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IR Code 2020

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An industrial dispute refers to any dispute or difference between:

a)

Employer and government only

b)

Employer and consumer

c)

Employers and employers, employers and workers, or workers and workers

d)

Workers and shareholders

2.

An industrial dispute must be connected with:

a)

Political activities

b)

Employment, non-employment, or conditions of labour

c)

Personal grievances unrelated to work

d)

Management policy decisions only

3.

Which of the following is included in the definition of industrial dispute?

a)

Dispute between two managers

b)

Dispute relating to dismissal of an individual worker

c)

Dispute between employer and customer

d)

Dispute regarding company profits

4.

Under the Industrial Relations Code, a dispute arising out of retrenchment or termination of an individual worker:

a)

Is not an industrial dispute

b)

Becomes an industrial dispute only if a trade union supports it

c)

Is included as an industrial dispute

d)

Is treated as a civil dispute

5.

A Trade Union is defined as a combination of persons which may be

a)

Only permanent

b)

Only temporary

c)

Temporary or permanent

d)

Registered companies only

6.

The primary purpose of a Trade Union is to

a)

Increase business profits

b)

Regulate relations between workers and employers

c)

Control government policies

d)

Provide loans to workers

7.

A Trade Union may regulate relations between

a)

Workers and customers

b)

Employers and government

c)

Workers and workers, employers and employers

d)

Shareholders and directors

8.

A Trade Union may also be formed for imposing restrictive conditions on:

a)

Government services

b)

Personal employment contracts

c)

Conduct of any trade or business

d)

Consumer transactions

9.

Which of the following is included in the definition of a Trade Union?

a)

Cooperative society

b)

Federation of two or more Trade Unions

c)

Company registered under Companies Act

d)

Informal workers’ group

10.

Which keyword best distinguishes a Trade Union from an informal workers’ group?

a)

Dispute

b)

Difference

c)

Combination formed primarily to regulate relations

d)

Protest

11.

An “Award” under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 means

a)

A recommendation given by a conciliation officer

b)

An interim or final determination of an industrial dispute

c)

A settlement signed by employer and workers

d)

A decision of the Labour Inspector

12.

Lay-off refers to the failure, refusal, or inability of an employer to provide employment due to:

a)

Misconduct of workers

b)

Voluntary closure of business

c)

Shortage of power, raw materials, or breakdown of machinery

d)

Completion of contract period

13.

Which of the following correctly defines Lock-out?

a)

Termination of workers due to redundancy

b)

Temporary closing of a place of employment by workers

c)

Temporary closing of a place of employment by the employer

d)

Permanent closure of an establishment

14.

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a)

Award – Failure of employer to give work

b)

Lay-off – Temporary closing of employment

c)

Lock-out – Refusal by employer to continue employment

d)

Award – Voluntary agreement between parties

15.

Retrenchment under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 means:

a)

Voluntary retirement of a worker

b)

Termination by the employer as a disciplinary punishment

c)

Termination by the employer for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as punishment

d)

Termination due to superannuation

16.

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of retrenchment?

a)

Termination due to non-renewal of contract

b)

Termination on completion of fixed-term employment

c)

Termination on the ground of continued ill-health

d)

Termination as a punishment for misconduct

17.

A strike under the Industrial Relations Code refers to:

a)

Temporary closing of a place of employment

b)

Cessation of work by a body of persons acting in combination

c)

Termination of service by the employer

d)

Failure of employer to provide work

18.

Which of the following situations is deemed to be a strike under the Code?

a)

Individual casual leave by one worker

b)

Casual leave taken with prior permission

c)

Concerted casual leave on a given day by 50% or more workers

d)

Absence due to illness

19.

The expression “acting in combination” in the definition of strike implies:

a)

Independent decision by workers

b)

Government-directed stoppage of work

c)

Collective and common understanding among workers

d)

Employer-imposed suspension

20.

A Works Committee may be constituted when a factory or establishment has:

a)

50 or more workers at present

b)

100 or more workers at any time in the past 12 months

c)

300 or more permanent workers

d)

20 or more contract workers

21.

Who has the authority to require the employer to constitute a Works Committee?

a)

Employer voluntarily

b)

Trade Union

c)

Appropriate Government

d)

Labour Inspector

22.

The composition of the Works Committee must include:

a)

Only workers’ representatives

b)

Only employer representatives

c)

Equal or more worker representatives than employer representatives

d)

External members nominated by the government

23.

Workers’ representatives to the Works Committee are selected:

a)

Directly by the employer

b)

By the Labour Department

c)

From among employees in consultation with the registered Trade Union

d)

By secret ballot conducted by the government

24.

The primary objective of the Works Committee is to:

a)

Fix wages and incentives

b)

Enforce disciplinary action

c)

Promote good relations and resolve matters of common interest

d)

Conduct collective bargaining

25.

A Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC) is mandatory in a company or factory employing:

a)

10 or more workers

b)

15 or more workers

c)

20 or more workers

d)

50 or more workers

26.

The composition of the Grievance Redressal Committee must consist of:

a)

More employer representatives than workers

b)

More worker representatives than employer

c)

Equal number of employer and worker representatives

d)

Representatives appointed only by the government

27.

The Chairperson of the Grievance Redressal Committee is selected:

a)

Permanently from employer representatives

b)

Permanently from worker representatives

c)

On a rotating basis from employer and worker representatives each year

d)

By the Labour Department

28.

What is the maximum number of members allowed in a Grievance Redressal Committee?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

29.

A worker must submit a grievance to the Grievance Redressal Committee within:

a)

6 months from the date of occurrence

b)

9 months from the date of occurrence

c)

1 year from the date of occurrence

d)

2 years from the date of occurrence

30.

The Grievance Redressal Committee must resolve a worker’s complaint within:

a)

15 days

b)

21 days

c)

30 days

d)

45 days

31.

A decision of the Grievance Redressal Committee is valid only if:

a)

All members agree unanimously

b)

A simple majority of total members agree

c)

More than half of the worker representatives agree

d)

The chairperson approves the decision

32.

If more than half of the worker representatives do not agree with the decision, the outcome will be:

a)

Decision is binding on employer

b)

Matter is automatically referred to Tribunal

c)

Decision is treated as not having been taken

d)

Employer’s decision will prevail

33.

If a worker is dissatisfied with the GRC decision or if no decision is made within 30 days, the grievance may be escalated to:

a)

Labour Court directly

b)

Industrial Tribunal

c)

Conciliation Officer within 60 days through Trade Union

d)

Appropriate Government immediately

34.

A dispute arising from dismissal, discharge, or retrenchment of an individual worker shall be treated as:

a)

A civil dispute

b)

A personal dispute

c)

An industrial dispute

d)

A contractual dispute only

35.

If a Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC) has 10 members, how should they be represented?

a)

6 employer + 4 workers

b)

7 employer + 3 workers

c)

5 employer + 5 workers

d)

4 employer + 6 workers

36.

In a GRC with 5 worker representatives, and where women workers form a significant proportion, the minimum number of women representatives must be:

a)

At least 1

b)

At least 2

c)

At least 3

d)

At least 4

37.

If an establishment has 200 female workers and 300 male workers, the ratio of female to male workers is:

a)

3 : 2

b)

2 : 3

c)

1 : 1

d)

3 : 5

38.

The requirement of women representatives in the GRC is based on:

a)

Equal number rule

b)

Seniority of workers

c)

Proportion of women workers in the establishment

d)

Nomination by the employer

39.

The principle illustrated regarding GRC composition mainly ensures:

a)

Employer dominance

b)

Government control

c)

Gender-sensitive and balanced representation

d)

Faster disciplinary action

40.

The minimum number of persons required to form a Trade Union under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 is:

a)

5

b)

7

c)

6

d)

10

41.

A Trade Union of workers can be registered only if, at the time of application, it has:

a)

At least 50 workers as members

b)

At least 10% or 100 workers, whichever is higher

c)

At least 10% or 100 workers, whichever is lower

d)

At least 20% of the total workers

42.

For a company employing 800 workers, the minimum number of members required for Trade Union registration is:

a)

80

b)

100

c)

10

d)

8

43.

After registration, a Trade Union must continue to maintain:

a)

At least 20% of total workers as members

b)

At least 10% or 100 workers (whichever is lower), but not less than seven members

c)

At least 100 members in all cases

d)

Only the original number of members

44.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Trade Union membership?

a)

Membership requirements apply both at registration and after registration

b)

Membership requirement applies only at the time of registration

c)

Membership can fall below seven after registration

d)

Trade Union membership is optional after registration

45.

A factory employs 500 workers. To maintain Trade Union registration, the minimum number of members required is:

a)

100

b)

50

c)

7

d)

10

46.

In a workshop employing 80 workers, the Trade Union must have at least:

a)

7 members

b)

10 members

c)

20 members

d)

8 members

47.

Which of the following correctly applies the 10% or 100 rule?

a)

10% of workers or 100 workers, whichever is lower

b)

Always 10% of total workers

c)

Always 100 workers

d)

20% of workers or 50 workers

48.

The Registrar shall register a Trade Union only when:

a)

The employer gives consent

b)

Government issues a notification

c)

All requirements of the law are complied with

d)

The Trade Union has more than 100 members

49.

After registration, the certificate of registration issued by the Registrar serves as:

a)

Provisional proof of registration

b)

Final proof of registration

c)

Temporary authorization

d)

Evidence subject to government approval

50.

Once a Trade Union is registered, its details are recorded by the Registrar:

a)

Only in one register

b)

Only in digital records

c)

Only in the Labour Department records

d)

In a register in the prescribed format and a separate register

51.

A Trade Union registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926, before the commencement of this law:

a)

Must apply again for fresh registration

b)

Is deemed to be automatically registered under the new law

c)

Loses its legal status

d)

Requires approval from workers again

52.

Even though a Trade Union registered under the 1926 Act is deemed registered, it must:

a)

Change its name

b)

Dissolve and reconstitute

c)

Increase membership to 20%

d)

Submit an updated statement confirming compliance with the new law

53.

The Registrar may cancel the registration of a Trade Union when:

a)

The employer files a complaint

b)

The Trade Union applies for cancellation itself

c)

The government issues a general order

d)

Membership exceeds 100 workers

54.

Which of the following is a valid ground for cancellation of Trade Union registration?

a)

Violation of the provisions of the law or the Trade Union’s own rules

b)

Failure to conduct annual meetings

c)

Decline in employer profitability

d)

Change in management of the establishment

55.

If the membership of a Trade Union falls below the prescribed limit, registration may be cancelled when the membership is below:

a)

50 workers in all cases

b)

20% of total workers

c)

7 workers only

d)

10% of total workers or 100 workers, whichever is lower

56.

Before cancelling the registration of a Trade Union (other than on its own request), the Registrar must give:

a)

60 days’ written notice stating reasons

b)

30 days’ oral notice

c)

45 days’ written notice

d)

Immediate notice through notification

57.

If a Tribunal orders the cancellation of a Trade Union’s registration, the Registrar:

a)

May review the order

b)

Must cancel the registration as per the order

c)

Can seek government approval

d)

Can issue only a warning

58.

Every industrial establishment having a registered trade union must have:

a)

Either a negotiating union or a negotiating council

b)

A works committee only

c)

Only a negotiating council

d)

Only a negotiating union

59.

When there is only one registered trade union in an establishment, the employer must:

a)

Form a negotiating council

b)

Seek government approval

c)

Recognize it as the sole negotiating union

d)

Conduct a secret ballot

60.

In case of multiple registered trade unions, which union will be recognized as the sole negotiating union?

a)

The oldest registered union

b)

The union nominated by the employer

c)

The union with maximum office bearers

d)

The union having support of at least 51% of workers

61.

The primary role of a negotiating union or negotiating council is to:

a)

Resolve individual grievances

b)

Negotiate with the employer on specified matters

c)

Enforce disciplinary action

d)

Conduct strikes and lock-outs

62.

When no single trade union has 51% or more worker support, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The employer may recognize the largest union as the negotiating union

b)

A negotiating council must be formed including unions with at least 20% support, with one representative per 20% workers

c)

All registered unions must be included irrespective of worker support

d)

The government will directly negotiate with workers

63.

An agreement arrived at between the employer and the negotiating council will be valid only if:

a)

All trade union representatives unanimously agree

b)

The employer alone approves the agreement

c)

The agreement is ratified by the appropriate government

d)

A majority of trade union representatives in the council agree, and recognition remains valid for three years (extendable to five years by mutual consent)

64.

Which of the following statements correctly reflects the requirements relating to Standing Orders under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Standing Orders apply to establishments with 100 or more workers and must be submitted within one year

b)

Establishments with 300 or more workers must prepare Standing Orders within 6 months, aligned with model Standing Orders

c)

Standing Orders are optional and need only government approval

d)

Standing Orders apply to all establishments irrespective of worker strength

65.

Standing Orders become effective and binding only when they are:

a)

Approved by the employer

b)

Certified by the certifying officer after consultation with trade unions or workers’ representatives

c)

Filed with the Labour Department

d)

Published on the company notice board

66.

Which of the following statements regarding Standing Orders is correct?

a)

Employers can frame standing orders without reference to model standing orders

b)

Employers may frame their own standing orders, but they must not contradict model standing orders and must consult the trade union if it exists

c)

Standing Orders may contradict model standing orders with government approval

d)

Standing Orders apply only after approval by workers

67.

With respect to modification and enforcement of Standing Orders, which option is correct?

a)

Employers can modify standing orders unilaterally at any time

b)

Modification requires only employee consent

c)

Standing orders cannot be modified once certified

d)

Modification requires government approval and consultation, and unfair provisions can be challenged by workers or unions

68.

An employer proposes to change a condition of service listed in the Third Schedule. Which of the following is legally correct?

a)

The change can be made immediately with management approval

b)

The change can be made only after giving notice and waiting 21 days from the date of notice

c)

The change can be made after consulting the trade union without notice

d)

The change can be made within 7 days of informing workers

69.

Which of the following situations does NOT require a notice of change under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Change in wages not covered by settlement

b)

Permanent change in service conditions without consultation

c)

Change in working hours decided unilaterally by employer

d)

Change arising out of a settlement or award or directed by the appropriate government

70.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the process of voluntary arbitration under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Arbitration can be imposed by the government without consent of parties

b)

A written arbitration agreement must name arbitrators, and if their number is even, an umpire must be appointed whose decision is final

c)

Arbitrators can decide disputes informally without any written agreement

d)

The decision of the umpire is only recommendatory

71.

An arbitration agreement becomes applicable to workers or employers not originally party to it when:

a)

The employer requests compulsory participation

b)

The arbitrator issues a notice

c)

The government is satisfied that the agreement represents the majority and issues a notification, after which affected parties may present their views

d)

The conciliation officer approves the award

72.

In a dispute referred to arbitration under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

In all disputes, workers must be represented only by a Trade Union

b)

For general work-related disputes, representation depends on whether a negotiating union/council or Trade Union exists, while an individual worker may represent themselves in a dismissal-related dispute

c)

Individual workers cannot represent themselves in any arbitration

d)

Representation is decided solely by the employer

73.

Which of the following correctly explains the effect of an arbitration award and applicable law?

a)

The arbitration award is private and not sent to the government

b)

The government cannot intervene in strikes or lock-outs during arbitration

c)

Arbitration proceedings are governed fully by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

d)

The arbitrator submits a signed award to the government, which may stop an ongoing strike or lock-out, and the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 does not apply

74.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of Conciliation Officers and their appointment?

a)

Conciliation Officers adjudicate disputes and pass binding awards

b)

Conciliation Officers are appointed by the government to mediate disputes and promote amicable settlements

c)

Conciliation Officers are appointed by trade unions to enforce settlements

d)

Conciliation Officers replace Industrial Tribunals

75.

With reference to Industrial Tribunals, which of the following is correct?

a)

Industrial Tribunals consist only of Judicial Members

b)

All disputes must be decided by a single member

c)

Industrial Tribunals consist of a Judicial Member and an Administrative Member; in dismissal, strike, or trade union disputes, both members jointly decide

d)

Administrative Members decide cases independently in all matters

76.

Which of the following statements regarding National Industrial Tribunals (NITs) under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 is correct?

a)

NITs are set up by State Governments for local disputes and consist of one member only

b)

NITs are set up by the Central Government for disputes of national importance or affecting multiple States and consist of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member

c)

NITs consist only of Administrative Members with government experience

d)

NITs deal only with individual worker grievances

77.

A person shall be disqualified from being a member of an Industrial Tribunal or National Industrial Tribunal if:

a)

He has experience in labour administration

b)

He is a retired High Court Judge

c)

He has attained the age of 65 years or is not an independent person connected with the dispute

d)

He has served as a Secretary to the Government

78.

Which of the following combinations is correctly matched with its key feature?

a)

Conciliation – Binding decision given by a third party

b)

Arbitration – Dispute referred to a neutral arbitrator whose judgment decides the dispute

c)

Adjudication – Mutual settlement arrived through discussions facilitated by a conciliator

d)

Conciliation – Decision imposed without consent of parties

79.

Which statement correctly distinguishes Conciliation, Arbitration, and Adjudication?

a)

All three require consent of both parties

b)

Arbitration and adjudication are identical processes

c)

Conciliation always results in a binding award

d)

In conciliation, the conciliator facilitates settlement; in arbitration, the arbitrator gives a decision; in adjudication, the dispute is decided by an independent authority with or without consent of parties

80.

Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled before workers can legally go on strike under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Giving a 30-day notice and striking immediately after

b)

Giving at least 60 days’ notice and waiting 14 days after giving such notice

c)

Giving notice only to the Trade Union

d)

Giving notice after starting the strike

81.

A strike is prohibited during which of the following situations?

a)

During conciliation proceedings and for 7 days after their conclusion

b)

While a Tribunal or National Tribunal case is pending and for 60 days after it ends

c)

During arbitration proceedings and for 60 days after, if officially notified by the government

d)

All of the above

82.

Workers have given a valid strike notice but the dispute is already covered by a settlement or court award. In this case:

a)

Strike can proceed after 14 days

b)

Strike can proceed after 60 days

c)

Strike is not permitted while the settlement or award is in operation

d)

Strike is permitted only with government approval

83.

Which of the following conditions must be satisfied before an employer can legally declare a lock-out under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Giving 30 days’ notice and immediate enforcement

b)

Giving 60 days’ notice and waiting 14 days after giving such notice

c)

Giving notice only to the government

d)

Declaring lock-out after conciliation fails

84.

An employer is prohibited from declaring a lock-out in which of the following situations?

a)

During conciliation proceedings and for 7 days after their conclusion

b)

While a Tribunal or National Tribunal proceeding is pending and for 60 days after it ends

c)

During arbitration proceedings and for 60 days after, if notified by the government

d)

All of the above

85.

If a settlement or court award relating to the dispute is in operation, the employer:

a)

May declare a lock-out after giving notice

b)

May declare a lock-out with government permission

c)

Cannot declare a lock-out during the period of operation of the settlement or award

d)

Can declare a lock-out after 14 days

86.

When a strike or lock-out is already in progress, which of the following is correct under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

Fresh notice must be given to the workers

b)

Fresh notice must be given to the government

c)

No additional notice is required, but the employer must inform the government on the same day

d)

The strike or lock-out automatically becomes illegal

87.

If an employer gives or receives a notice of strike or lock-out, the employer must inform:

a)

Only the Trade Union

b)

Only the appropriate government

c)

The Tribunal immediately

d)

The government and the conciliation officer within 5 days

88.

The requirement to inform the government on the same day applies when:

a)

A strike notice is proposed

b)

A strike or lock-out is actually declared during an ongoing dispute

c)

A lock-out notice expires

d)

Conciliation proceedings are completed

89.

Which of the following workers is eligible for lay-off compensation under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?

a)

A temporary worker with six months’ service

b)

A casual worker whose name is on the muster roll

c)

Any worker employed for more than 30 days

d)

A permanent worker on the muster roll with at least one year of continuous service

90.

During a lay-off (continuous or intermittent), the employer is required to pay compensation equal to:

a)

25% of basic wages only

b)

50% of basic wages and dearness allowance

c)

75% of total wages

d)

Full wages including allowances

91.

Which of the following periods is excluded while calculating lay-off compensation?

a)

Days of intermittent lay-off

b)

Days of continuous lay-off

c)

Weekly holidays falling within the lay-off period

d)

Working days during lay-off

92.

If a worker is laid off for more than 45 days in a 12-month period, the employer is required to pay lay-off compensation:

a)

For the entire lay-off period without limit

b)

Only for the first 45 days, provided there is an agreement with the worker

c)

Only after obtaining government permission

d)

Only if the worker demands compensation

93.

After a worker has been laid off for 45 days, the employer may:

a)

Continue lay-off without any further action

b)

Terminate the worker without following any procedure

c)

Automatically close the establishment

d)

Retrench the worker by following the prescribed retrenchment rules

94.

When a worker is retrenched after being laid off, the lay-off compensation already paid in the preceding 12 months:

a)

Must be refunded by the worker

b)

Cannot be adjusted against retrenchment compensation

c)

Becomes an additional bonus to the worker

d)

Can be adjusted against the retrenchment compensation payable

95.

If a company intends to close down its undertaking, it must ordinarily:

a)

Inform the government at least 60 days in advance, stating reasons for closure

b)

Inform the government at least 30 days in advance

c)

Inform workers only

d)

Obtain prior permission from the Tribunal

96.

Which of the following establishments is exempted from giving a 60-day notice before closure?

a)

A company employing less than 50 workers

b)

A factory employing 200 workers

c)

A manufacturing unit employing 55 workers

d)

A service establishment employing 300 workers

97.

In which of the following situations can the government permit closure without a 60-day notice, even if the establishment does not fall under the normal exemptions?

a)

Accidents, death of employer, or natural disasters

b)

Change in ownership

c)

Poor financial performance

d)

Completion of production targets

98.

The provisions relating to prior permission for lay-off apply to an industrial establishment employing:

a)

Not less than 300 workers

b)

100 or more workers

c)

200 or more workers

d)

All establishments irrespective of size

99.

Under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, an employer intending to lay off a permanent worker must:

a)

Inform workers only after lay-off

b)

Obtain prior permission from the government and inform affected workers simultaneously

c)

Seek approval from the Trade Union

d)

Give notice after 45 days of lay-off

100.

In the case of a mine where workers are laid off due to fire, flood, gas, or explosion, the employer must:

a)

Obtain permission before laying off workers

b)

Apply for government permission within 30 days to continue the lay-off

c)

Pay compensation without informing the government

d)

Automatically retrench the workers

101.

While deciding an application for lay-off permission, the government is required to:

a)

Decide solely based on employer’s application

b)

Automatically approve within 30 days

c)

Refer every case directly to a Tribunal

d)

Conduct inquiries, hear both employer and workers, and record the decision in writing

102.

If the government does not communicate its decision within 60 days of receiving the application for lay-off permission, the lay-off shall be:

a)

Deemed rejected

b)

Kept pending until a decision is issued

c)

Deemed to have been automatically approved

d)

Illegal

103.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the finality and review of the government’s decision on lay-off?

a)

The decision is provisional and valid for six months

b)

The decision is final, valid for one year, and may be reviewed or referred to a Tribunal which must decide within 30 days

c)

The decision cannot be reviewed under any circumstances

d)

The Tribunal has unlimited time to decide the matter

104.

An employer intending to close an industrial undertaking must:

a)

Inform only the workers 30 days in advance

b)

Apply for permission at least 90 days in advance to the government and workers’ representatives

c)

Apply for permission after closure

d)

Seek approval only from the Trade Union

105.

Which of the following statements regarding government decision on closure is correct?

a)

The government decides only on the employer’s financial condition

b)

The government must conduct an enquiry, hear both employer and workers, and communicate its decision in writing

c)

The decision is provisional and open to challenge by workers only

d)

The decision applies only for six months

106.

If the government fails to communicate its decision within 60 days of receiving the closure application:

a)

The closure is deemed automatically approved, and the decision (approval or rejection) is final and binding

b)

The application must be refiled

c)

The closure is deemed rejected

d)

The matter must compulsorily go to the Tribunal

107.

After granting or refusing permission for closure, the government may:

a)

Take no further action

b)

Only reconsider the decision after one year

c)

Review its decision or refer the matter to a Tribunal, which must decide within 30 days

d)

Automatically revoke the decision

108.

If an employer fails to apply for closure permission or closes the undertaking despite denial of permission, the closure shall be treated as:

a)

Illegal, and workers will continue to receive all benefits as if the undertaking were operating

b)

Temporarily suspended

c)

Valid but irregular

d)

Valid subject to payment of compensation

109.

When closure is approved or deemed approved, workers employed before the application date are entitled to:

a)

One month’s wages only

b)

Compensation equal to 7 days’ wages per year of service

c)

Compensation only if demanded by workers

d)

Compensation of 15 days’ average pay for each completed year of service or as notified by the government

110.

The Worker Re-skilling Fund is created and maintained by:

a)

Employers’ associations

b)

Trade Unions

c)

The government

d)

Industrial Tribunals

111.

Which of the following correctly states the source of funds for the Worker Re-skilling Fund?

a)

Contribution of one month’s wages by workers

b)

Contribution of 15 days’ last-drawn wages by employers for each retrenched worker and other sources decided by the government

c)

Annual government budgetary grants only

d)

Equal contribution by employer and worker

112.

Under the Worker Re-skilling Fund, a retrenched worker is entitled to:

a)

One month’s wages within 30 days

b)

15 days’ last-drawn wages paid within 45 days of retrenchment

c)

Compensation equal to retrenchment benefits

d)

Payment only after completion of re-skilling