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Mock Test-1

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the slide titled “Health and Safety Regulations”. What is the act highlighted for engineering health and safety?

a)

Environmental Protection Act 1990

b)

Corporate Manslaughter Act 2007

c)

Factories Act 1961

d)

Health and Safety at Work Act 1974

2.

Which statement best distinguishes criminal law from civil law in workplace safety contexts?

a)

Criminal law always involves negligence; civil law involves strict liability

b)

Criminal law focuses on compensation; civil law imposes imprisonment

c)

Criminal law is optional guidance; civil law forms approved codes

d)

Criminal law punishes offenses against society; civil law resolves private disputes

3.

Which description accurately defines statute law in health and safety?

a)

Employer policies and ACOPs guidance

b)

Unwritten customs developed by courts

c)

Personal duties agreed in contracts

d)

Written laws enacted by parliament and binding

4.

Common law primarily arises from which source?

a)

Guidance notes issued by HSE

b)

Acts passed through parliament vote

c)

Agency regulations under HASAWA

d)

Judicial decisions establishing precedents

5.

Under the Health and Safety at Work Act (1974), employers are generally allowed to do what?

a)

Decide how to control identified risks

b)

Ignore risks if costs are high

c)

Eliminate every risk at all times

d)

Leave risk control to employees

6.

Which item is a regulation typically made under HASAWA?

a)

Building covenants in leases

b)

Company Directors Disqualification rules

c)

Public Order Offenses Act provisions

d)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH)

7.

What is the role of Approved Codes of Practice (ACOP) in safety management?

a)

Provide advice on addressing risks

b)

Replace statutory regulations entirely

c)

Act as criminal penalties for breaches

d)

Create civil liabilities automatically

8.

The phrase “so far as is reasonably practicable” requires employers to do what?

a)

Balance risk reduction against time, money, and trouble

b)

Eliminate all risks regardless of cost

c)

Wait for regulations before acting

d)

Shift all risks to contractors

9.

Which outcome most likely follows a breach of criminal health and safety law?

a)

Prosecution and penalties imposed by the state

b)

Private compensation without any fines

c)

Only internal disciplinary actions occur

d)

Binding ACOP guidance becomes optional

10.

In the SFAIRP standard, what is weighed to decide if a measure should be taken?

a)

Risk against cost of measures

b)

Cost against legal penalties

c)

Risk against company reputation

d)

Worker preference against management goals

11.

Which statement best reflects the Edwards v National Coal Board principle?

a)

Cost and risk are treated as unrelated factors

b)

Greater risk increases the weight of cost

c)

Greater risk reduces the weight of cost

d)

Lower risk always eliminates consideration of cost

12.

A firm can spend £1 million. Which choice is SFAIRP?

a)

Sponsor community events for goodwill

b)

Upgrade office décor for morale

c)

Prevent five minor bruises

d)

Prevent a major explosion killing 150 people

13.

Under the Health and Safety at Work Act (1974), employers have a general duty to protect whom?

a)

Shareholders and investors

b)

Employees and the public

c)

Only managers

d)

Contractors only

14.

Which employer responsibility directly supports SFAIRP by reducing risk at source?

a)

Set ambitious production targets

b)

Provide safe plant and equipment

c)

Offer optional first-aid classes

d)

Publish monthly safety newsletters

15.

Which duty is an employer’s responsibility under safety regulations?

a)

Maintain personal hygiene

b)

Report all hazards promptly

c)

Use PPE when instructed

d)

Provide welfare facilities

16.

What must employers ensure regarding dangerous substances?

a)

Safe storage and disposal

b)

Personal hygiene standards

c)

Emergency exit signage

d)

Routine fire drills only

17.

Which system should employers provide to support workplace safety?

a)

Peer recognition scheme

b)

Monthly social events

c)

Accident reporting process

d)

Flexible vacation booking

18.

Which statement reflects an employer’s duty toward non-employees?

a)

Only protect paying clients

b)

Protect others affected by work

c)

Leave safety to contractors

d)

No duty to the public

19.

Which is primarily an employee responsibility?

a)

Provide training sessions

b)

Install welfare facilities

c)

Cooperate on health and safety

d)

Issue a safety policy

20.

How should employees treat equipment provided for safety?

a)

Do not misuse or interfere

b)

Modify to improve speed

c)

Store offsite when unused

d)

Share freely with visitors

21.

What is the correct action when PPE is provided by the employer?

a)

Use PPE as instructed

b)

Wear only during inspections

c)

Decline unless comfortable

d)

Replace with personal gear

22.

Which practice best supports a safe working environment?

a)

Avoid reporting incidents

b)

Rely on supervisors only

c)

Know emergency procedures

d)

Ignore minor hazards

23.

An employer provides training, information, instruction, and supervision. What is the intended outcome?

a)

Shift legal duty to workers

b)

Reduce holiday allowance

c)

Enable safe task completion

d)

Increase production quotas

24.

Which action aligns with both duty of care and cooperation?

a)

Share PPE between staff

b)

Disable warning alarms

c)

Report hazards promptly

d)

Refuse safety briefings

25.

Which body primarily enforces health and safety law across most workplaces in the UK?

a)

Health and Safety Executive (HSE)

b)

Local authority environmental health departments

c)

Office of Rail Regulations (ORR)

d)

Trade unions and worker representatives

26.

Under Section 20 of the Health and Safety at Work Act, which power allows an inspector to enter any premises for enforcement purposes?

a)

Employer invitation and consent only

b)

Civil entry under planning legislation

c)

Police-authorised forced entry warrant

d)

Statutory inspector entry power

27.

What is the key difference between an improvement notice and a prohibition notice?

a)

Improvement notice applies to public spaces; prohibition notice only to factories

b)

Improvement notice stops work immediately; prohibition notice gives time

c)

Improvement notice requires remedial action; prohibition notice stops dangerous activity

d)

Improvement notice starts a prosecution; prohibition notice avoids prosecution

28.

Which enforcement responsibility specifically belongs to the Office of Rail Regulations (ORR)?

a)

Noise complaints in neighbourhoods

b)

Air pollution from factories

c)

Railway health and safety enforcement

d)

Food hygiene in restaurants

29.

An HSE inspector orders an area to remain undisturbed and takes photos and samples. Which legal basis enables this?

a)

Environmental Protection Act licensing

b)

Section 20 powers under HSW Act

c)

Company policy on incident response

d)

Local authority bylaw on inspections

30.

Which incidents are typical for Environmental Health Officers to investigate?

a)

Chemical disposal into waterways and pest infestation

b)

Machine guarding failures on assembly lines

c)

Electrical isolation procedures in factories

d)

Track worker fatigue on railways

31.

In a situation posing serious and imminent danger, what action can an HSE inspector take?

a)

Require quarterly training refreshers

b)

Close down the company with no advance notice

c)

Transfer the case to local authorities

d)

Issue a warning letter only

32.

Which statement best defines a human cause of workplace accidents?

a)

Equipment defects due to wear

b)

Actions such as rushing or ignoring procedures

c)

Unsafe conditions like poor lighting

d)

Weather-related hazards like ice

33.

Which option is an environmental cause of workplace accidents?

a)

Fatigue from overtime shifts

b)

Poor housekeeping creating trip hazards

c)

Inadequate training on machinery

d)

Complacency during routine tasks

34.

What is the primary purpose of risk assessment in the workplace?

a)

Assign blame after incidents occur

b)

Identify hazards and reduce likelihood and severity

c)

Ensure all accidents are reported under RIDDOR

d)

Replace the need for staff training programs

35.

A minor cut requires a bandage but no time off. What is the correct immediate action?

a)

Stop all worksite operations

b)

Report it to RIDDOR immediately

c)

Record it in the accident book

d)

Ignore it because it is minor

36.

A workshop has trailing cables, poor lighting, and untrained temporary staff. Which control should be prioritized first using risk assessment principles?

a)

Install new lighting before anything

b)

Complete paperwork without changes

c)

Eliminate trip hazards like trailing cables

d)

Train temporary staff only

37.

Which scenario best exemplifies lack of management control leading to accidents?

a)

No supervision during hazardous operations

b)

Regular toolbox talks with supervisors present

c)

Experienced staff mentoring new hires

d)

Comprehensive training before equipment use

38.

Which employee conduct most directly increases immediate accident risk on a production line?

a)

Improper behaviour such as horseplay

b)

Logging near-miss reports promptly

c)

Following lockout procedures carefully

d)

Wearing approved PPE consistently

39.

A night-shift worker makes repeated errors after long hours. Which factor is most likely involved?

a)

Better visibility during night shifts

b)

Fatigue from extended work duration

c)

Improved reaction time overnight

d)

Enhanced focus due to caffeine

40.

Which environmental condition is most likely to cause trips and falls?

a)

Unguarded machinery on production floor

b)

Overcrowded office space with desks

c)

Untidy, dirty workplace with clutter

d)

Inadequate ventilation in welding bay

41.

A milling machine operates without guards and injures an operator. Which cause category fits best?

a)

Human conduct such as improper dress

b)

Lighting factor: excessive brightness

c)

Environmental factor: unguarded machinery

d)

Management control like training gaps

42.

To reduce eye strain and mistakes at inspection stations, which improvement targets the listed environmental causes?

a)

Mandate zero-tolerance for horseplay

b)

Provide advanced guard systems

c)

Enhance workplace lighting levels

d)

Increase task rotation frequency