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Introduction to the Physical Layer

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which OSI layer is responsible for sending raw bits using physical network equipment?

a)

Physical layer transmits raw bits through media

b)

Data Link layer handles frames and MAC

c)

Network layer routes packets across networks

d)

Transport layer manages end-to-end reliability

2.

What does the Physical layer primarily transmit between devices?

a)

Structured frames with headers

b)

Encrypted sessions and keys

c)

Raw bits represented as 0s and 1s

d)

Application-level messages

3.

Which set best lists components associated with the Physical layer?

a)

Cables, connectors, plugs

b)

Sessions, presentations, codecs

c)

Sockets, ports, processes

d)

Routers, subnets, gateways

4.

At the sender, the Physical layer converts data into signals for travel; what process at the receiver reverses this?

a)

Fragmentation of packets

b)

Multiplexing of channels

c)

Compression to reduce size

d)

Demodulation to recover data

5.

Which statement best describes modulation in the context of the Physical layer?

a)

Assigning IP addresses to hosts

b)

Acknowledging segments for reliability

c)

Encrypting payloads for security

d)

Mapping bits onto carrier signals

6.

Which media are explicitly mentioned for Physical layer signal transmission?

a)

Optical fiber

b)

Virtual private tunnels

c)

Copper cables

d)

Wireless links

7.

Which of the following is NOT a Physical layer responsibility?

a)

Defining hardware signal types

b)

Controlling speed and timing

c)

Establishing end-to-end sessions

d)

Choosing direction of data flow

8.

Which transmission mode involves data flowing both directions but not simultaneously?

a)

Simplex communication only

b)

Full-duplex simultaneous both ways

c)

Broadcast to multiple receivers

d)

Half-duplex alternating directions

9.

How does the Physical layer ensure signals are properly sent and recovered?

a)

By modulation and demodulation

b)

By routing through optimal paths

c)

By window-based flow control

d)

By checksum error correction

10.

Which pair correctly matches function to layer role at OSI Layer 1?

a)

Encoding and decoding: Physical layer

b)

Bit-by-bit transmission: Physical layer

c)

Data control timing: Physical layer

d)

Session establishment: Physical layer

11.

In the diagram labeled “Bit-by-Bit Transmission,” what process is depicted between the physical layers across the transmission media?

a)

Frame-by-frame delivery across layered stack

b)

Sequential bit transfer across the medium

c)

Parallel byte transfer using multiple lanes

d)

Packet switching with route determination

12.

The encoding plot shows rectangular pulses labeled 0 and 1 over time. Which statement best explains how bits are represented?

a)

Phase rotation maps bits to symbols

b)

Bit values are stored as packet headers

c)

Voltage amplitude levels encode binary states

d)

Frequency shifts indicate each bit value

13.

From the signal transmission panel, what is a key difference between digital and analog signals?

a)

Analog signals use discrete levels over time

b)

Digital signals use continuous waveforms

c)

Analog signals require packet encapsulation

d)

Digital signals have distinct amplitude steps

14.

The modulation section shows a message signal combined with a carrier signal to produce a frequency-modulated output. Which properties of the carrier can be altered during modulation?

a)

Frequency of the carrier

b)

Phase of the carrier

c)

Amplitude of the carrier

d)

Bit order of the payload

15.

In frequency modulation as illustrated, how does the modulated waveform reflect the message signal?

a)

Carrier amplitude doubles at each bit

b)

Carrier phase remains constant only

c)

Message waveform is directly transmitted unaltered

d)

Carrier frequency varies with message amplitude

16.

Which physical layer responsibility is highlighted by the text under “Signal Transmission”?

a)

Scheduling medium access and collisions

b)

Encrypting payloads at the source

c)

Converting data to signals and decoding

d)

Routing frames between network nodes

17.

Which transmission mode allows data to flow in only one direction between two devices?

a)

Simplex mode allows one-way flow only

b)

Half duplex allows simultaneous two-way flow

c)

Full duplex allows alternating two-way flow

d)

Multipoint mode allows many simultaneous flows

18.

In half duplex communication, how does data transmission occur between endpoints?

a)

Both directions at the same time

b)

Alternating directions, not simultaneous

c)

Only from sender to receiver

d)

Neither direction, just signaling

19.

Full duplex links primarily improve performance by enabling what capability?

a)

Automatic error-free delivery

b)

Higher cable resistance tolerance

c)

Longer physical link distances

d)

Simultaneous bidirectional transmission

20.

Data rate control at the physical layer ensures what condition during transmission?

a)

Sender and receiver match the data rate

b)

Routing paths are load balanced

c)

Applications share equal bandwidth

d)

Frames are encrypted end-to-end

21.

Which IEEE standard corresponds to wired Ethernet at the physical layer?

a)

IEEE 802.3 defines wired Ethernet

b)

IEEE 802.11 defines wired Ethernet

c)

IEEE 802.15.1 defines wired Ethernet

d)

USB defines wired Ethernet signaling

22.

Select all protocols that enable wireless communication at the physical layer.

a)

USB Universal Serial Bus

b)

IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth

c)

IEEE 802.3 Ethernet

d)

IEEE 802.11 Wi‑Fi

23.

In a multipoint physical topology, what connects multiple devices?

a)

A single shared link connects multiple devices

b)

A single dedicated link connects two devices

c)

Multiple dedicated links connect each pair

d)

Wireless channels connect one device only

24.

Which statement best distinguishes physical topology from logical topology in networking?

a)

Physical shows IP addressing, logical shows VLAN assignments

b)

Physical shows device roles, logical shows cable types

c)

Physical shows protocols used, logical shows hardware models

d)

Physical shows cable layout, logical shows data movement

25.

In point-to-point topology, how many devices participate directly in a single link?

a)

At least three devices in a ring path

b)

Two or more devices through a central hub

c)

Multiple devices sharing a common medium

d)

Exactly two devices on one dedicated link

26.

Which property is characteristic of point-to-point communication between two nodes?

a)

Depends on a central switch for routing

b)

Simplest path with high bandwidth per link

c)

Uses shared bus with contention management

d)

Requires broadcast to all nodes for delivery

27.

In a full mesh with N devices, how many ports does each device require?

a)

N × 2 ports for duplex links

b)

N − 1 ports for remaining nodes

c)

N/2 ports rounded upward

d)

N ports including loopback

28.

Why is mesh topology often considered costly compared to simpler topologies?

a)

It needs advanced routing algorithms

b)

It requires dedicated links and more ports

c)

It uses proprietary connectors exclusively

d)

It mandates wireless spectrum licensing

29.

Select all advantages commonly associated with mesh topology.

a)

Improved security and privacy

b)

Robustness and easy fault diagnosis

c)

Fast communication between nodes

d)

Low wiring cost for large deployments

30.

Which factor primarily makes installation and configuration difficult in mesh networks?

a)

Requirement for satellite uplinks

b)

Incompatibility with duplex communication

c)

Dependence on outdated protocols

d)

Complexity from many dedicated connections

31.

A mesh network of 6 devices is required. How many ports per device are needed in a full mesh?

a)

10 ports per device

b)

6 ports per device

c)

5 ports per device

d)

3 ports per device

32.

Which statement about mesh topology reliability is most accurate?

a)

Reliability depends solely on central hub

b)

Reliability increases only with wireless links

c)

Reliability is high due to dedicated links

d)

Reliability is low due to single shared bus

33.

Choose all disadvantages of mesh topology highlighted in the material.

a)

Difficult installation and configuration

b)

High maintenance cost

c)

Low fault isolation capability

d)

High cable cost due to bulk wiring

34.

In the transmit–receive diagram between device X and device Y, what does the layout represent?

a)

A mesh link aggregated through gateways

b)

A star topology through a central switch

c)

A point-to-point link with duplex channels

d)

A shared bus with collision domains

35.

Which comparison between point-to-point and mesh topologies is correct?

a)

Mesh offers redundancy; point-to-point does not

b)

Point-to-point uses more cables than mesh

c)

Both require N − 1 ports per device

d)

Mesh provides low bandwidth per link

36.

In a star topology, what component interconnects all devices and determines overall performance?

a)

Active or simple central hub

b)

Single shared backbone cable

c)

Peer-to-peer mesh links

d)

Wireless access controller

37.

Which statement best describes cabling requirements in a star topology with N devices?

a)

One long backbone cable for all nodes

b)

Two cables per device to the hub

c)

Exactly N cables connect devices to hub

d)

Cables only between adjacent devices

38.

A single device’s cable fails in a star network. What is the most likely outcome?

a)

Data collisions increase for all

b)

Entire network halts

c)

Only that device disconnects

d)

Hub amplifies the fault systemwide

39.

Which is a disadvantage of the star topology?

a)

Complete network depends on the hub

b)

Difficult to identify faulty cables

c)

Uses expensive specialty cabling

d)

Cannot support active repeaters

40.

Identify two correct properties of bus topology Ethernet MAC protocols.

a)

Slotted ALOHA implemented

b)

Pure ALOHA implemented

c)

CDMA adopted widely

d)

TDMA commonly used

e)

Uses CSMA/CD exclusively

41.

Which feature defines a bus topology’s connectivity model?

a)

Devices form point-to-point meshes

b)

Multiple hubs linked in a ring backbone

c)

All devices share one backbone cable

d)

Each device connects to a central hub

42.

Why is bus topology considered non-robust?

a)

Wireless interference dominates

b)

Hub bottlenecks cause latency

c)

Requires complex routing protocols

d)

Backbone failure crashes the topology

43.

Which cabling is commonly used in bus topologies?

a)

Coaxial or twisted pair cables

b)

Fiber-only distribution cables

c)

Shielded ribbon multiwire

d)

Short patch leads per device

44.

Which advantage is typical of bus topology for small networks?

a)

High scalability without limits

b)

Centralized management improves QoS

c)

Less cable needed and low cost

d)

Independent links reduce faults

45.

What performance effect occurs as more devices are added to a bus?

a)

Latency decreases due to parallel paths

b)

Collisions increase and throughput drops

c)

Fault isolation improves significantly

d)

Security strengthens per added node

46.

Which statement compares single points of failure in star and bus topologies?

a)

Star: hub failure stops network

b)

Bus: backbone failure stops network

c)

Bus: any drop cable failure crashes all

d)

Star: cable failure halts all devices

47.

Which security characteristic is typical of bus topology?

a)

Access control enforced by central hub

b)

Isolated links protect against eavesdropping

c)

End-to-end encryption inherent in design

d)

Lower security since data shares one cable

48.

In a ring topology, how many direct neighbors does each device typically have?

a)

One adjacent neighbor

b)

Two adjacent neighbors

c)

Three adjacent neighbors

d)

Four adjacent neighbors

49.

Which mechanism controls access to transmit data in ring networks?

a)

Token passing method

b)

Collision detection scheme

c)

Carrier sensing method

d)

Random backoff timer

50.

What role does a monitor station serve in ring topology operations?

a)

Manages and oversees the network

b)

Encrypts frames end to end

c)

Provides wireless connectivity

d)

Stores routing tables centrally

51.

Select all advantages commonly associated with ring topology.

a)

High security by default

b)

Low cost and easy to expand

c)

Very few collisions

d)

Fast data transmission

52.

In ring topology, why are repeaters often required in large networks?

a)

To allocate IP addresses

b)

To prevent signal loss over distance

c)

To convert wired links to wireless

d)

To compress data before sending

53.

What occurs when no device has data to send in a ring network using token passing?

a)

The monitor halts the ring

b)

The token keeps circulating

c)

The token is destroyed

d)

Devices enter sleep mode

54.

Which is a typical disadvantage of ring topology?

a)

Requires expensive hubs at every level

b)

Excessive collisions under heavy load

c)

Complex cabling for each branch

d)

Failure of one node can stop the network

55.

Tree topology is best described as which structural arrangement?

a)

Circular peer-to-peer layout

b)

Hierarchical star-like structure

c)

Mesh of redundant paths

d)

Linear bus with terminators

56.

Which components commonly organize connectivity in tree topology?

a)

Central and secondary hubs

b)

Access points exclusively

c)

Repeaters and bridges only

d)

Routers and firewalls only

57.

In tree topology, what is a critical vulnerability of the main backbone?

a)

Backbone failure isolates one branch

b)

Backbone failure only increases collisions

c)

Backbone failure stops the whole network

d)

Backbone failure slows but continues

58.

How does data typically flow within tree topology?

a)

Only through secondary hubs

b)

Only clockwise around branches

c)

Top-to-bottom or bottom-to-top

d)

Random paths between peers

59.

Refer to the diagram showing six devices in a ring. If Device 3 fails, what is the most likely immediate impact on communication?

a)

Token speed automatically increases

b)

Only Device 3 loses connectivity

c)

Communication stops for the entire ring

d)

Traffic reroutes through alternate paths

60.

Which statement best describes a hybrid topology in computer networks?

a)

Uses only a single centralized topology

b)

Combines two or more different topologies

c)

Connects devices without any structured design

d)

Eliminates the need for network protocols

61.

In a hybrid topology, why can each segment use its own protocol?

a)

Because segments follow their underlying topology

b)

Because protocols are identical across all networks

c)

Because hubs automatically convert all protocols

d)

Because protocols are irrelevant to physical layout

62.

Which TWO benefits are most associated with hybrid topology design?

a)

Ease of network expansion over time

b)

Simplified device addressing schemes

c)

Guaranteed zero points of failure

d)

High flexibility in network layout

63.

Which disadvantage commonly arises when implementing a hybrid topology?

a)

Mandatory use of wireless-only connections

b)

Limited scalability beyond small networks

c)

Incompatibility with standard Ethernet hubs

d)

Higher cost due to more cables and devices

64.

A central hub failure causes the entire network to stop. This risk is primarily linked to which design characteristic?

a)

Isolated ring with independent operation

b)

Single critical point in the topology

c)

Distributed control across all segments

d)

Redundant mesh connections everywhere

65.

Which statements reflect why choosing the right topology impacts network reliability? Select TWO.

a)

Topologies like mesh provide alternate paths

b)

Star and mesh can continue despite one link failing

c)

Correct topology removes the need for backup

d)

Reliability depends only on cable quality

66.

How does topology selection influence network performance?

a)

Performance is unaffected by topology choice

b)

Protocols alone determine overall throughput

c)

Topology only affects physical appearance

d)

Appropriate topology streamlines communication

67.

Which consideration best links topology design to security outcomes?

a)

Security is independent of physical connections

b)

Understanding connections enables better controls

c)

Only encryption determines security posture

d)

Topology design always exposes more attack paths

68.

Which statement best describes simplex transmission mode?

a)

Data flows randomly without direction

b)

Data flows simultaneously both directions

c)

Data flows alternately both directions

d)

Data flows in one direction only

69.

A walkie‑talkie conversation is an example of which transmission mode?

a)

Simplex communication

b)

Full‑duplex communication

c)

Half‑duplex communication

d)

Asynchronous communication

70.

In half‑duplex mode, which behavior is correct?

a)

Devices take turns transmitting

b)

Only one device transmits ever

c)

Both devices transmit at the same time

d)

Devices never receive data

71.

Which scenario illustrates full‑duplex communication?

a)

Sensor sending one‑way telemetry

b)

Two‑way radio with push‑to‑talk

c)

Broadcast TV to viewers

d)

Phone call between two users

72.

Select all properties that define transmission media in networks.

a)

Independent of interference levels

b)

Chosen based on speed constraints

c)

Determined by distance requirements

d)

The physical or wireless path for data

73.

Transmission media are mainly classified into which two categories?

a)

Copper and fiber optics

b)

Analog and digital paths

c)

Synchronous and asynchronous

d)

Guided and unguided media

74.

Which statement about guided vs unguided media is accurate?

a)

Unguided prevents long‑distance communication

b)

Guided suffers no interference at all

c)

Unguided requires fiber cores exclusively

d)

Guided uses physical cables for signals

75.

During a phone call, why is full‑duplex preferred over half‑duplex?

a)

Reduces bandwidth to half the channel

b)

Ensures messages broadcast one‑way

c)

Prevents all signal interference

d)

Allows simultaneous speaking and listening