wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Intestinal Obstruction and Colostomy Care

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Non mechanical obstruction is also known as paralytic ileus or adynamic ileus.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

2.

Hypovolemia is a common complication of intestinal obstruction.

a)

B. F

b)

A. T

3.

An obstruction high in the small intestine often results in metabolic acidosis.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

4.

Intussusception is twisting of the intestine.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

5.

Volvulus is telescoping of a segment of the intestine within itself.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

6.

Hypokalemia is the most common electrolyte disturbance that predispose the patient to intestinal obstruction.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

7.

Intestinal obstruction due to phytobezoar is a mechanical obstruction.

a)

B. F

b)

A. T

8.

Ileus is a paralytic or functional variety of obstruction.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

9.

In order, the main clinical signs of bowel obstruction include nausea or vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and blockage of gas or stool.

a)

B. F

b)

A. T

10.

Nausea and vomiting may be caused from anesthetic agents or narcotics, delayed gastric emptying, slowed peristalsis, resumption of oral intake too soon after surgery.

a)

B. F

b)

A. T

11.

Which key feature does the nurse most likely find when performing a physical assessment on the patient with a small-bowel obstruction?

a)

A. Visible peristaltic waves in the upper and middle abdomen.

b)

D. Metabolic acidosis.

c)

C. No major fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

d)

B. Minimal or no vomiting.

12.

Crohn’s disease can cause a mechanical obstruction.

a)

A. T

b)

B. F

13.

What does nursing care of the patient with intestinal obstruction who reports discomfort in the early diagnostic period consist of?

a)

D. Offering the patient semi-soft food.

b)

C. Providing the patient with fluids.

c)

B. Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position.

d)

A. Administration of opioid analgesics.

14.

Which intervention apply to patients with fluid volume deficit related to an intestinal obstruction?

a)

C. Offer a small glass of water.

b)

B. Offer ice chips to suck on before surgery.

c)

A. Provide frequent mouth care with lemon glycerin swabs.

d)

D. Assess for edema from third spacing.

15.

Which observation of the patient with an intestinal obstruction does the nurse report immediately?

a)

D. The patient who is changing positions frequently.

b)

A. Urinary output of 1000ml in an 8 hour period.

c)

B. The patient’s request for something to drink.

d)

C. Abdominal pain changing from colicky to constant discomfort.

16.

Which discharge information does the nurse include for the patient who has had an intestinal obstruction caused by fecal impaction?

a)

Encourage the patient to report abdominal distention, nausea or vomiting, and constipation.

b)

Provide the patient a written description of a low-fiber diet.

c)

Remind the patient to limit activity.

d)

Remind the patient to decrease fluid intake.

17.

The nurse is teaching the patient about colostomy care. Which information does the nurse include in the teaching plan?

a)

An antifungal cream or powder can be used if a fungal rash develops.

b)

The stoma will enalrge within 6 to 8 weeks of surgery.

c)

Use a moisturizing soap to cleanse the area around the stoma.

d)

Place the colostomy bag on the skin when the skin sealant is still damp.

18.

Which statement about the care of the patient wiwht a colostomy is correct?

a)

The stoma should protrude about 5cm from the abdominal wall.

b)

When palpating the stoma, it should feel firm.

c)

A slight amount of edema is normal in the initial postoperative period.

d)

A healthy stoma should be dry.

19.

The nurse immediately reports to surgeon all but which sign/symptom related to a colostomy?

a)

Liquid stool immediately postoperatively.

b)

Unusual bleeding.

c)

Signs of ischemia and necrosis.

d)

Mucocutaneous separation.

20.

After colostomy surgery, which intervention does the nurse employ?

a)

Watch for the colostomy to start functioning day 1.

b)

Make a hole in the pouch for gas to escape.

c)

Apply a pouch system as soon as possible.

d)

Cover the stoma with a dry, sterile dressing.

21.

Patients with pancreatitis often have Turner's sign which is a gray-blue discoloration of the abdomen and periumbilical area.

a)

F

b)

T

22.

The pain of acute pancreatitis is often described as intense, boring and continuous.

a)

T

b)

F

23.

Typically, a patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after presenting with severe abdominal pain in the mid-epigastric area or left upper quadrant.

a)

F

b)

T

24.

Abdominal pain is the prominal symptom of pancreatitis.

a)

T

b)

F

25.

Anticholinergics are given to increase vagal stimulation, motility and pancreatic flow.

a)

F

b)

T

26.

Pain management for acute pancreatitis should begin with rapid infusion of opioids by means of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

a)

T

b)

F

27.

Helping the patient to assume a supine position decreases the abdominal pain of pancreatitis.

a)

F

b)

T

28.

Patients in the early stages of acute pancreatitis are usually maintained on NPO status

a)

T

b)

F

29.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for acute pancreatisis?

a)

Risk for infection related to necrotic pancreatic tissue.

b)

Risk for deficient fluid volume related to abnormal and normal routines.

c)

Nausea related to pancreatic disease.

30.

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate in verifying a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Trypsine

b)

Lipase

c)

Alkaline phosphatase

d)

Alanine aminotransferase

31.

The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for the development of paralytic (adynamic) ileus. Which action provides the nurse with the best indication of bowel function?

a)

Asking the patient if he or she has passed flatus or had a stool

b)

Observing contents of the nasogastric drainage

c)

Obtaining a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen with contrast medium

d)

Auscultation of bowel sounds

32.

Which drug is contraindicated for the patient with paralytic ileus?

a)

Ranitidine (Zantac)

b)

Cefuroxime (Zinacef)

c)

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

d)

Papaverine (Pavabid)

33.

The nurse has instructed the patient in the recovery phase of acute pancreatitis about diet therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful?

a)

"I will eat the ususal three meals a day that I am used to".

b)

"I am eating tacos for my first meal back home".

c)

"I will avoid eating chocolate".

d)

I will limit the amound of protein in my diet".

34.

If complications of pancreatitis such as pancreatic pseudocyst and abscess appear may necessitate surgical drainage.

a)

T

b)

F

35.

If pancreatitis is caused by biliary tract obstruction, the physician may perform a laparotomy (abdominal exploration) for common bile duct exploration and the release of obstruction.

a)

T

b)

F

36.

Monitors drainage tubes for patency by assessing for kinks in the tubes.

a)

F

b)

T

37.

Maintain the ordered drain suction pressure and system integrity.

a)

F

b)

T

38.

Records the output amount from the drain and describes the character of the drainage.

a)

T

b)

F

39.

Provides meticulous skin care and dressing changes, assesses for further deterioration of the tissue.

a)

T

b)

F

40.

Collaborate with an enterostomal therapist (ET) for measures to promote skin integrity.

a)

F

b)

T

41.

Perittonitis is caused by contamination of the peritoneal cavity by bacterias or chemicals.

a)

F

b)

T

42.

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal analysis can cause peritonitis.

a)

F

b)

T

43.

White blood cell counts are often decreased with peritonitis.

a)

F

b)

T

44.

Abdominal wall rigidity is a classic finding in patient with peritonitis.

a)

F

b)

T

45.

The fluid shift that occurs in peritonitis may result in which of following?

a)

Intracellular fluid moving into the peritoneal cavity

b)

Significant increase in circular volume

c)

Increased bowel motility caused by increased fluid volume

d)

Eventual renal failure and electrolyte imbalance

46.

The source of inflammation in peritonitis rarely comes from

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Abdominal gunshot wound

c)

Internal reproductive organs

d)

The bloodstream

47.

A rare cause of peritonitis is

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Perforated peptic ulcer

c)

Peritoneal dialysis

d)

Bowel perforation secondary to cancer, penetrating wound

48.

Which complication is not due to peritonitis:

a)

Adhesion of small intestine

b)

Abscess formation

c)

Paralytic ileus

d)

Intraabdominal haemorrhage

49.

The respiratory problems that may accompany peritonitis are aresult of which factor?

a)

Fluid shifts to thoracic cavity

b)

Decreased pressure against the diaphragm

c)

Associated pain interfering with ventilation

d)

Decreased oxygen demands related to the infectious process

50.

Which nursing intervention is part of nonsurgical management for the patient with peritonitis?

a)

Insert a nasogastric tube to decompress the stomach

b)

Administer NSAIDs for pain

c)

Order a breakfast tray when the patient is hungry

d)

Monitor weekly weight and intake and output

51.

What are the cardinal signs of peritonitis?

a)

Fever and headache

b)

Nausea and loss of appetite

c)

Dizziness and vomiting

d)

Abdominal pain and tenderness

52.

Which character of abdominal pain is not observed in peritonitis

a)

Constant and diffuse

b)

Movement aggravates pain

c)

More intense near the site of inflammation

d)

Intermittent

53.

Which assessment is not priority in diagnostic of peritonitis

a)

Peritoneal lavage

b)

CT scan of the abdomen

c)

Abdominal x-ray

d)

Blood cell count

54.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis preoperatively don’t include

a)

Obtain a history and assess the abdomen

b)

Give broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

Place the patient on bed rest

d)

Give foods when the patient arrive at hospital

55.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis postoperatively don’t include

a)

Monitor the fluid and electrolyte balance

b)

Assess vital signs

c)

Report any manifestation of sepsis

d)

Immobilize the patient on the bed

56.

The nurse is instructing the patient about home care after an exploratory laparotomy for peritonitis. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective?

a)

“I will stop taking the antibiotics if diarrhea develops”

b)

“It is normal for the incision site to be warm”

c)

“I will call the health care provider for a temperature greater than 38°C”

d)

“I will resume activity with my bowling league this week for exercise”

57.

A patient with a suspected complete transection below T8 presents for assessment. Which findings below the lesion are most consistent with this injury?

a)

No independent movement; full touch or position

b)

No motor function; no touch, position, vibration

c)

Partial motor function; intact pain and temperature

d)

Independent movement; absent pain and touch

58.

A patient with a cervical injury can move legs spontaneously but struggles to use arms and hands when repositioning. Which spinal cord syndrome is most likely?

a)

Anterior cord syndrome involving motor pathways

b)

Posterior cord syndrome with dorsal column loss

c)

Central cord syndrome affecting cervical tracts

d)

Brown-Sequard hemisection with lateral damage

59.

A trauma patient with suspected cervical fracture arrives with altered mentation and flaccid extremities. What is the immediate priority assessment?

a)

Evaluate mental status using Glasgow Coma Scale

b)

Assess respiratory pattern and maintain airway

c)

Check loss of motor function and sensation

d)

Inspect for intra-abdominal bleeding and hemorrhage

60.

A patient with a mid-back gunshot wound is at risk for spinal shock. Which cluster of signs should be monitored?

a)

Paralytic ileus with bowel and bladder loss

b)

Hypotension, bradycardia, flaccid paralysis

c)

Tachycardia with reduced consciousness level

d)

Low respiratory rate, analgesia to pain or touch

61.

Which bedside technique best evaluates proprioception in a neurologic assessment?

a)

Arm elevation with wrist and finger extension

b)

Legs dangling; reflex hammer for tendon response

c)

Eyes closed; move toes up or down to identify

d)

Pinprick testing for sharp or dull sensation

62.

In upper spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis takes priority due to risk for autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

Nausea caused by neurogenic complications

b)

Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion, Cerebral

c)

Acute pain associated with severe headache

d)

Impaired physical mobility during recovery

63.

To prevent autonomic dysreflexia after recent SCI, which intervention targets a common trigger?

a)

Monitor urine output and check for bladder distention

b)

Maintain immobilization with neck back braces

c)

Keep room warm and control environmental stimuli

d)

Perform frequent passive range-of-motion

64.

What serious complication can autonomic dysreflexia precipitate if not controlled?

a)

Heat stroke with thermoregulation failure

b)

Paralytic ileus due to gut atony

c)

Hypertensive crisis with end-organ risk

d)

Aspiration leading to pneumonia development

65.

A patient with SCI develops neurogenic bladder. Which nursing diagnosis is the immediate priority?

a)

Risk for Urinary Incontinence: urge

b)

Risk for Self-Care Deficit: toileting

c)

Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit: polyuria

d)

Risk for Infection: urinary tract

66.

The nurse is caring for several patients with spinal cord injuries. Which task is best to delegate to the nursing assistant?

a)

Insert a Foley catheter and report urine amount and color

b)

Encourage incentive spirometry; evaluate correct use

c)

Log roll the patient; maintain alignment and place bedpan

d)

Check for skin breakdown under immobilizers during bathing

67.

A patient with a spinal cord injury has paraplegia and paraparesis. Assessing the calves for swelling, tenderness, and redness is most related to increased risk for which condition?

a)

Deep vein thrombosis

b)

Contractures of joints

c)

Pressure ulcers

d)

Bone fractures

68.

A long‑term care patient with urinary retention and overflow incontinence begins a bladder retraining program. Which is an expected outcome of successful training?

a)

Demonstrates a predictable pattern of voiding

b)

Pours warm water over the perineum to void

c)

Takes bethanechol chloride one hour before voiding

d)

Is able to independently catheterize himself

69.

Paralysis of lateral gaze most likely indicates a lesion of which cranial nerve?

a)

II

b)

VI

c)

III

d)

IV

70.

A primary brain injury is caused by which mechanism?

a)

An external force

b)

An internal force

c)

Increased intracranial pressure

d)

Abnormal brain tissue growth

71.

A 16‑year‑old football player is confused after being struck in the head and does not remember the event, waking in the hospital two hours later. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Concussion

b)

Locked‑in syndrome

c)

Moderate brain injury

d)

Severe brain injury

72.

When educating 7‑year‑old children on preventing brain injury, which advice is most important to include?

a)

Always wear a helmet for biking, skateboarding, or skating

b)

Always wear knee and arm pads for biking or skating

c)

Always wear supportive shoes when playing outdoors

d)

Look both ways carefully before crossing the street

73.

A client admitted after a fall withdraws to painful stimulus and curses frequently. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, which total score is most consistent with these findings?

a)

15

b)

9

c)

4

d)

12

74.

Which medication is commonly administered to help decrease intracranial pressure?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Lasix

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Aspirin

75.

For a client with an open skull fracture, which nursing diagnosis is most important?

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Risk for impaired skin integrity

c)

Risk for fluid volume deficit

d)

Risk for activity intolerance

76.

Which action best prevents autonomic dysreflexia in a patient with high‑level spinal cord injury?

a)

Provide high‑flow oxygen continuously

b)

Keep the head of bed flat at all times

c)

Avoid any repositioning during procedures

d)

Ensure bladder is emptied and catheter unobstructed

77.

The consensual pupillary response is tested by:

a)

Covering one eye while observing extraocular movements

b)

Evaluating the ability of the eyes to converge

c)

Directing light toward one eye, observe opposite pupil

d)

Asking if the client has trouble closing eyes

78.

Which factor is most likely to depress nerve cell activity in a patient with a neurologic disorder?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Low oxygen saturation and hypoxia

c)

IV infusion of theophylline

d)

Drinking too much coffee

79.

Which statement about the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is correct?

a)

It is a thorough neurologic assessment tool

b)

A score of 15 indicates serious impairment with poor prognosis

c)

It establishes a baseline for eye opening and verbal/motor response

d)

It establishes a baseline cognitive function

80.

Using the GCS, which presentation indicates the most serious neurologic status?

a)

Eye opening to sound, localizes pain, confused conversation

b)

Eye opening to pain, abnormal flexion, incomprehensible sounds

c)

Eye opening to sound, obeys commands, inappropriate words

d)

Eye opening spontaneous, obeys commands, confused conversation

81.

During neurologic checks every 4 hours after head injury, which early sign indicates decline in neurologic status?

a)

Change in level of consciousness

b)

Nonreactive, dilated pupil

c)

Loss of remote memory

d)

Decorticate posturing

82.

A client is admitted after a head‑on motor vehicle crash. The client is unresponsive, has spontaneous respirations of 22/min, and a bleeding forehead laceration. What is the priority nursing action now?

a)

Keep the neck stabilized

b)

Establish IV access and start fluid replacement

c)

Insert a nasogastric tube

d)

Monitor pulse and blood pressure frequently

83.

After surgery for evacuation of a subdural hematoma, which assessment is the highest priority?

a)

Glasgow Coma Scale

b)

Cranial nerve function

c)

Oxygen saturation level

d)

Pupil size and reactivity

84.

Which medication is typically used to reduce increased intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient?

a)

Hypertonic saline infusion

b)

Dexamethasone corticosteroid

c)

Furosemide loop diuretic

d)

Mannitol osmotic diuretic

85.

In assessing pupillary responses after head trauma, what finding best demonstrates an intact consensual response?

a)

Neither pupil responds to bright light

b)

Ipsilateral pupil constricts only with accommodation

c)

Contralateral pupil constricts when light enters one eye

d)

Both pupils dilate when light is removed

86.

For a patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure, which nursing intervention helps maintain cerebral perfusion while minimizing further ICP elevation?

a)

Restrict oxygen to prevent vasoconstriction

b)

Keep head midline with elevated HOB

c)

Provide vigorous chest physiotherapy

d)

Hyperflex the neck during suctioning