

fiduciary duties

d)

express authority

76.

A(n) _____ is a person who authorizes another to enter into legal relationships on their behalf.

a)

principal

b)

agent

c)

undisclosed principal

d)

power of attorney

77.

Which of the following duties would be violated by the agent’s commingling of funds?

a)

loyal and obedience

b)

reasonable care and skill

c)

confidentiality

d)

accounting

78.

If an agent acts outside the agent’s authority, then

a)

the agent is liable to the third party for any injury caused by acting outside the scope of authority

b)

the principal is not bound

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

79.

A power of attorney generally contains a grant of what type of authority?

a)

implied authority

b)

express authority

c)

apparent authority

d)

necessary authority

80.

A trust created by the will of a deceased settlor is known as

a)

inter vivos trust

b)

testamentary trust

c)

end of vivos trust

d)

constructive trust

81.

Someone who is being unjustly enriched because of property he or she is holding may be required to transfer the property to another because of the enforcement of a(n) _____ trust.

a)

private

b)

charitable

c)

spendthrift

d)

constructive

82.

The typical time allowed for all creditors of the estate to file a claim against it is

a)

six months

b)

ten months

c)

1 year

d)

5 years

83.

Which of the following individuals would be eligible for survivor’s insurance upon the death of the insured?

a)

an ex-spouse who lived with the insured for at least 10 years and who is at least 60 years old

b)

the widower who is 55 years of age

c)

the widower caring for a child who is 19 years of age

d)

none of the above are eligible for survivor’s insurance

84.

Which of the following types of social insurance provides health insurance and hospital insurance for people age 65 and older?

a)

retirement insurance

b)

survivor’s insurance

c)

medicare insurance

d)

disability insurance

85.

Which of the following is a common exclusion in a property and casualty policy?

a)

loss due to depreciation

b)

loss due to pollution

c)

loss due to war

d)

all of the above

86.

Which of the following is not covered in the standard fire policy?

a)

losses due to fire

b)

losses due to lightning strikes

c)

losses due to inept attorneys

d)

none of the above

87.

A(n) _____ clause extends auto insurance coverage to members of the insured’s household.

a)

coinsurance

b)

omnibus

c)

verbal

d)

incontestability

88.

Which of the following types of insurance covers loss of or damage to property while it is being transported?

a)

surety

b)

fidelity

c)

bonding

d)

marine

89.

Power of the government to take private property for public use upon payment of the fair market price is known as

a)

eminent domain

b)

adverse possession

c)

restrictive covenant

d)

doctrine of capture

90.

A(n) _____ agreement that grants certain rights in the subject property to the tenant.

a)

easement

b)

variance

c)

leasehold estate

d)

subletting

91.

Which of the following must be in writing to be enforceable by a court?

a)

a lease for a period of two months

b)

a lease for a period of six months

c)

a lease for a period of 24 months

92.

Which of the following does not have the right of possession?

a)

fee simple absolute

b)

future interests

c)

conditional estates

d)

all of the above

93.

Which of the following is the most common estate?

a)

fee simple absolute

b)

conditional estate

c)

life estate

d)

non freehold estate

94.

The owner of land owes which of the following duties to a trespasser?

a)

to refrain from doing the trespasser intentional harm

b)

to warn them of known dangers

c)

to conduct reasonable searches for dangers

d)

all of the above

95.

A party who accepts possession and control of another’s personal property is called a

a)

bailor

b)

common carrier

c)

disclaimer

d)

bailee

96.

A(n) ____ is the type of bailment formed when a bailor leaves personal property with a hotelkeeper or a common carrier.

a)

gratuitous bailment

b)

constructive bailment

c)

extraordinary bailment

d)

involuntary bailment

97.

Fee for delay in loading or in unloading goods shipped by a common carrier is known as

a)

carrier’s lien

b)

demurrage

c)

consignment

d)

bailee’s lien

98.

A gift of an engagement ring would typically be a

a)

gift causa vivos

b)

gift causa mortis

c)

gift inter vivos

d)

none of the above

99.

If you were sailing off the coast of California and left a fishing line streaming behind the boat for three hours, and then you hooked a tuna and reeled it in, under which legal process would you become the owner of the fish?

a)

accession

b)

occupancy

c)

gift

d)

intestacy

100.

The elements of a lottery are _____ chance, and consideration.

a)

prize

b)

money

c)

price

d)

luck