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Worksheets2024 NYS FBLA Business Law
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
“Straight Bankruptcy” is obtained under what chapter of the Bankruptcy Act?
7
11
12
13
The U.S. Constitution specifies that ______ has exclusive power to establish “uniform laws on the subject of bankruptcies throughout the United States.”
the President
the U.S. Supreme Court
the Federal Trade Commission
none of the above
Under federal bankruptcy law, all is considered exempt property except
alimony
child support
student loans
pensions
If a person owes $10,000 on a credit card that has a 36% annual interest rate, and they make only a minimum payment each month equal to the interest charge, how much is the monthly payment?
$30
$300
$360
$3,600
The federal Fair Credit Billing Act provides that creditors must mail bills at least _____ days before the due date, must acknowledge billing inquiries within _____ days and must settle any complaints within _____ days.
14, 30, 60
14, 30, 90
15, 30, 60
15, 30, 90
The Federal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act prevents the following practices except
threats of violence
communication with the debtor at work
letters demanding payment
harassment of debtors
A claim against real property given to a builder, carpenter, plumber, or others involved in construction or repair of real property is
mechanic’s lien
suretyship
artisan’s lien
unsecured debt
A(n) ______ party who agrees to be secondarily liable for the obligations of the principal debtor.
guarantor
insolvent
garnishment
pledgor
A ______ is a brief, written notice of the existence of a security interest in the identified property.
statement of perfection
termination abatement
repossession agreement
none of the above
A termination statement in a consumer goods secured transaction must be filed within _____ days of the payoff or within _____ days of a written request.
30, 10
30, 60
60, 10
60, 30
If a consumer has paid ______ percent or more of the debt before having the collateral repossessed, the creditor may not keep the collateral in satisfaction of the debt unless the consumer agrees in writing.
20%
25%
40%
60%
A legal filing that makes subsequent creditors aware of a lien against potential collateral is called
secured transaction
secured agreement
constructive notice
pledge
A ______ is a claim against specified property of the debtor, such as interest being created in favor of the creditor to assure payment of the debt.
perfected security debt
purchase money security debt
security interest
right of possession
Rights to money, goods, or promises to perform specified contracts is called
intangible property
pledgor
secured party
creditor
A ______ is a transfer of possession of property to a creditor to insure payment of debt.
right of possession
pledge
termination statement
constructive notice
A document filed to provide notice of an established security interest to other potential creditors is
financing statement
security agreement
transaction agreement
creditor’s statement
If, upon receiving an account statement, an error of overbilling is detected by a consumer in an EFT, it must be reported within _____ days from the date the statement was sent
10
15
60
none of the above
Which of the following would not discharge an instrument?
payment
alteration
unintentional destruction
all of the above would discharge the instrument
A holder who takes commercial paper in good faith without knowledge of any defect or overdue status and who gives value for it is known as
consumer transaction
holder through a holder in due course (HHDC)
holder through limited defenses (HLD)
holder in due course (HDC)
In one day, Barbara bought a new couch and paid by check, bought lunch and paid with her credit card, took out cash from an ATM at her bank, and transferred funds by phone from her savings to checking account. Which of these transactions are EFTs?
check and credit card
credit card and ATM cash
check and ATM cash
check and transfer of funds by phone
______ is commercial paper legally collectible by the party in possession.
Bearer paper
Order paper
Unqualified indorsement
Acceleration clause
Status of paper that is to be paid on presentment or at sight is called
payable on demand
negotiable instrument
payable at a definite time
postdated
Indorsement consisting only of the signature of the indorser is a ______ indorsement.
qualified
restrictive
special
blank
A ______ indorsement that eliminates the indorser’s secondary liability to pay if the primarily liable party does not.
special
blank
qualified
restrictive
Someone who joins another in signing as a maker, drawer, acceptor, or indorser of an instrument in order to bolster the creditworthiness of the latter party is known as
bearer
holder
acceleration clause
accommodation party
_____ are the only two types of indorsements that determine how the instrument is to be negotiated are:
Blank and qualified
Blank and special
Qualified and blank
Qualified and restrictive
An instrument that is payable on presentment is termed a ______ instrument.
liquid
collateral
demand
antedated
A promissory note is physically issued on June 6 of this year. Which of the following dates, if actually entered on the face of the instrument as the date of issue, would make it antedated?
June 5
June 7
July 7
June 6
Which of the following wordings would not result in the paper being payable to the party in possession of it?
pay to bearer
pay to cash
pay to Sherlock Holmes
all of the above would result in the paper being payable to the possessor.
If the indorsement on a negotiable instrument reads: "pay to the order of Michelle Holley" it is properly termed ______ paper.
bearer
order
on demand
holder
An unconditional written promise or order to pay money is defined as
order
commercial paper
money order
draft
A ______ is a draft drawn by a bank on funds it has on deposit with another bank.
cashier’s check
traveler’s check
teller’s check
sight draft
Written instrument acknowledging a bank’s receipt of money and promising to repay it at a definite future time is called
money order
bill of exchange
certificate of deposit
promissory note
The type of check that requires the owner to sign twice on its face is a
cashier’s check
certified check
teller’s check
traveler’s check
Unconditional written orders or promises to pay money is collectively known as
commercial promises
IOUs
intentional credit instruments
none of the above
A(n) ______ is a form of business organization that offers limited liability only to the consequences of conduct involving torts.
limited liability partnership-LLP
limited liability corporation-LLC
S corporation
operating agreement
Taxation of a corporation as an entity based on its earnings and then of the shareholders on corporate dividends is called
distributive shares
double taxation
federal taxation
state taxation
Which of the following records do not have to be kept in the limited partnership’s designated office within the certifying state?
tax records for the last five years
names and addresses of all the general partners
names and addresses of all the limited partners
copies of the certificate of limited partnership and its amendments
What is the maximum number of stockholders in a subchapter S corporation?
15
50
100
unlimited
Individuals elected by the shareholders to be responsible for the general guidance of the corporation is known as
directors
debentures
promoters
incorporators
Rules that protect management from being personally held criminally or civilly liable for a business decision made within the scope of power and authority granted by the corporate charter and applicable laws are called
corporate charter rules
preemptive right rules
proxy rules
business judgment rules
_____ are rules for the internal organization and management of a corporation.
Proxies
Bylaws
Articles of Incorporation
Preemptive Rights
Which of the following may result in a corporate dissolution?
irresolvable internal corporate dispute
corporate bankruptcy
state-ordered forfeiture of the corporate charter
all of the above
Corporate debentures are
secured
unsecured
state guaranteed
federally guaranteed
A legal device that allows the current stockholders of a corporation to maintain their percentage of ownership even when new stock offerings occur is called
a permanent right
a percentage right
a preemptive right
none of the above
Which form of business is most likely to attract large sums of capital?
sole proprietorship
partnership
limited liability partnership
corporation
Which of the following is not required to be in the articles of incorporation?
name and address of each stockholder
name of the corporation
period of duration of the corporation
purpose for which the corporation is organized
A partner who is not publicly known but is actively managing is known as ______ partner.
secret
silent
limited
dormant
A ______ partner is one whose potential liability is restricted to their investment in the partnership.
secret
silent
limited
non-trading
Partner who is publicly known but not actively managing is known as a ______ partner.
nominal
dormant
silent
general
Which of the following is not a duty of a partner?
comply with partnership decisions
not conduct competing business
keep accurate records
all of the above are duties
Assumption of risk, contributory negligence, and negligence of a co-worker is called
co-worker negligence
positive law defenses
common law defenses
general duty clause
Acting for the benefit of the employer is generally referred to as
risk of employment
scope of employment
being an independent contractor
none of the above
Which of the following is not a common law defense to a negligence suit against an employer?
contributory negligence
OSHA violations in the workplace
fellow-servant rule
assumption of risk
Which of the following is a preventative means of dealing with the potential for employee injuries?
negligence suit
job safety requirements
worker’s compensation
all of the above
All the people who work for an employer that has been charged with employment discrimination is known as
workforce pool
hostile environment
applicant pool
unequal treatment
An employer’s defense that actions were meant to advance the business rather than to create unjustified discrimination is called
neutral on its face
disparate impact
business necessity
bona fide seniority system
Which of the following are grounds for illegal discrimination?
disparate treatment
disparate impact
pattern and practice
all of the above
To win a case where the discrimination is admitted, the employee need only prove that they were denied employment because of membership in a:
protected class
religious group
disabled group
all of the above
In a collective bargaining session, which of the following is an employer not required to bargain over?
wages
working conditions
plant location
the employer must bargain over all of the above
A process by which a union ceases to be the exclusive bargaining agent for employees is
decertification election
boycott
lockout
ex-parte injunction
______ is an attempt by a neutral third party to achieve a compromise between disputing parties.
collective bargaining
mediation
representation election
open shop
Employment contracts in which employees agree not to join a union as a condition of employment is known as
yellow-dog contracts
open shop contract
closed shop contracts
agency shop contracts
______ is the process whereby the union and the employer negotiate a contract of employment that binds both sides.
Mediation
Featherbedding
Collective bargaining
Boycotting
A ______ occurs when an employer temporarily closes down operations to induce the workers and their representatives to alter their position on an issue.
strike
lockout
shutout
lockin
Who determines the membership in the bargaining unit?
the union
the petitioning workers
the National Labor Relations Board
management
Who conducts the certification elections?
the union
the petition workers
the National Labor Relations Board
management
What percentage of workers in a union must petition the National Labor Relations Board to get it to conduct a decertification election?
30%
40%
50%
a majority
The obligation to look out for the best interests of the employer is called duty of
loyalty and honesty
reasonable skill
obedience
reasonable performance
_____ is known as the obligation to obey the reasonable orders of the employer.
Duty of loyalty and honesty
Duty of reasonable performance
Duty of reasonable skill
Duty of obedience
Which of the following is not a duty owed by the employer to the employee?
duty of reasonable treatment
duty to provide safe working conditions
duty to follow Fair Labor Standards
all of the above are employer duties
Any party who hires an independent contractor may be liable for the independent contractor’s torts if the work if it
involves overtime
is inherently dangerous
requires professional skill
was done without competence
Which of the following is not a duty owed by employees to employers?
duty of obedience
duty of reasonable performance
duty to follow immoral but not illegal instructions
all of the above are employee duties
Federal law is likely to supply which of the following terms in employment contracts?
job title
minimum wage
job location
work schedule
Requirements that an agent act in the principal’s best interests is known as
apparent authority
power of attorney
fiduciary duties
express authority
A(n) _____ is a person who authorizes another to enter into legal relationships on their behalf.
principal
agent
undisclosed principal
power of attorney
Which of the following duties would be violated by the agent’s commingling of funds?
loyal and obedience
reasonable care and skill
confidentiality
accounting
If an agent acts outside the agent’s authority, then
the agent is liable to the third party for any injury caused by acting outside the scope of authority
the principal is not bound
both a and b
none of the above
A power of attorney generally contains a grant of what type of authority?
implied authority
express authority
apparent authority
necessary authority
A trust created by the will of a deceased settlor is known as
inter vivos trust
testamentary trust
end of vivos trust
constructive trust
Someone who is being unjustly enriched because of property he or she is holding may be required to transfer the property to another because of the enforcement of a(n) _____ trust.
private
charitable
spendthrift
constructive
The typical time allowed for all creditors of the estate to file a claim against it is
six months
ten months
1 year
5 years
Which of the following individuals would be eligible for survivor’s insurance upon the death of the insured?
an ex-spouse who lived with the insured for at least 10 years and who is at least 60 years old
the widower who is 55 years of age
the widower caring for a child who is 19 years of age
none of the above are eligible for survivor’s insurance
Which of the following types of social insurance provides health insurance and hospital insurance for people age 65 and older?
retirement insurance
survivor’s insurance
medicare insurance
disability insurance
Which of the following is a common exclusion in a property and casualty policy?
loss due to depreciation
loss due to pollution
loss due to war
all of the above
Which of the following is not covered in the standard fire policy?
losses due to fire
losses due to lightning strikes
losses due to inept attorneys
none of the above
A(n) _____ clause extends auto insurance coverage to members of the insured’s household.
coinsurance
omnibus
verbal
incontestability
Which of the following types of insurance covers loss of or damage to property while it is being transported?
surety
fidelity
bonding
marine
Power of the government to take private property for public use upon payment of the fair market price is known as
eminent domain
adverse possession
restrictive covenant
doctrine of capture
A(n) _____ agreement that grants certain rights in the subject property to the tenant.
easement
variance
leasehold estate
subletting
Which of the following must be in writing to be enforceable by a court?
a lease for a period of two months
a lease for a period of six months
a lease for a period of 24 months
Which of the following does not have the right of possession?
fee simple absolute
future interests
conditional estates
all of the above
Which of the following is the most common estate?
fee simple absolute
conditional estate
life estate
non freehold estate
The owner of land owes which of the following duties to a trespasser?
to refrain from doing the trespasser intentional harm
to warn them of known dangers
to conduct reasonable searches for dangers
all of the above
A party who accepts possession and control of another’s personal property is called a
bailor
common carrier
disclaimer
bailee
A(n) ____ is the type of bailment formed when a bailor leaves personal property with a hotelkeeper or a common carrier.
gratuitous bailment
constructive bailment
extraordinary bailment
involuntary bailment
Fee for delay in loading or in unloading goods shipped by a common carrier is known as
carrier’s lien
demurrage
consignment
bailee’s lien
A gift of an engagement ring would typically be a
gift causa vivos
gift causa mortis
gift inter vivos
none of the above
If you were sailing off the coast of California and left a fishing line streaming behind the boat for three hours, and then you hooked a tuna and reeled it in, under which legal process would you become the owner of the fish?
accession
occupancy
gift
intestacy
The elements of a lottery are _____ chance, and consideration.
prize
money
price
luck
